Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ABSN > 306 Exam 2 > Flashcards

306 Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is Achromatopsia

A

is a rare form of color blindness in which the individual cannot distinguish any color at all and sees only shades of gray.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Osteoarthritis

A

Progressive Degeneration of cartilage and bone in a joint. Over time.
Bone on bone friction in the joint.
(Risks; Obesity
Age
Smoking
Repetitive stress on joints)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How frequently should adults get eye exams (what about those with comorbidities?)

A

W/o comorbidities
age 20-30s every 5-10 year
Age 40-54 every 2-4 year
Age 55-64 every 1-3 year
Age 65 and above every 1-2 year

With high risk or comorbidites (like diabetes)
Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Contraindications to MRI

A

Anything that can be attracted to the magnet. Anything that has any metal in it. Including implants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MRI with contrast contraindications

A

Same as standard MRI contraindications as well as:
Patients on dialysis
Patients with kidney or renal impairment
Patients who are being administered medication for diabetes mellitus or hypertension.
Breastfeeding or pregnant patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Photophobia

A

Sensitivity to light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the components of the sensory process?

A

Reception and perception

Reception = The process of receiving external stimuli or data.
Perception = Awareness and interpretation of stimuli; the ability of the individual to interpret the environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Left brain stroke symptoms and signs
(Think - Left brain = Language and logic)

A

Dysphasia
Reading or writing problems
Right sided hemiparesis (weakness)
Right sided neglect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Right sided stroke signs and symptoms
(Think right brain = reckless and really creative )

A

Lack of impulse control
Behavioral changes
Left hemparesis (weakness)
Left sided neglect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A client manifests with visual and spatial deficits, left homonymous hemianopsia and one sided neglect.
What is the suspected cause?

A

Right sided hemispheric stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What two cranial nerves are located in the anterior brain, and sensory only?

A

Cranial nerves 1 & 2,
Sense of smell (1) sight (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A negative Romberg test means what?

A

The patients balance is normal.

And the motor component of cranial nerve 8 is intact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When assessing cranial nerves 9 & 10, what would the nurse consider a normal finding?

A

Uvula and soft palate rising bilaterally on phonation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What do ligaments do?

A

Connect bones with eachother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What do tendons do?

A

Connect muscles to bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What regions do herniated discs usually occur in patients spine?

A

C5-C6; C6-C7; L4-L5; and L5-S1
(Cervical). And (lumbar, sacral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a herniated intervertebral disc?

A

A rupture of the cartilage surrounding the disc with a protrusion of the nucleus pulposus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is vertigo

A

A feeling of rotation or imbalance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Nystagmus

A

Rapid involuntary eye movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A common type of vertigo that is caused by a disruption of the orientation of ear otoliths with changes in head position is called what?

A

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Ménière’s disease?

A

Disorder of endolymph accumulation in the ear.
Symptoms are tinnitus, vertigo, imbalance, aural pressure and hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Blindness affect Black Americans more than other races. T/F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Uncontrolled hypertension, artherosclerosis, CVA (stroke), and uncontrolled diabetes mellitus can all contribute to vision loss T/F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the leading cause of blindness in the US

A

Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is cranial nerve 1?

A

Olfactory- sense of smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is cranial nerve 5?

A

Trigeminal nerve-
motor and sensory nerve
motor is temporal and masseter.
sensory has 3 divisions of face ( ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is cranial nerve 11?

A

Spinal accessory nerve.
motor movement of sternocleidomastoid (SCM) and Trap muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is cranial nerve 7?

A

Facial nerve- motor and sensory
facial expression eyes closing and mouth closing.
taste on anterior 2/3 of tongue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is cranial nerve 12

A

hypoglossal- motor
tongue movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is cranial nerve 9?

A

Glossopharyngeal.
motor- pharynx
sensory-TASTE!
pharynx, posterior eardrums and posterior tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is cranial nerve 10?

A

Vagus nerve. sensory and motor
motor- palate, pharynx, larynx
sensory- pharynx and larynx
SWALLOWING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is cranial nerve 8?

