Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 Types of Muscle

A

Skeletal
Cardiac
Smooth

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2
Q

Striated and voluntary

A

Skeletal

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3
Q

Striated and involuntary

A

Cardiac

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4
Q

Non striated and involuntary

A

Smooth

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5
Q

The ability of a muscle to shorten

A

Contractility

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6
Q

The ability of a muscle to respond to a stimulus

A

Excitability

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7
Q

What are the functions of muscle tissue

A

Movement
Opening and Closing Passageways
Maintaining Posture and Stabilizing Joints
Heat Generation

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8
Q

Membrane that surrounds the entire muscle

A

Epimysium

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9
Q

Membrane which surrounds the fascicles

A

Perimysium

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10
Q

Membrane that surrounds each individual muscle fiber

A

Endomysium

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11
Q

Where the muscle attaches on a less movable bone

A

Origin

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12
Q

The attachment of the muscle on the movable bone

A

Insertion

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13
Q

Composed on Sarcomeres

A

Myofibril

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14
Q

Boundaries at the end of a sarcomere

A

Z Line

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15
Q

Myofilaments attached to the Z lines

A

Thin filaments

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16
Q

Myofilaments in the center of the sarcomeres that have myosin heads on the ends

A

Thick Filaments

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17
Q

Dark bands from the presence of thick filaments (purple part on the muscle)

A

A Band

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18
Q

central part of A bands where there are no thin filaments present

A

H Zone

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19
Q

Contains rods that hold the thick filaments together

A

M line

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20
Q

Light bands because they only contain thin filaments

A

I bands

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21
Q

When a muscle contracts, but it does not shorten

A

Isometric contraction

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22
Q

When a muscle shortens and does not do work

A

Concentric contraction

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23
Q

When muscle generates force as it lengthens

A

Eccentric contraction

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24
Q

What are the chemicals needed for contraction

A

ATP
Calcium
O2
Acetylcholine

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25
Q

Allows actin and myosin to slide over each other

A

Calcium

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26
Q

Allows for cellular respiration for ATP production

A

O2

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27
Q

Leaves the neuron and enters the cleft space between the neuron and muscle fiber at the neuromuscular junction

A

Acetlycholine

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28
Q

See Videos for Sliding Filament Theory

A

See Videos for Sliding Filament Theory

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29
Q

When oxygen cannot be supplied fast enough and an individual suffers from shortness of breath due to muscle contraction

A

Oxygen debt

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30
Q

Muscles that do most of the work

A

Prime mover

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31
Q

Assisting muscles

A

Syngergists

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32
Q

Muscles working in the opposite direction

A

Antagonists

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33
Q

How does muscle strength increase?

A

The muscle recruits more muscle fibers to contract

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34
Q

What are the ways to make muscle contract harder

A
  1. Each muscle fiber contacts more often

2. More muscle fibers (not all) contract at the same time

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35
Q

Autoimmune disease affecting the muscles of the eyelids, face, neck and extremitites

A

Myasthenia Gravis

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36
Q

When a muscle receives many impulses in rapid succession so the tension of the muscle adds up until a max contraction is sustained

A

Tetant

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37
Q

Disorder characterized by the progressive degeneration and weakening of the muscle

A

Muscular Distrophy

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38
Q

Unexplained chronic muscle pain

A

Fibromyalgia

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39
Q

Largest portion of the brain

A

Cerebrum

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40
Q

The site of consciousness and interprets sensory information, which also controlling muscle contractions and gland secretions

A

Cerebrum

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41
Q

Sulci

A

Grooves in the brain

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42
Q

Bumps (stuff in between the grooves) on the brain

A

gyri

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43
Q

Site of primary motor area, which initiates nerve impulses that control muscle fibers and the site of problem solving

A

Frontal

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44
Q

Motor for speech

A

Broca’s area

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45
Q

Primary motor cortex

A

Precentral gyrus

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46
Q

Site of primary sensory area including cutaneous sensory area, which interprets touch, pressure, pain as well as the site for understanding speech

A

Parietal

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47
Q

Map showing portion of motor cortex devoted to each body region

A

Motor homunculus

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48
Q

Map showing the amount of sensory cortex devoted to each body region

A

Sensory homunculus

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49
Q

Primary auditory area and site of memory for visual images, music, etc.

