Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ABSN > 307 final > Flashcards

307 final Flashcards

1
Q

What tests are commonly used for attention and concentration

A

Digit span (recite a series of numbers asking the patient to repeat them )

Serial 7s (start from 100, subtract 7 and keep subtracting 7…)

Spelling backwards (say a 5 letter world, spell it and then ask patient to spell it backwards)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Using an audioscope to assess hearing in an older adult patient, what dB is it set to

A

40dB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The 10 minute geriatric screener assesses what 3 domains

A

Physical, cognitive, and psychosocial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the scoring of the audit-c screening mean

A

Higher= more likely that drinking affects the persons life

4 or higher in male = positive
3 or higher in women = positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is performed during a general survey exam

A

Apparent state of health
Level of consciousness
Facial expressions
Posture, gait, motor activity and speech
Odors of breath and body
Skin color and obvious lesions
Dress, grooming hygiene
Signs of distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Central cyanosis in infants suggests what

A

Congenital cardiac abnormalities as well as respiratory diseases
(It is always abnormal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Acrocyanosis in infants is what?

A

Common appearance of bluish hands or feet shortly after birth is normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Tachypnea, tachycardia, and hematomegaly in infants suggests what?

A

Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A diffuse bulge outward of the left side of an infants chest suggest what?

A

Long standing cardiomegaly (an enlarged heart)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The most common dysrhythmia in infants is what

A

PSVT (paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia) or
Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia (PAT)

They the same thing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fourth heart sounds in children suggest what

A

Congestive heart failure
(Decreased ventricular compliance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Facial characteristics of a child presenting with short palpebral fissures, wide flattened philtrum (vertical upper lip groove), and thin lips suggests what?

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is echolalia

A

Repetition of words and phrases of others.
Common in toddlers
If happens past 3 years of age, suspect speech or developmental delay

Also indicates manic episodes or schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the PLISS IT model?

A

Used to initiate discussion of sex

P=Permission from client to talk about it
LI= limited information needed provided
SS= specific suggestions given to client
IT= intensive therapy provided surrounding issues of sexuality for client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the DRIP used for

A

To assess transient causes of incontinence in elderly
D= delirium
R= restricted mobility
I= infection, inflammation, impaction
P= polyuria, pharmaceuticals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Older adults (over 65) should have no more than how many drinks?

A

3 drinks on any one day or
7 drinks a week.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hypothermia is more common in adults t/f

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the single most common modifiable risk factor associated with falls

A

Medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Instrumental activities of daily living

A

Using the phone
Shopping
Preparing food
Housekeeping
Laundry
Driving
Taking medication
Managing money

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Physical ADLs

A

Bathing
Dressing
Toileting
Transferring
Continence
Feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

SPICES
Is what?

A

Sleep disorders
Problems with eating or feeding
Incontinence
Confusion
Evidence of falls
Skin breakdown

A tool to assess geriatric syndromes related to functional decline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In older adults an S3 sound suggests what

A

Heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

an S4 sound can be heard in healthy older adults. T/f

A

True. Often suggests decrease ventricular compliance and impaired filling though.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Middle aged and older adults commonly have what kind of murmur?

A

Systolic aortic murmur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Tanner stages in girls

A

Sexual maturity of breasts and pubic hair.
Stage 1 preadolescent
2-=11-12 yrs
3= 12-13
4= 13-15
5= older than 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Normal onset of breast development is called what

A

Thelarche

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Tanner Sexual maturity rating in boys

A

Stage 1= preadolescent
2= 11.5-12.5 yrs
3= 12.5-13.5
4= 13.5-15
5= older than 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When testing for scoliosis an angle greater than what would be reason for concern and referral to specialist?

A

7 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Risky behaviors in adolescence assessment tool

A

HEEADSSS
Home
Education/employment
Eating
Activities
Drugs/alcohol
Sexuality
Suicide/depression/self harm
Safety from injury and violence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

At what age would you ask the parent to leave the room for part of the interview with a child

A

10-11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Common childhood infection presenting with erythema of posterior pharynx and palatal petechiae and a foul smelling exudate.

A

Strep throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Strawberry tongue, white or yellow exudate on tonsils, beefy red uvula and palatal petechiae would indicate what

A

Strep throat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Pale, boggy nasal mucous membranes are found in children suggest what?

A

Chronic (perennial) allergic rhinitis

34
Q

How far into the ear canal do you insert the otoscope speculum?

A

1/4-1/2 inch

35
Q

You can hold the otoscope with the handle up or with the handle down.
T/f

A

True

36
Q

What is the best single finding for ruling out pneumonia?

A

Absence of tachypnea

37
Q

Heart rate of less than 100 bpm in infants and toddlers indicates what

A

Sinus bradycardia

38
Q

Respiratory rates in children over 1 year old greater than 40 breaths per minute is what

A

Tachypnea

39
Q

A pulse rate too rapid to count in an infant (greater than 180/min) may indicate what

A

Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

40
Q

A patient being treated with prostaglandin analog for open angle glaucoma has an IOP of less than 21mmHg. This indicates what?

