Problem Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

MOA of Typical antipsychotics

A

Block D2 receptors to increase cAMP

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2
Q

Trifluoperazine

A

high potency typical antipsychotic

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3
Q

Chlorpromazine

A

low potency typical antipsychotic

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4
Q

Fluoxetine

A

SSRI

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5
Q

Clozapine

A

atypical antipsychotic

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6
Q

Paroxetine

A

SSRI

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7
Q

Haloperidol

A

high potency typical antipsychotic

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8
Q

Olanzapine

A

atypical antipsychotic

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9
Q

Fluphenazine

A

high potency typical antipsychotic

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10
Q

Risperidone

A

atypical antipsychotic

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11
Q

Thioridazole

A

low potency typical antipsychotic

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12
Q

Sertraline

A

SSRI

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13
Q

Quetiapine

A

atypical antipsychotic

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14
Q

Citalopram

A

SSRI

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15
Q

Ariprprazole

A

atypical antipsychotic

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16
Q

Doxepin

A

TCA

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17
Q

Ziprasidone

A

atypical antipsychotic

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18
Q

Duloxetine

A

SNRI

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19
Q

Amoxapine

A

TCA

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20
Q

Venlafaxine

A

SNRI

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21
Q

“iptyline” or “ipramine”

A

TCA

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22
Q

Tx for serotonin syndrome

A

cyproheptadine (5-HT2 antagonist)

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23
Q

TCA that causes seizures

A

Desipramine

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24
Q

TCA for elderly

A

Nortriptyline

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25
Q

TCA that causes antropine-like effects

A

Amitryptiline

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26
Q

Atypical antidepressant with seizures

A

Clozapine (also causes agranulocytosis)

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27
Q

Typical antidepressant with corneal deposits

A

chlorpromazine

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28
Q

Typical antidepressant with retinal deposits

A

thioridazole

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29
Q

MAOIs

A

Tranylcypromine
Phenelzine
Isocarboxazid
Selegiline

(all weird looking words)

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30
Q

Seizures in bulemic patinets

A

bupropion

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31
Q

Atypical antidepessant mnemonic

A

I DONE PINEing about how atypical I am, so i RIP IP up

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32
Q

Typical antidepressant mnemonic

A

Typically, good girls with DAZOLing HALOs stay in at night reading magAZINEs

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33
Q

SSRI mnemonic

A

“FLashbacks PARalize SEnior CITAzins”

34
Q

MOA: alpha2, 5HT2 and 5HT3 blocker

A

Mirtazapine (good atypical antidepressant for elderly because causes weight gain)

35
Q

MOA: alpha1 and 5HT2 blocker

A

Trazadone (used for insomnia)

36
Q

Tramadol

A
mu agonist (weak)
SNRI
37
Q

Gabapentin

A

Ca channel blocker

38
Q

Levetriacetam

A

unknown (may alter GABA/glutamine release)

39
Q

Tiagabine

A

inhibit GABA reuptake

40
Q

VIgabatrin

A

irreversibly inhibit GABA transaminase

41
Q

Midazolam

A

benzo IV anesthetic

42
Q

Tolcapone

A

COMT inhibitor (used in PD)

43
Q

Memantine

A

NMDA antagonist (for alzheimer’s)

44
Q

Haloperidol

A

DA antagonist (for HD)

45
Q

Tetrabenazine and Reserpine

A

VMAT blocker (for HD)

46
Q

Sulfonylureas (name them)

A

1st gen: tolbutamide, chlorpropamide

2nd gen: glyburide, glimepiride, glipizide

47
Q

Pramlintide

A
  • Decrease gastric emptying

- Decrease glucagon

48
Q

GLP-1 analogs

A

Exenatide and Liraglutide (increase insulin and decrease glucagon release)

49
Q

Toxicity of GLP-1 analog

A

can cause pancreatitis

50
Q

DPP4 inhibitors

A

“gliptins” (increase insulin and decrease glucagon release)