A

Temporal lobes

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50
Q

Separates the parietal lobes from the temporal lobe

A

lateral sulcus

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51
Q

Primary visual area

A

Occipital lobes

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52
Q

What separates the occipital lobes?

A

preoccipital notch and parieto-occicpital sulcus

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53
Q

Deep to lateral sulcus which contains sensory cortex for taste and visceral sensations

A

Insula

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54
Q

Separated by septum pelluicidum

A

2 lateral ventricles in the brain

ram horns

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55
Q

Ventricle between right and left thalamus

A

3rd

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56
Q

Ventricle between pons and cerebellum

A

4th

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57
Q

What is the function of ventricles

A

contains CSF

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58
Q

Clear tissue fluid that protects the brain and spinal cord that supplies brain and spinal cord with nutrients collected from the blood

A

Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF)

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59
Q

How many cavities are within the brain?

A

4

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60
Q

Inferior to temporal and occipital lobes

A

Cerebellum

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61
Q

Receives impulses form the inner ear and sends impulses to the muscles to retain posture–coordinates skeletal muscle action

A

Cerebellum

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62
Q

What connects the cerebellum?

A

Vermis

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63
Q

What is the internal white matter within the cerebellum called?

A

Arbor vitae

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64
Q

What creates white matter in the brain?

A

Myelin

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65
Q

Relay center fora ll incoming impulses, which it sends to the proper area of the cerebrum

A

Thalamus

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66
Q

Regulates this, hunger, body temp, blood pressure, and autonomic nervous system

A

Hypothalamus

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67
Q

Pineal gland, which secretes melatonin

A

Epithalamus

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68
Q

Contains tracts to and from the cerebrum

A

Midbrain

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69
Q

Reflex centers for vision and hearing

A

Midbrain

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70
Q

Point where fibers cross over to the opposite side of the brain

A

Decussation of the pyramids

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71
Q

Connects the cerebellum to the rest of the brain and is the respiratory center

A

Pons

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72
Q

Connects within the spinal cord and contains vital centers for heart, bp and breathing

A

Medulla oblongata

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73
Q

Center of reflex arcs

A

spinal cord

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74
Q

Relays sensory impulses from PNS to brain and relays motor impulses from brain to muscles

A

Spinal cord

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75
Q

Group along the midline of the spinal cord structure

A

Posterior median sulcus

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76
Q

Central canal

A

Contains CSF in the spinal cord

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77
Q

Where the sensory neurons enter the spinal cord

A

Dorsal root

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78
Q

Contains sensory neuron cell bodies

A

Dorsal root ganglion

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79
Q

Where motor neurons exit the spinal cord

A

???

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80
Q

Tapering terminal end of the spinal cord

A

Conus mendullaris

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81
Q

“tail: of pia mater

A

Filum terminale

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82
Q

“Horses tail” where nerve rootlets extending from inferior end of spinal cord

A

Cata equina

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83
Q

What are the 3 meninges

A

Dura mater
Arachnoid
Pia mater

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84
Q

Tough, outer meninage

A

Dura mater

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85
Q

Weblike like of the meninage

A

Arachnoid

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86
Q

Thing, deep mining, which is adhered to all external surface of the brain and spinal cord

A

Pia mater

87
Q

What are the spaces associated with meninges

A
Epidural space
Dura mater
Subdural space
Arachnoid
Subarachnoid space
Pia mater
88
Q

The infection and inflammation of meninges

A

meningitis

89
Q

Symptoms of meningitis

A

headache, neck stiffness

90
Q

Excessive CSF in ventricles and/or subarachnoid space

A

Hydrocephalus

91
Q

What are the causes of hydrocephalus

A

tumor or swelling that closes off the cerebral aqueduct
Meningitis
Overdeveloped choroid plexus

