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Unit 3 Disease Charts > 3.1 > Flashcards

3.1 Flashcards

(64 cards)

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1
Q

Which is more infectious, chickenpox or shingles?

A

chickenpox

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2
Q

what cells do we see in shingles?

A

multinucleated giant cells

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3
Q

when shingles is reactivated, which way does it travel (anterogradely or retrogradely)

A

anterogradely

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4
Q

Does shingles rash cross the midline

A

no

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5
Q

Which roots are most commonly affected in shingles

A

thoracic
lumbar

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6
Q

when is a patient with shingles no longer infectious

A

7-10 days; after rash has healed over

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7
Q

What ganglion are activated in Ramsay Hunt

A

geniculate ganglion or dorsal root ganglion

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8
Q

What nerves are affected in Ramsay Hunt

A

CN7
Possible CN8

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9
Q

Will facial paralysis be contralateral or ipsilateral for shingles

A

Ipsilateral

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10
Q

what nerve roots are involved in herpes zoster ophthalmicus

A

trigeminal ganglion or dorsal root ganglion

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11
Q

what nerve is affected in herpes zoster ophthalmicus

A

ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve

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12
Q

What sign is commonly seen in herpes zoster ophthalmicus

A

hutchinson’s sign

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13
Q

eye involvement in shingles indicates what other nerve could be involved

A

nasociliary nerve

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14
Q

sciatic nerve controls what dermatomes?

A

L4-S2

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15
Q

what is the most common cause of lower back pain

A

lumbar strain

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16
Q

what is lumbar strain

A

acute tear or stretch of paraspinal muscles

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17
Q

muscle spasms in lumbar strain are related to

A

activity; pain worsens with activity

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18
Q

do most herniations occur posteriorly or anteriorly? why?

A

posteriorly; posterior longitudinal ligament is much narrower

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19
Q

At what level is herniated disc most common

A

L5-S1

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20
Q

what is the most common organism is osteomyelitis

A

staph aureus

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21
Q

what bacteria is associated with osteomyelitis in someone after prosthetic joint placement

A

staph epidermis

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22
Q

what bacteria is associated with osteomyelitis in someone with SCD

A

salmonella

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23
Q

what bacteria is associated with osteomyelitis in neonates

A

Group B strep

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24
Q

what bacteria is associated with osteomyelitis in someone with puncture wounds through tennis shoes

A

pseudomonas

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25
very common symptom of osteomyelitis
refusal to bear weight
26
Gold standard of diagnosis for osteomyelitis
bone aspiration (biopsy)
27
does spinal epidural abscess most commonly occur anteriorly or posteriorly
posteriorly
28
class triad in spinal epidural abscess
fever spinal pain progressive neurologic deficit
29
test of choice for spinal epidural abscess
MRI with contrast (gadolinium)
30
what type of lesion will you see in MRI with spinal epidural abscess
ring enhancing lesion
31
what is the most common presenting symptom in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
asymmetric limb weakness
32
what is usually spared in ALS
sensation voluntary eye movement sphincter function (bowel and bladder) sexual function ***sensory exam is usually normal***
33
treatment option for ALS
Riluzone
34
what is the most common cause of death in ALS
respiratory failure
35
when is ALS typically fatal
usually 3-5 years after symptom onset
36
what imaging method is best for herniated disc
MRI
37
spinal column cancers are most commonly due to
metastases (70%)
38
what is the most common primary bone malignancy in children and young adults
osteosarcoma
39
Appearance on radiographs for osteosarcoma
sunburst or hair on end appearance
40
is cauda equina a lower motor neuron issue or upper? why?
Lower motor neuron issue; spinal cord ends at conus medullaris
41
most common cause of cauda equina syndrome
massive lumbar disc herniation
42
will anal wink test be increased or decreased for cauda equina syndrome
decreased
43
Imaging for cauda equina syndrome
immediate MRI
44
treatment for cauda equina syndrome
emergent decompression corticosteroids to reduce inflammation
45
primary infection in adults with HSV1
tonsillopharyngitis
46
primary infection in kids with HSV1
gingivostomatitis
47
What type of smear used for HSV and varicella
Tzanck
48
where do most cases of spondylolysis occur
L5-S1
49
spondylolysis is due to what defect
pars articularis defect
50
what will you see on radiographs for spondylolysis
scotty dog appearance
51
at what grade do you do interventions for spondylolisthesis
Grade 3 and above (50%-75% for grade 3)
52
what kind of gait do kids with spondylolisthesis tend to have
phalen-dickson gait
53
burst (Jefferson) fracture of the atlas (C1)
bilateral fractures of both the anterior and posterior arches of C1
54
odontoid process (dens) fractures
fracture of the dens (odontoid process) of the axis (C2)
55
How is odontoid process fracture best seen on imaging
AP odontoid (open mouth) view
56
hangman's fracture (C2/axis pedicle)
traumatic bilateral fractures of the pedicles or pars interarticularis of the axis vertebra (C2)
57
clay-shoveler's fracture
spinous process avulsion fracture most common at the lower cervical vertebrae
58
where does clay shoveler's fracture most commonly occur
C7
59
flexion teardrop fracture
anterior displacement of a wedge-shaped fracture fragment
60
extension teardrop fracture
triangular shaped avulsion fracture of the antero-inferior corner of the vertebral body as a result of rupture of the anterior longitudinal ligament
61
where are extension teardrop fractures most common
C2
62
what type of fracture can result in anterior cervical cord syndrome
flexion teardrop fractures
63
what type of fracture can result in central cord syndrome
extension teardrop fracture
64
Burst fracture
due to nucleus pulpous of the intervertebral disc being forced into the vertebral body, causing it to burst outwards

Unit 3 Disease Charts (7 decks)

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