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ABSN > 307 Exam 5 Mod 9-10 > Flashcards

307 Exam 5 Mod 9-10 Flashcards

1
Q

When a skeletal muscle contracts to cause a movement, the relatively stationary end of attachment of the muscle is termed what?

A

The insertion.

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2
Q

What are the articulate structures?

A

Joint capsule, synovium, synovial fluid, articulate cartilage, infra-articulate ligaments, juxta-articulate bone.

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3
Q

What are the extra-articulate structures?

A

Periarticular ligaments, tendons, bursar, muscle, fascia, bone, nerves, overlying skin

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4
Q

What do ligaments connect?

A

Bone to bone

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5
Q

What do tendons do?

A

Muscle to bone connection

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6
Q

What is cartilage?

A

Collagen matrix, facilitates smooth painless movement of joint.

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7
Q

What is bursae ?

A

Pouches of synovial fluid.
Cushions movement of tendons and muscles over bone/other joint structures.

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8
Q

What are synovial joints?

A

Freely moveable
Covered by articulate cartilage
Has a synovial cavity and a joint capsule

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9
Q

What type of joints are the knee and shoulders?

A

Synovial joints

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10
Q

What type of joints are in the vertebral column?

A

Cartilaginous joints

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11
Q

What type of joints are the suture of the skull?

A

Fibrous joints

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12
Q

What are 3 structure types of synovial joints? And examples of them

A

Spheroidal (ball and socket)
- shoulder and hip
Hinge - interphalangeal (fingers);foot; elbow.
Condylar- knee, Tmj joint

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13
Q

Where would you find bursae

A

In areas where tendons or muscles run against bone, ligament, or other tendons or muscles.

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14
Q

The leading cause of complaints in heath care visits are related to what?

A

Musculoskeletal complaints

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15
Q

What equipment do you need for joint examination?

A

Tape measure
Goniometer
Skin marking pen

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16
Q

Weak thumb abduction and decreased sensation of index finger, 5th finger or dorsal web space between thumb and index would indicate what?

A

Possible carpal tunnel syndrome

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17
Q

What are myalgias?

A

Generalized “aches and pains” within muscles

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18
Q

What are arthralgias?

A

Generalized “aches and pains” within joint without evidence of arthritis

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19
Q

Lateral hip pain located near the greater tronchanter would suggest what?

A

Trochanteric bursitis

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20
Q

progressive, systemic joint pain suggests what?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

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21
Q

Radiation of pain from low back into leg is seen in what?

A

Sciatica

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22
Q

Leg pain that resolves with rest and or lumbar forward flexion suggests what?

A

Spinal stenosis

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23
Q

Radicular pain (radiating along a dermatome) may be from what?

A

Spinal nerve compression, most commonly C7 or C6

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24
Q

Redness over a tender joint suggests what?

A

Septic (infection)
Gouty arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis

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25
Q

What are fasciculations

A

Fine tremors of the muscles.

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26
Q

Fasciculations with atrophy and muscle weakness suggest what?

A

Disease of the peripheral motor unit

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27
Q

How would you assess muscle tone?

A

Feeling the muscle’s resistance to passive stretch.

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28
Q

What is hypotonia?

A

Decreased muscle tone.

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29
Q

What is paresis

A

Impaired strength or weakness

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30
Q

What is plegia?

A

Paralysis. Absence of strength.

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31
Q

What is hemiparesis?

A

Weakness of one half of the body

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32
Q

What is hemiplegia?

A

Paralysis of one half of the body

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33
Q

Scale for muscle grading is 0-5 where 0 is no contraction and 5 is normal muscle strength. T/f

A

True

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34
Q

If you are testing the muscle strength of a patient and they can actively move against gravity but not against resistance what is the score?

A

3

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35
Q

If joint trauma is present in a patient, what should you do before attempting movement for muscle testing?

A

Ask about an X-ray

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36
Q

Trauma that results in stretching or tearing of a ligament is called what?

A

Sprain

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37
Q

Stretching that results in the tearing of a tendon is called what?