92
Q

Disease that addicts the midbrain neurons

A

Parkinson’s disease

93
Q

Symptoms of Parkinsons’s

A

difficulty initiating movement, slowness, muscle tremors

94
Q

Disease that leads to deterioration of the brain and eventual death

A

Alzheimers

95
Q

Symptoms of alzheimers

A

confusion, memory loss, loss of facial recognition

96
Q

Loss of function of lower limbs, results from damage between T2 and L1

A

Paraplegia

97
Q

Loss of function of all four limbs as well as respiratory function

A

Quadriplegia

98
Q

Most common type of nervous system disorder

A

Stroke

99
Q

Stroke due to burst or torn vessel in the brain

A

Hemmorhagic stroke

100
Q

Stroke due to a blood clot blocking cranial vessels

A

Ischemic stroke

101
Q

Causes patients to be unable to distinguish reality

A

Schizophrenia

102
Q

Longterm saddness or thoughts of suicide

A

Depression

103
Q

Sensory receptor that responds to touch, pressure, stretch, vibrations and itch

A

mechanoreceptor

104
Q

sensory receptor that responds to temperature change

A

thermoreceptors

105
Q

Sensory receptor that responds to chemicals

A

Chemoreceptors

106
Q

Sensory receptor that responds to light

A

Photoreceptors

107
Q

Receptor that responds to harmful stimuli

A

Nocireceptor

108
Q

COntains all the cranial nerves and all the spinal nerves

A

PNS

109
Q

Carries impulses from the PNS to the spinal cord and back

A

31 pairs of spinal nerves

110
Q

Carries impulses from the CNS to the skeletal muscles

A

Somatic nervous system

111
Q

Carries impulses from CNS to smooth muscle on organs, cardiac muscles and glands

A

Autonomic nervous system

112
Q

Nerves that can be motor, sensory or mixed

A

12 cranial nerves

113
Q

Sensory nerve of smell

A

Olfactory nerve

Cranial nerve 1

114
Q

Passes through cribriform foramina of the ethmoid to synapse in the olfactory bulb

A

olfactory tract

115
Q

Sensory nerve of vision

A

Optic nerve

Cranial nerve II

116
Q

The convergence of the optic nerve

A

Optic chiasm

117
Q

Motor nerve that innervates four of the extrinsic eye muscles

A

Oculomotor

Cranial nerve III

118
Q

Passes through the superior orbital figure to enter the orbit

A

Oculomotor

119
Q

Motor nerve that innervates one of the extrinsic eye muscles

A

Trochlear

Cranial nerver IV

120
Q

Has 3 major branches providing sensory innervation to the face and motor innervation to the chewing muscles

A

Trigeminal

cranial nerve V

121
Q

Travels through the superior orbital fissure and the supraorbital foramen

A

V1 in Trigeminal

122
Q

Travels through the foramen rotunda and the infraorbital foramen

A

V2

123
Q

Travels through foramen oval, the mandibular formmena nd mental foramen

A

V3

124
Q

Motor nerve that innervates the muscle that abducts the eyeball

A

Abducens

Cranial verve VI

125
Q

Mixed nerve that innervates the muscles of facial expression and provides sensory from taste buds on anterior tongue

A

Facial

Cranial Nerve VII

126
Q

5 Branches in the facial nerve

A

temporal, zygomativ, buccal, mandibular and cervical

127
Q

Travels through temporal bone via the internal acoustic meatus through the sytlomastoid foramen before branching

A

Facial nerve

128
Q

Sensory nerve of hearing

A

Vestibulocochlear/ Auditory nerve

Cranial nerve VIII

129
Q

Passes through the internal acoustic meatus and enters the brain stem at the pons

A

Auditory nerve

130
Q

Mixed nerve providing sensory information from posterior tongue, motor information to pharyngeal muscles and parotig gland

A

Glossopharyngeal

Cranial nerve IX

131
Q

Mixed nerve providing sensory information from the thoracic and abdominal viscera as well as motor information to the muscles of the pharynx and larynx

A

Vagus

Cranial nerve X

132
Q

Provides motor information to the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid

A

Accessory/Spinal Accessory

Cranial nerve XI

133
Q

Provides motor information to the muscles of the tongue

A

Hypoglossal

Cranial nerve XII

134
Q

Which spinal nerves are called “cervical”?