51
Q

Demeclocycline MOA

A

ADH blocker

52
Q

Direct thrombin inhibitors

A

Argatroban

Bivalirudin

53
Q

ADP receptor blockers

A

Clopidogrel, Ticlopine, Prasugrel

Ticagrecor (only reversible one)

54
Q

Cilustazol and dipyridamole MOA

A
  • Phosphodiesterase III inhibitor
  • Increase cAMP in platelets (inhibit aggregation)
  • Vasodilate
55
Q

Danazol

A

partial agonist at androgen receptors to treat endometriosis and hereditary angioedema

56
Q

Flutamide

A

nonsteroidal competitive inhibitor of androgens at the testosterone receptor

57
Q

G2 cell cycle specific cancer drug

A

bleomycin

58
Q

Tx for 5-FU overdose

A

uridine

59
Q

Cytarabine MOA

A

Pyrimidine analog

60
Q

Azathioprine and 6-MP MOA

A

Purine (thiol) analog

61
Q

Dactinomycin MOA and use

A

anti-tumor antibiotic (intercalator) used in childhood tumors (Wilms, Ewing, Rhabdomyosarcoma)

62
Q

Cyclophosphamide MOA

A

Covalently X-link interstrand DNA at guanine N-7 (after bioactivation in liver)

63
Q

Nitrosoureas MOA and use

A

cross link DNA after bioactivation (can cross BBB for brain tumors)

64
Q

Bulsufan MOA and use

A

cross-links DNA (used in CML and ablation of bone marrow)

65
Q

Cisplatin MOA

A

cross-links DNA

66
Q

Hydroxyurea MOA

A

inhibits ribonucleotide reductase to decrease DNA synthesis (S-phase specific)

67
Q

Vemurafenib MOA

A

small molecule inhibitor of forms of B-Raf with V600E mutation (metastatic melanoma)

68
Q

MOA of Triamterene and Amiloride

A

K+ sparing diuretics (work to block Na+ channels in CCT)

69
Q

MOA of spironolactone and eplerenone

A

Aldo receptor antagonists

70
Q

Diuretics with hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

A

Loops and Thiazides (K loss leads to activation of H/K exchanger–K enters from tubule as H exits AND volume contraction due to increase HCO3- reabsorption from Na/H exchange in PT)

71
Q

Dihydropyridine CCB

A

Amlodipine
Nimodipine
Nifedipine

72
Q

Non-dihydropyridine CCB

A

Verapamil

DIltiazem

73
Q

Pregnancy HTN

A

Methyldopa

Hydralazine

74
Q

Drugs for HTN emergency

A
  • Nitroprusside (art=ven vasodilator)
  • Labetalol (beta and alpha blocker)
  • Fenoldopam (D1 agonist to decrease BP and increase naturesis)
  • Nicardipine
  • Clevidipine
75
Q

Effect of nitrates on HR

A

increased (reflex–may want to give beta blocker with it)

76
Q

Niacin MOA

A

inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue and reduces hepatic VLDL synthesis

77
Q

Fibrate MOA

A

Upregulate LPL to increase TG clearance (activates PPAR-alpha to induce HDL synthesis)

78
Q

Antiarrhythmic with use dependence

A

Class Ic (flecanide, propafenone) means that QRS prolongation increases as HR increases

79
Q

Antiarrhythmic with reverse use dependence

A

Class III (amiodarone, ibutilide, dofetilide, sotalol) means that the slower the HR the longer the QT prolongation

80
Q

Antiarrhythmics that cause torsades

A

Ia and III

81
Q

Amiodarone tests

A

PFTs (pulmonary fibrosis), TFTs (thyroid toxicity), LFTs (hepatic toxicity)

82
Q

Adenosine MOA

A

increase K+ out of cells to hyperpolarize and decrease calcium (used to treat and diagnose SV tach because T1/2 is only 15 seconds)