A

STrain. (T= tendon)

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38
Q

What 3 ROM maneuvers are done for the TMJ?

A

Ask patient to demonstrate opening and closing, profusion and retraction, and lateral side to side motions.

39
Q

Normally as the mouth opens wide, how many fingers can be inserted between incisors?

A

3 fingers is notmal

40
Q

What is the glenohumeral joint?

A

Shoulder joint. Ball and socket. Where the arm goes into the shoulder

41
Q

What is the shoulder girdle compromised of?

A

4 joints
-AC joint, Sternoclavicular joint, glenohumeral joint, scapulothoracic joint
3 large bones
- humerus, clavicle, scapula
3 principal muscle groups.
-Sits muscles (rotator cuff), axioscapular group (attaches trunk to scapula), and the axiohumeral group (attaches humerus to trunk)

42
Q

If you had a patient standing and instructed them to “raise your arms in front of you and overhead” what movement are you examining?
And what muscles are working?

A

Flexion of the shoulder

Anterior deltoid, pec major, coracobrachialis, biceps brachii

43
Q

When standing and arms are at your side, what is the shoulder movement that raises your arms behind you? And what principal muscles are used?

A

Shoulder hyperextension

Lats, teres major,post deltoid, triceps.

44
Q

“Raise your arms out to the side and overhead”
What movement is happening in the shoulder?

A

Abduction

45
Q

“Place one hand behind your back and touch your shoulder blade”
What shoulder movement is happening?

A

Internal rotation.

46
Q

“Raise your arm to shoulder level, bend your elbow and rotate your forearm toward the ceiling”
What shoulder movement is happening?

A

External rotation

47
Q

What is the special maneuver for examining the shoulders AC joint?

A

Sometimes called a crossover test, palpate and compare both joints for swelling or tenderness. Adduct the patients arm across the chest.
Pain with adduction is positive for a rotator cuff tear.

48
Q

What does it indicate if there is pain during the Apley scratch test?

A

It suggests rotator cuff disorder or adhesive capsulitis

49
Q

What does a positive result for the “drop arm” test indicate?

A

Rotator cuff tear if the patient cannot hold arm fully abducted at shoulder level.

50
Q

Weakness during the “empty can test” is a positive test for what?

A

Supraspinatus rotator cuff tear

51
Q

What is the pain provocation test?

A

Painful arc test.
Fully adduct the patients arm from 0-180 degrees.
Shoulder pain from 60-120 degrees is a positive test for subacromial impingement/rotator cuff tendinitis disorder.

52
Q

What are the SITS muscles that form the rotator cuff

A

Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Subscapularis

53
Q

What are the 4 regions of the brain

A

Cerebrum
Diencephalon
Brainstem
Cerebellum

54
Q

What is the frontal lobe functions

A

Higher intellectual function
Speech production
Ipsilateral motor control (normal motor control pathway)

55
Q

What is the parietal lobe responsible for

A

Primary somatic sensory area
(Detecting touch, proprioception, pain and temperature)

56
Q

The occipital lobe is involved with what?

A

Vision and visual perception

57
Q

The temporal lobe is involved with what?

A

Hearing
Memory
Speech perception

58
Q

Brocas area is responsible for what?

A

Motor speech

59
Q

What is the cerebellum involved with?

A

Coordination

60
Q

The brainstem consists of what 3 parts

A

Midbrain
Pons
Medulla oblongata

61
Q

What part of the brain affects the endocrine system and govern emotional behaviors like anger and sexual drive?

A

The hypothalamus

62
Q

What is included in the Central nervous system

A

Brain and spinal cord

63
Q

Most lumbar punctures are performed where to avoid injury to the spinal cord?

A

L3-L4 or L4-L5 intervetebral spaces

64
Q

Where is the Cauda equina located?

A

L1-L2

65
Q

The peripheral nervous system consists of what?

A

Cranial nerves and peripheral nerves.

66
Q

What are the 3 principal motor pathways

A

Corticospinal tract
Basal ganglia system
Cerebella’s system

67
Q

What motor pathway system controls voluntary movement and integrate skilled, complicated or delicate movements?

A

Corticospinal (pyramidal) tract

68
Q

Damage to what motor pathway system would produce changes in muscle tone, disturbances in posture and gait, a slowness or lack of spontaneity and automatic movements (bradykinesia) and various involuntary movements?

A

Basal ganglia system

69
Q

Sensory pathways help regulate what?

A

Internal autonomic functions like blood pressure, heart rate and respiration

70
Q

What are the deep tendon reflexes and muscle stretch reflexes with their corresponding spinal segment?

A

Ankle. (Achilles)- sacral 1
Knee. (Patellar) - Lumbar 2,3,4
Supinator (brachioradialis) - Cervical 5,6
Biceps reflex. - cervical 5,6
Triceps reflex. - cervical 6,7

71
Q

What are the cutaneous stimulation reflexes and their corresponding spinal segment?

A

Abdominal upper. - Thoracic 8,9,10
Abdominal lower. - thoracic 10,11,12
Cremasteric reflex - Lumbar 1,2
Plantar responses - Lumbar 5, sacral 1
Anal reflex - sacral 2,3,4

72
Q

What are two of the most common neurological disorder symptoms?

A

Headache and dizziness

73
Q

What is the Pound acronym and what is it for?

A

Pulsatile or throbbing
One day duration or 4-72 hrs untreated
Unilateral
Nausea or vomiting
Disabling

If 3/5 are present it is likely a migraine especially is preceded by aura or prodrome

74
Q

What are reversible causes of restless leg syndrome?

A

Iron deficiency, renal disease, pregnancy

75
Q

Tremors that can appear in patients with hyperthyroidism, anxiety or fatigue are called what?

A

Postural (action) tremors

76
Q

Slow, fine, pull rolling tremors that can be seen with patients that have Parkinson’s disease are Called what?

A

Resting (static) tremors

77
Q

Tremors that can occurs in patients with multiple sclerosis are called what?

A

Intention tremors

78
Q

Dystonia and athetosis movements are similar in that they are slow, twisted and writhing. How are they different

A

Dystonia movements appear in larger body parts such as the neck or trunk

Athetosis appears in distal extremities and the face muscles.

79
Q

5 Important areas of examination within a neurological screening are

A

Mental status
Cranial nerves
Sensory system
Motor system
Reflexes.

80
Q

If findings are abnormal with the neurological screening you should group them into pattern of what?

A

Central or peripheral disorders

81
Q

Glasgow coma scale scores less than 10 are concerning for severe brain injury? T/f

A

False.
Scores of 3-8 considered coma
15= fully functioning
3= lowest possible score. No response in any area

82
Q

Glasgow coma scale assesses what 3 activities?

A

Opens eyes-
Motor response
Verbal response

83
Q

Which assessment would need to be performed to assess the patients position sense and coordination of movement?

A

Heel to shin

84
Q

What does Romberg test assess?

A

Position sense, cerebella’s function, balance and coordination

85
Q

What is a positive babinski test

A

Flaring if toes when some of foot is stroked

86
Q

What is abduction of upper extremity entail?

A

Asking patient to move upper extremity away from the body 180 degrees

87
Q

What cranial nerve is olfactory?

A

1

88
Q

What is graphetesia

A

Sensation of touch or tactile stimulation

89
Q

When assessing the pronator drift how many seconds do you observe the patients arm for a change in position while the patient has their eyes closed

A

20-30 seconds

90
Q

What deep tendon reflexes involve stretching biceps to access C5&C6?

A

Biceps reflex

91
Q

Assessment of the shoulder includes which of the following 4 motions?

A

Flexion, extension, internal and external rotation

92
Q

What assessment techniques are done during a vertebral assessment

A

Inspection and palpation

93
Q

What test asks the patient to flex wrists and press them together for 1 minute

A

Phalens

94
Q

What is ataxia?

A

An unsteady gate. Can be compensating for injury or pain or indicating a cerebella’s function problem

ABSN (9 decks)

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