A

C1-C8

135
Q

What spinal nerves are called “thoracic”?

A

T1-T12

136
Q

What spinal nerves are called “lumbar”?

A

S1-S5

137
Q

What spinal nerves are called “coccygeal”?

A

COG1

138
Q

contains axonal processes of sensory neurons arising formal bodies in the dorsal region ganglion

A

Dorsal root

139
Q

contains the axonal process of motor neurons whose cell bodies are in the ventral gray column of the spinal cord

A

ventral root

140
Q

When the ventral root and Dorsal root join together

A

Spinal nerve

141
Q

Formed by ventral rami of C1-C4 nerves

A

cervical plexus

142
Q

Carries senosory info from the neck and shoulder to the CNS or carry motor innervation to neck muscles

A

Cervical Plexus

143
Q

Innervates the dispgragm, stimulating respiration

A

Phrenic nerve

144
Q

Lies in the neck and axilla and gives to almost all nerves that supply the upper limb

A

Brachial Plexus

145
Q

Travels between and innervates biceps brachii and brachial, also provides cutaneous sensation on the lateral forearm

A

musculocutaneous nerve

146
Q

Innervates most muscles of the anterior forearm and lateral palm

A

Median nerve

147
Q

Innervates the flexor carpi ulnas and flexor digitorum proudness, as we’ll as the intrinsic hand muscles

A

Ular Nerve

148
Q

Innervates deltoid and teres minor

A

Axillary nerve

149
Q

Innervates almost all of the posterior side of the upper limb

A

Radial nerve

150
Q

Arises from L1-L4 nerves

A

Lumbar plexus

151
Q

Innervates the anterior thigh

A

Femoral nerve

152
Q

Arises from L4-S4 nerves

A

Sacral plexus

153
Q

Thickest and longest nerve in the body, supplies all of the lower limbs except for the anterior and medial thigh

A

Sciatic nerve

154
Q

Stabbing pain over the course of the sciatic nerve

A

Sciatica

155
Q

Travels through popliteal fossa, innervates the soles and then branches into sole of foot

A

Tibial Nerve

156
Q

Innervates the anterolateral crural region

A

Common fibular nerve

157
Q

Any nerve that innervates a muscle producing movement at a joint also innervates the joint itself

A

Hilton’s Law

158
Q

The area of skin innervated by the cutaneous branch from a single spinal nerve

A

Dermatone

159
Q

Re-occurance of chicken pox appears along a dermatome or adjacent dermatomes

A

Shingles

160
Q

Receptors that receive light

A

Photo receptors

161
Q

Responsible for vision in dim light, detect motion

A

Rods

162
Q

Responsible for vision in bright light, detect detail and color

A

Cones

163
Q

What causes color blindness?

A

Lack of cones that detect a specific color

164
Q

A spot at the center of the retina with many cones

A

Macula Lutea

165
Q

Blurred or diminished vision due to damage to the macula lutea

A

Macular degeneration

166
Q

What are the two causes for macular degeneration?

A

Wet macula lutea

Dry macula lutea

167
Q

When the growth of blood vessels leak serum and blood, which causes damage to the retina and scarring of macula lutea

A

Wet macula lutea

168
Q

When an individual has a deficiency of vitamin D or Zinc and affects eye

A

Dry macula lutea

169
Q

Muscles that move the eyeball

A

Extrinsic Muscles

170
Q

Corners of the eye where the upper and lower lids meet

A

Medial and lateral canthus

171
Q

Fleshy portion on medial eye

A

Lacrimal caruncle

172
Q

Membrane lining the eyelids

A

Conjunctiva

173
Q

What makes up the lacrimal apparatus?

A

lacrimal glands
canaliculi
Lacrimal sac

174
Q

What produces tears?

A

Lacrimal glands

175
Q

Which structure empties tears into lacrimal sacs?

A

Canaliculi (lacrimal canals)

176
Q

Collects tears, which then runs into the nasolacrimal duct and exit vis the nose

A

Lacrimal Sac

177
Q

What are the layers of the eyeball?

A

Sclera
Choroid
Retina

178
Q

Outer white fibrous layer of the eye, which protects the eyeball and merges with the cornea

A

Sclera

179
Q

The thin middle dark brown layer of the eyeball, which contains blood vessels and absorbs light

A

Choroid

180
Q

Inner layer of the eye that contains rods and cones

A

Retina

181
Q

Colored muscle structure that controls the size of the pupil

A

Iris

182
Q

Clear disc structure behind the iris that focuses the image seen by changing shape

A

Lens

183
Q

Clear anterior margin on the eye structure

A

Cornea

184
Q

Structure at the back of the eyeball and passes through the retina and carries the impulse to the visual centers in the occipital lobe

A

Optic nerve

185
Q

What are the chambers of the eye

A

Anterior chamber
Posterior chamber
Vitreous chamber

186
Q

Anterior to the iris, filled with aqueous humor

A

Anterior chamber

187
Q

Posterior to the iris, anterior to the lens filled with aqueous fluid

A

Posterior chamber

188
Q

Posterior to the lens, filled with vitreous body

A

Vitreous Chamber

189
Q

At 20 feet, the eye can read letters normally able to be seen at 20 feet away

A

20/20 Vision

190
Q

Inability to focus on far objects because the eyeballs are too elongated

A

Nearsightedness (myopia)

191
Q

Inability to focus on near objects because the eyeballs are too short

A

Farsightedness (hyperopia)

192
Q

What is presbyopia?

A

Farsightedness (hyperopia) increased with age

193
Q

Blurred vision caused by lenses or corneas that are hisshapen

A

Astigmatism

194
Q

Inflammation of the conjunctiva, usually due to an allergic reaction or injection

A

Conjunctivitis (pink eye)

195
Q

Clouding of the lens

A

Cataracts

196
Q

Increased intra-eye pressure that can cause nerve damage and eventually blindness

A

Glaucoma

197
Q

Damage to the retina cause by complications from diabetes mellitus because new blood vessels form along the retina and hemorrhage, causing blurred vision

A

Diabetic retinopathy

198
Q

Misalignment of the eyes (eye is either turned medially or laterally)

A

Strabismus (cross-eyed)

199
Q

What detects and interprets taste?

A

Insula

200
Q

Where is smell detected and processed?

A

Temporal lobe

201
Q

What are the components of the external ear?

A

Auricle

External auditory meatus

202
Q

External, funnel-shaped portion that catches sound waves

A

Auricle

203
Q

Channels sound waves toward the middle ear

A

External auditory meatus

204
Q

What structure collects sound waves?

A

Pinna

205
Q

What are the components of the middle ear?

A

Tympanic membrane
Auditory ossicles
Auditory tube

206
Q

Structure that amplifies sound waves

A

Tympanic membrane

207
Q

Helps intensify sound waves

A

Auditory ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes)

208
Q

Connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx and equalizes air pressure

A

Auditory tube

209
Q

What are the components of the inner ear?

A

Cochlea
Hairs
Canals

210
Q

What is the function of the inner ear?

A

Houses cochlea which is the organ of hearing

211
Q

Condition that involes ringing in one or both of ears

A

Tinnitis

212
Q

Lack of efficient sound conduction through the eardrum or ossicles, most commonly caused by flat eustachian tube

A

Conductive hearing loss

213
Q

Inflammation and/or infection of the ear

A

Otitis

214
Q

Caused by bacteria or fungi that enter and inhabit the ear canal, usually due to moisture

A

Otitis Externa (swimmers ear)