A

vestibucochlear nerve.

HEARING AND BALANCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is cranial nerve 3?

A

Oculomotor nerve.
raises upper eyelid,
PUPIL CONSTRICTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is cranial nerve 2?

A

Optic nerve.
only sensory
VISION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is cranial nerve 6?

A

Abducens nerve. -motor-
lateral deviation of eyes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is cranial nerve 4?

A

Trochlear nerve. -motor-
downward, internal rotation of the eye.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Does cartilage contain blood vessels?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are interventions for fractures?

A

Ice packs; pharmacological therapy to reduce swelling, pain and prevent infection; immobilization with splint, brace, cast or traction; surgery to stabilize bone or replace fractured bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

A

Autoimmune disease that causes damage to the myelin sheath around nerve.
Symptoms :
Loss of balance, muscle spasms, numbness/ tingling, tremor/weakness in arms/legs, bowel/bladder problems, eye/hearing/speech problems, cognitive defects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is bradykinesia

A

Slowness of movement due to muscle rigidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Parkinson’s disease

A

Motor system disorder caused by the lack of dopamine in brain and imbalance with a normal amount of acetylcholine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the 5 Ps of neurovascluar assessment?

A

Pain
Pallor
Pulses
Paresthesia
Paralysis/ paresis(weakness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

With Axillary crutches, the body weight is supported by ?

A

Wrists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Stereognosis is?

A

The ability to perceive and understand an object through touch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is impulse conduction

A

The transmission of an impulse along the nerve pathways to the spinal cord and directly to the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which cranial nerve is responsible for chewing?

A

Cranial nerve 5- trigeminal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

If a patient cannot feel any sensation of their upper or lower eyelid, cheek and scalp or tongue. What nerve would be affected?

A

Cranial nerve 5- trigeminal.

48
Q

Which sensory perceptions are associated with internal stimuli ?

A

Gustatory, visceral, stereognosis

49
Q

When testing the 6 cardinal fields of vision, what nerves are being assessed

A

Nerves 3,4,&6
Occulomotor, trochlear, and abducens

50
Q

What neurosensory assessments are included when testing a patients sensory function?

A

Distinguishing sharp from dull
Hot and cold sensation
Identifying vibration
Testing kinesthesia

51
Q

What visual problem is most commonly diagnosed in school-age children
When they have difficulty reading.

A

Convergence

52
Q

A patient has hyperlipidemia, what assessment is most associated with this that you would find when observing the eyes?

A

Xanthelasma
(Yellow plaques on or near lid margins)

53
Q

A hordeolum is what?

A

A sty. Commonly cause by a staph infection

54
Q

Treatment for glaucoma includes medications to relieve pressure t/f

A

True

55
Q

A nurse is admitting a client for the treatment of closed-angle glaucoma. What procedure should the nurse anticipate will be performed?

A

Laser iridotomy to treat closed angle glaucoma.
gonioplasty (iridoplasty)
or peripheral iridoplasty.

56
Q

What is used to treat age-related wet macular degeneration?

A

Laser surgery and photodynamic therapy

57
Q

What is the major cause of sensorineural hearing deficit?

A

Noise exposure

58
Q

What equipment should be used to assess an infant client with symptoms related to the ear?

A

Tympanogram, otoscope, thermometer

59
Q

A tympanogram measure what?

A

Pressure inside the middle ear.

60
Q

What medication can cause hearing impairment?

A

Aminoglycosides, alkylating agents, loop diuretics, and salicylicates

61
Q

What client would benefit from a hearing aid?

A

A client with stenosis in the ear canal.
(Conductive hearing loss)

62
Q

What is conductive hearing loss?

A

Conductive = obstruction of ear canal; impacted cerulean, perforated tympanic membrane, fluid, scarring, edema or stenosis of the canal

63
Q

What is sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Disorders that affect inner ear, auditory nerve, or auditory pathways. The receptors aren’t picking up the stimuli correctly.

64
Q

A family is learning to communicate with a member who has hearing loss. Which technique uses hand shapes to represent sounds?