A

Medication is effective

41
Q

After Lasik surgery, glaucoma may be present even if IOP is normal

T/f

A

True

42
Q

Athetosis is what

A

Slow twisting and writhing of fingers and hands. Causes include cerebral palsy

43
Q

Pinpoint pupils in a comatose patient means

A

Pons hemorrhage or narcotic effects

44
Q

Aphonia is what

A

Loss of voice
Laryngitis, vocal cord paralysis (CN X) laryngeal tumor.

45
Q

Dysarthria is what

A

Defect in muscle control of speech
(Lips, tongue, palate & pharynx. )
Motor lesion of central and peripheral nervous system. Parkinson’s and cerebral disease

46
Q

Apisia is what

A

A disorder in producing or understanding language.
Lesion in dominant cerebral hemisphere (usually left)

47
Q

eye response scoring for glasgow coma scale

A

spontaneous = 4
to speech= 3
to pain= 2
not= 1

48
Q

verbal response for glasgow coma scale

A

A&O x4 = 5
confused=4
inappropriate verbal response= 3
incomprehensible sounds = 2
none=1

49
Q

motor response for glasgow coma scale

A

obeys commands = 6
moves to localized pain= 5
withdrawas from painful stimuli= 4
abnormal flexion= 3
abnormal extension =2
none= 1

50
Q

comatose clients would rate what on the glasgow scale

A

8 or less (sever brain injury)

51
Q

glasgow rating of 9-12 means

A

moderate brain injury

52
Q

If a person can write a correct sentence can they still have apashia?

A

No

53
Q

A person who scores less than 17 points on a mini mental state exam would indicate what?

A

Severe cognitive impairment

30 is the max points as cognition declines, so does score.

54
Q

What is the PHQ used to screen?

A

Patient health questionnaire is used to screen for depression

55
Q

What screening tools are used for depression

A

PHQ
Geriatric depression scale
EDS (Edinburgh postnatal depression scale)

56
Q

SAFE-T evaluates what?

A

Suicide risk

57
Q

What is anhedonia?

A

Not finding pleasure in daily activities

58
Q

Clients most at risk for depressive symptoms would include

A

Females
Divorced or single
Chronically Ill
Young
Bereaved
Prior or family history of depression

59
Q

What is confabulation

A

Fabrication of facts or events in response to questions, to fill in the gaps of an impaired memory.
Often seen in Korsakoff syndrome from alcoholism, dementia, schizophrenia, aphasia or psychotic disorders.

60
Q

Korsakoff syndrome is what

A

A memory disorder results from vitamin B1 deficiency associated with alcoholism.

61
Q

Derailment is what

A

Tangential speech with shifting topics that are loosely connected or unrelated. Seen with schizophrenia

62
Q

Neologisms are what

A

Invented or distorted words
Words with new and highly idiosyncratic meanings.
Occurs with Korsakoff syndrome from alcoholism.

63
Q

Metabolic syndrome risk factors include

A

Large waist circumference (m> 40, f> 35)
High blood pressure >130/85
High fasting blood sugar 100mg/dL
High triglycerides 150mg/dL or higher

64
Q

What cranial nerve is involved with chewing

A

Trigeminal

65
Q

What are somatic symptoms

A

Physical symptoms that are medically unexplained and generally coexist with depression or anxiety disorders.
Chronic pain …
(Box 19-3 pg 693)

66
Q

What is pertussis

A

Paroxysmal cough with a whoop at the end.
Vaccine preventable.

67
Q

Developmental tasks phases can be broken up into 4 categories. What are they

A

Physical
Cognitive
Social identity
Independence

68
Q

A 6 year old child presents with a venous hum. What does the nurse suspect

A

It is considered a benign heart murmur.

69
Q

Laxity of the soft tissue structures of the foot can cause what in young children

A

Pes planus

70
Q

While performing cardiac auscultation of a hound child, the nurse detects a pulmonary flow murmur that is accompanied by a fixed split second heart sound. What does this suggest.

A

Right heart volume load

71
Q

A newborn is diagnose with coarctation of the aorta. When taking the bp, the nurse would expect it to reflect

A

Sustained hypertension

72
Q

Breast development of a 13 yr old where breasts and nipples appear as small mounds with areolar development evident. What stage of maturity is this

A

Stage 2

73
Q

Denver 2 test is what

A

Developmental test to measure 6 mo milestones

74
Q

Congenital dermal melanocytosis is what

A

Can be a birthmark on an African American child, A black and blue mark.

75
Q

A 15 yr old male has tested and scrotum that are enlarged and scrotal skin is darkened. His pubic hair is course and curly but does not extend to the thighs. What tanner stage is this?

A

Stage 4

76
Q

Idiopathic scoliosis is usually seen in girls and is in what percentage of cases?

A

75%

77
Q

After the age of 2 how much do toddlers grow per year?

A

About 5cm

And 2-3kg gained

78
Q

When examining visual acuity on a 30-month old the nurse should assess for what?

A

Fixation preferences.
Children with poor vision will object to having the good eye covered.

79
Q

When examining the tympanic membrane of a 4-year old the nurse would pull the auricle ___________ after placing otoscope in ear canal

A

Down and backward

80
Q

What is helpful in Measuring older children, especially if the child is suspected of having endocrine disorders?

A

Velocity growth curves.

81
Q

Aortic stenosis would sound like what

A

Murmur heard over the aorta while patient is on the left lying side. (Or leaning forward??) ahhhh. Idk

ABSN (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions