314 exam 1 Flashcards
(117 cards)
1
Q
SPICES framework is
A
assessment tool used for older patients
S - sleep disorders
P - Problems eating or feeding
I - Incontinence
C - Confusion
E - Evidence of Falls
S - Skin Breakdown
2
Q
PQRSTU pain assessment
A
P - provoking factors
Q - Quality / Quantity
R - Region / Radiation
S - Severity
T - Timing
U - Understanding
3
Q
older client who live at home maintain independence longer if engaged in ________
A
strength and flexibility exercises
4
Q
pain is considered chronic if it has lasted for ______
A
3 months
5
Q
cancer pain can either be _____ or ______
A
acute or chronic
6
Q
examples of somatic pain
A
cuts, headaches, pelvic pain
7
Q
examples of visceral pain
A
abdominal pain, chest pain, back pain
8
Q
to best combat dehydration _____ should be drank
A
water
9
Q
green tea and grapefruit juice will ______ the effects of doxorubicin
A
enhance the side effects
10
Q
_____ should be avoided for pain control in head injuries
A
opioids
11
Q
premenopausal women taking tamoxifen are at risk for early _______
A
osteoporosis
12
Q
hyperkalemia can be seen on an EKG as _______
A
higher peaked T waves
13
Q
_____ race variations are at higher risk for neutropenia when taking Vincristine (oncovin)
A
Asian
14
Q
chemotherapy can cause cognitive issues for clients. This is termed ____
A
chemo - brain
15
Q
NADIR is when
A
blood counts are at their lowest during the chemotherapy treatment period
16
Q
_______ foods should be avoided when taking mechlorethamine
A
citrus or citric
17
Q
dastininb may cause an imbalance of ______ and ________
A
phosphorus and calcium
18
Q
acetaminophen with codeine is commonly called a _____ type of medication
A
combination
19
Q
legal documents and consents should be signed before giving _______
A
narcotics
20
Q
when handling chemotherapy drugs you should use _____
A
PPE
21
Q
chemotherapy medication infiltrates, apply ______ packs for 15-20 minutes at least 4 times per day
A
heat packs
22
Q
In HPV, ____ is used for girls and _____ is used for boys
A
gardisil, cervarix
23
Q
vincristine can cause peripheral _______
A
neuropathy
24
Q
a patient on rituximab should report ______ immediately
A
low grade fever
25
exposed radioactive devices should be placed into a ______
lead container
26
elderly patients have diminished ______ and ______
taste and smell
27
most common reason for elderly acute onset confusion
polypharmacy
28
most common reason for adverse drug events in older adults
polypharmacy
29
older patients may be ______ history givers
poor recollection of history
30
avoid _______ patients at all cost
restraining
31
for older patients _______ restraints every ________
release restraints every 1-2 hours and walk/turn/toilet
32
check patient every _________ when under restraints
30 - 60 minutes
33
recidivism definition
relapse to criminal behavior
34
______ leads to high readmission rate and reoccurring health co morbidities
poorly coordinated care
35
developmental tasks definition
transitions that occur in normal successful adulthood
36
transitions definition
health or illness events that require an individual to make modifications in his or her lifestyle
37
social age defines
what is considered an appropriate behavior in each stage of the life cycle.
38
______ is the leading cause of disability
pain
39
hierarchy of pain measures in order
1. obtain a self-report
2. search for potential causes
3. observe behaviors
4. obtain information from others
5. attempt a trial of pain medication
40
pain assessment in advanced dementia scale - BNFBC
breathing -
negative vocalization -
facial expression -
body language -
consolability -
41
caffeine ______ the effects of acetaminophen
enhances absorption and strengthens analgesic effects of acetaminophen
42
contraceptives ______ the effects of acetaminophen
reduce
43
maximum daily dosage of ibuprofen if prescribed
3200 mg per 24 hours if prescribed
44
maximum daily dosage of ibuprofen if used OTC
1200 mg OTC
45
ibuprofen mechanism of action
blocks cox 1 and cox 2 to inhibit prostaglandins
46
overdose protocol for ibuprofen
Time and charcoal lavage
47
Reye's syndrome cut off age
19 years or younger
48
unique side effect of aspirin
tinnitus
49
NSAID's cause _____ which result in _____ blood pressure
sodium retention which results in increased blood pressure.
50
maximum daily dosages of celecoxib and valdecoxib
800 mg per day
51
activation of serotonin receptors in the brain cause ______
vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure
52
5-HT receptor agonists do what
activates serotonin receptors in the brain
53
Sumatriptan mechanism of action
5-HT receptor agonists that vasoconstricts cerebral vassals to relieve headaches
54
avoid use of opioids if the patient has ______ or ______
head trauma or asthma
55
expected morphine dosage
2-10 mg IV
56
maximum dosage of morphine per day
30 mg IV maximum per day
57
before administering morphine, make sure that _______
legal documents are signed
58
two serious adverse reactions to morphine include
respiratory depression and hypotension (shock)
59
_______ indicate morphine overdose
pinpoint pupils
60
overdose of meperidine may lead to _______ activity
seizure activity
61
meperidine has a ______ than morphine
shorter duration of action
62
with hydromorphone injection _______ direct solution injection
avoid
63
butorphanol, buprenorphine, and nalbuphine
less euphoric than morphine and meperidine, less addictive, used in patients with history of opioid abuse and addiction
64
butorphanol, buprenorphine, and nalbuphine last _____ hours
5 hours of duration
65
Dtap is
diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccine for children 6 weeks to 6 years old
66
Tdap is
tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis vaccine for ages 10 and up
67
Directed radiation therapy does what
slows and stops cell division at the tumor site
68
Debulking
palliative treatment for patients whom the cancer is not reversable (improve quality of life but not cure)
69
Proton beam is direct radiation therapy specifically to the tumor site. What is used to cut it out?
gamma knife therapy directly
70
Brachytherapy is ________
removal radiation source is in direct contact with the patient so the patient is considered to be radioactive
71
If the source of extraction is external, then the patient is not considered _______
radioactive
72
Some effects of radiation take ______ to develop
years
73
antineoplastic drugs are also referred to as ______
carpet bombers
74
Biologic response modifiers (BRM's) work to
boost specific immune response
75
alkylating chemotherapy agents must ______ per day
drink 2 liters of fluid per day
76
alkylating chemotherapy agents might cause _______
peripheral neuropathy
77
The main alkylating agent of focus is _______
Mechlorethamine HCL (Mustargen)
78
Anthracyclines - Doxorubicin toxicity leads to ____
cardio toxicity
79
give doxorubicin through ____ lines only
large bore intravenous devices such as PICC lines and central lines
80
green tea ______ doxorubicin's effects
enhances
81
St. John's wort _______ doxorubicin's effects
reduces
82
4 G's ______ doxorubicin's effects
reduces
83
an expected side effect of doxorubicin is _____ urine
pink or red
84
doxorubicin causes high grade neutropenia in _____ patients
Asian
85
Antimetabolic drug of focus
Fluorouracil (5-FU)
86
Fluorouracil possess high risk for
pancytopenia - increased bleeding, increased risk for infection, and anemia
87
pancytopenia trifecta
neutropenia
anemia
thrombocytopenia
88
Plant alkaloid drug of focus
Vincristine (Oncovin)
89
Vincristine mechanism of action
forces cancer cells into apoptosis
90
Fluorouracil (5-FU) mechanism of action
stops DNA synthesis of cancer cells
91
Vincristine is known to cause
peripheral neuropathy
92
Leucovorin (folate analog) is administered to prevent _____ of vincristine
toxic effects
93
Androgens are used for (chemotherapy)
used for advanced breast cancer in PRE menopausal women
94
Antiestrogens are used for (chemotherapy)
blocking estrogen in estrogen dependent breast cancers
95
SERMS are used for (chemotherapy)
similar to anti estrogens but with fewer low estrogen side effects in women
96
Luteinizing hormone uses (chemotherapy)
suppresses FSH, and LH from pituitary. In men has the effect of reducing prostate size; in women will decrease ovary size.
97
Aromatase Inhibitors uses (chemotherapy)
blocks conversion of testosterone to estrogen -> used for estrogen dependent tumors, commonly used in treatment of breast cancer in POST menopausal women.
98
Tamoxifen may cause _____ and risk of fatty liver disease
hepatoxicity and so liver enzymes should be monitored
99
In women, Tamoxifen has been liked to _______
endometrial cancer
100
Tamoxifen has been shown to increase risk of _____ in stagnated patients
DVT
101
HPV vaccine for girls 9 to 26
gardisil 9
102
HPV vaccine for boys 9 to 26
cervarix
103
Tyrosine Kinases Inhibitors stem -
-nib
dasatinib
104
dasatinib mechanism of action
blocks atp binding sites to prevent kinase activity
105
kinases (enzymes) are
enzymes that carry out phosphorylation in metabolic reactions
106
dasatinib causes (electrolytes)
electrolyte imbalances of calcium and phosphorus
107
dasatinib causes (bone)
myelosuppression - assess for pancytopenia
108
with all chemotherapy drugs, avoid use of (pharm)
proton pump inhibitors and antiacids
109
Imatinib assess for
cardiac dysrhythmia
pancytopenia
110
dasatinib assess for
cardiac dysrhythmia
pancytopenia
111
bevacizumab (monoclonal antibody) mechanism of action
binds to VEGF which is needed for blood vessel growth within the tumor and stops it
same side effect profile as other chemo drugs
112
-mab unique side effect (clotting)
may increase INR values if taken with warfarin (vastly increased bleeding)
113
drug with highest risk for tumor lysis syndrome
rituximab (monoclonal antibody)
114
Interferons ____ white blood cells to fight cancer
stimulates and assists white blood cells to fight cancer
115
type 1 alpha interferons produced by ______
leukocytes
116
type 2 beta interferons produced by _____
fibroblasts
117