A

Cued speech.
8 hand shapes represent consonant sounds and 4 positions about the face that represent vowels.

65
Q

What communication technique for hearing impairment uses speech and sign, finger spelling, lip reading, and residual hearing simultaneously.

A

Total communication

66
Q

Longer phrases are easier to understand than short ones for hearing impaired. T/f?

A

True

67
Q

A hearing screening is done on an infant prior to discharge after delivery. T/f?

A

True

68
Q

How far away can a newborn visually focus on objects?

A

8-10 inches away from them

69
Q

What is myringotomy?

A

Common procedure of inserting ear tubes in young children with recurrent otitis media.

70
Q

Who is otoacoustic emissions hearing testing performed on?

A

Almost exclusively on infants

71
Q

What is audiometry?

A

Testing that evaluates hearing loss

72
Q

If a patient has abnormal test results for a kinesthesia test what would be the most likely causative factor associated?

A

Lesion on the posterior column of the spinal cord.

73
Q

What is tonometry measure?

A

Intraocular pressure

74
Q

What is a fundoscopy?

A

visual inspection of the optic fundus using an ophthalmoscope.

75
Q

What is Gonioscopy differentiate?

A

open-angle from closed angle glaucoma.

76
Q

What is the Amsler grid used for?

A

as a diagnostic tool for AMD.

77
Q

Are there medications available for treating cataracts?

A

No

78
Q

What optic conditions can surgery treat?

A

cataracts, glaucoma, and wet AMD.

79
Q

What are the most common surgical procedures used for glaucoma management?

A

Trabeculoplasty and trabeculectomy filtration surgery.

80
Q

What is the most common form of glaucoma?

A

Open Angle. it is due to the decreased outflow of the aqueous humor.
it is gradual.

81
Q

extreme eye pain, accompanied by headaches, blurred vision and nausea could indicate what?

A

closed-angle glaucoma. It is a medical emergency. notify HCP.

82
Q

What is the normal Intraocular pressure reading range?

A

10-21 mmHg

83
Q

What does a patient want to avoid post optical surgery?

A

Anything that increases pressure:
coughing, sneezing, bending down at waist, lifting heavy objects, nausea and vomiting, valsalva maneuver (bearing down), anticholinergics (dries body out) -includes benedryl (drying).

avoiding constipation is a priority.

84
Q

explain laser trabeculoplasty to a client.

A

​”It improves the flow of the fluid in your eye and decreases the pressure within your​ eye.”

85
Q

what the worst that can happen from macular degeneration?

A

“Scar tissue may result from repeated bleeding​ episodes, leading to permanent loss of central​ vision.”

86
Q

what are some manifestations of a detached retina?

A

Floaters: irregular spots or dark lines in the field of vision
Blurred vision
Flashes of light
Progressive deterioration of vision

Sensation of a curtain or veil being drawn across the field of vision.
“hairnet like vision”

If the macula is involved, loss of central vision

87
Q

what are risk factors for glaucoma?

A

long term steroid use
age
heredity
race
myopia
HTN
diabetes
thin corneas

88
Q

What are 3 key signs for Menieres Disease?

A

tinnitus
unilateral hearing loss
vertigo.

89
Q

what is Menieres disease?

A

Buildup of endolymph fluid interferes with the normal signals between the inner ear and the brain, causing the symptoms of Ménière disease.

90
Q

Are there daily medications that can be used to treat macular degeneration?

A

no.

91
Q

The nurse is instructing a client newly diagnosed with glaucoma on​ self-administration of eye medication. With which type of medication should the nurse teach the client to apply pressure over the lacrimal​ sac?

A

topical​ beta-adrenergic blocking agents. This is important to prevent systemic absorption of the medication.

92
Q

why are Clients with nonexudative macular degeneration are not candidates for surgery or use of prescribed eyedrops.

A

Vision loss is typically not significant, and the disorder progresses slowly. However, there is a risk that the disorder will progress to an exudative stage of the disease.

93
Q

what conditions are contraindicated for beta adrenergic blockers?

A

asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, heart block, or heart failure).

94
Q

What are some risk factors for macular degeneration?

A

Modifiable risk factors include smoking, obesity, poor cardiovascular health, and excessive UV exposure. High alcohol consumption is also associated with a higher risk of developing AMD.
nonmodifiable risk factors include age, race, eye color (lighter eyes), and family history. AMD is seen more frequently in women, likely because they tend to live longer.

95
Q

The physical examination of a client with glaucoma includes…

A

distant and near​ vision,
peripheral​ fields,
and optic nerve cupping on the retina.

96
Q

While assessing a client with eye​ pain, the nurse finds​ red, cloudy conjunctiva and swollen eyelids. The nurse should suspect which eye​ injury?

A

Chemical burn of the eye.

97
Q

A detached retina is a medical emergency. T/F?

A

True. - will need surgery

98
Q

Clients with a corneal abrasion usually present with…

A

intense pain and​ redness, photophobia, and tearing.

99
Q

what is the difference between penetrating injury and perforating injury?

A

A penetrating injury has an entrance wound but no exit wound. A perforating injury has both entrance and exit​ wounds.

100
Q

what nursing interventions are appropriate for a patient who sustained blunt force trauma to their eye?

A

Place patient in semi-Fowler position.

            Protect the injured eye with an eye shield; patch the unaffected eye to minimize eye movement.
          
            Administer carbonic anhydrase inhibitor as prescribed.
101
Q

what diagnostic tests would be expected for a patient who sustained an eye injury?

A

Fluorescein stain
Facial​ x-ray
Visual acuity
Computerized tomography​ (CT) scan

102
Q

Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

A

an inherited disease causing peripheral neuropathy through the progressive degeneration of muscles.

103
Q

what are expected diagnostic laboratory tests to investigate the etiology of peripheral neuropathy.

A

Serum​ thiamine,
a metabolic​ panel,
thyroid function​ tests,
and a complete blood count

104
Q

what are surgical interventions indicated for a client with osteoarthritis?

A

Arthroplasty, osteotomy, and joint fusion

105
Q

Isometric exercises do what?

A

low impact strength training that can be safely adapted for people who are mobility impaired.
-yoga, wall sits.

106
Q

what is used instead of joint replacement surgery if the client is​ young, healthy, and damage is limited to only one side of the joint?

A

An osteotomy is performed to realign the joint or shift the joint load toward areas of less cartilage damage.

107
Q

what is synovial joint fluid analysis is used to detect?​

A

inflammation, bacteria, and uric acid crystals to rule out inflammatory arthritis and gout.

108
Q

What is a priority for a nurse to address with a client who has osteoarthritis?

A

chronic pain management

109
Q

What​ age-related changes to the musculoskeletal system can be expected?

A

Muscle fiber atrophy
Ligament tears
Flexed position of hips
Decreased joint fluid

110
Q

Prevention strategies for musculoskeletal disorders include

A

good​ nutrition, adequate calcium​ intake, and regular exercise.

111
Q

Which diagnostic test should the nurse expect the​ client’s healthcare provider to​ order for a patient who is suspected of having nerve problems?

A

Nerve conduction studies

Electromyography

112
Q

What is an open (compound) fracture?

A

Skin surface is broken and bones protrude through

113
Q

What are the healing stages of a fractured bone?

A

Inflammatory stage
Reparative stage
Remodeling stage

114
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

An systemic autoimmune disorder that effects the joints.

115
Q

What diagnostic tests would be performed to confirm Rheumatoid arthritis and rule out other diseases?

A

Synovial fluid aspiration
Rheumatoid Factor
Erythrocyte sedimentation

116
Q

If a patient comes in with knee pain and the X-ray and MRI were inconclusive. What procedure would you anticipate to occur next?

A

Arthroscopy.

117
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis signs and symptoms

A

Joint pain that increases at rest (relief with activity)
Contractures of small joints of hands (fingers)
Symmetrical pain and swelling in the small joints of hands.

ABSN (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions