Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What group was the Industrial Bourgeoisie made of?

A

Factory owners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What were two characteristics of the Industrial Bourgeoisie?

A
  1. They made significant investments and risks.

2. They had the potential to make big money.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why did the Industrial Bourgeoisie take such significant risks?

A

To make money

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What group was the Proletariat made of?

A

Factory workers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What two things did the Proletariat want?

A
  1. Safer working conditions

2. Higher wages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What was the Belle Epoch?

A

Period of time extending from the late 19th century to WWI, that witnessed great peace, prosperity, and scientific/artistic progress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What did conservatives of the 19th century believe? (2 things)

A
  1. They did not believe in revolutionary slogans (democracy, inalienable rights, etc.)
  2. They believed peace could be found through following tradition and order.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What group was the conservative class made of?

A

Nobility (who wouldn’t want things to change)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What 4 things did Liberals of the 19th century believe in?

A
  1. The Enlightenment
  2. Democracy
  3. Free-market economics
  4. Meritocracy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What 3 things did Socialists of the 19th century believe in?

A
  1. They opposed capitalism
  2. Common ownership of means of production
  3. They assume all people are willing to work for the greater good
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why did Socialists oppose capitalism? (2 reasons)

A
  1. They believe it is chaotic.

2. They opposed private ownership of means of production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In socialism, income is based on what?

A

Income is based on need

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Who was Karl Marx?

A

A 19th century German Jew who attended the University of Berlin. Known as the “Father of Communism.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What were 3 influences on Karl Marx?

A
  1. British economic thought
  2. French revolutionary thought
  3. George Hegel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the theory of surplus value?

A

The belief that the working man is being robbed because he receives only a small portion of the wealth his labor produces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who was Friedrich Engels?

A

One of the founders of Marxist Theory (along with Karl Marx).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What was the Hegelian Dialectic and who said it?

A

George Hegel: “All things are in movement and continually evolving. Useful change comes from clash and reconciliation of the antagonistic elements.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does Dialectic Materialism say? Who said it?

A

Karl Marx: “Change through history in every area (political, economics, etc.) comes from the clash and reconciliation of antagonistic economic elements which continually change as material conditions change.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What two books did Karl Marx write?

A

“Communist Manifesto” and “Das Kapital”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What important line in the “Communist Manifesto” did we cover in class?

A

“The history of all hitherto existing society is the history of class struggles.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Marxism?

A

Political, social, and economic doctrines of Marx which describe class struggle as the force which will lead to a classless society.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is communism?

A

Political system that would be characterized by an absence of social classes and a common ownership of the means of production, based on the teachings of Marx.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why did Marx think that Europe was at a critical point? (Long answer, though easy to understand)

A

“In a capitalist system, the industrial bourgeoisie tend to devour one another.” Wealth and power was becoming more concentrated, so the Industrial Bourgeoisie was shrinking in size. The proletariat mass was growing and would take over the Industrial Bourgeoisie, and thus a social revolution will have been accomplished.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What was the “Dictatorship of the Proletariat?”

A

The intermediate system between capitalism and communism, when the government is in the process of changing the means of ownership from privatism to collective ownership.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When did the power shift from the Oriental world to the Occidental world occur?

A

Around 1500-1900 C.E.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why did the power shift from the Oriental to Occidental world occur? (8 reasons; don’t worry about completely memorizing them, just get the gist of it)

A
  1. Development of nation-states and eventually “modern” nation-states
  2. Expansion and control of trade routes
  3. Ever increasing technological advancements
  4. Disciplined, well-trained armies
  5. Population explosion
  6. Empire building and colonization
  7. Immense quantities of New World riches
  8. Exploitation of slave labor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When did the First Era of Imperialism occur?

A

Around 1500-1700 C.E.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is an empire?

A

When one state takes over another state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a “modern” nation state?

A

One that has undergone an Industrial Revolution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Why did the East slow down in the area of technological development?

A

“Tradition” held them back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe “Colonies of Trade” in Africa.

A

Around 1500-1850, Europe established colonies of trade in Africa for the purposes of trade and slave labor (which is different from having an empire there).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Describe “Colonies of Administration” in Africa.

A

Around 1850-1950, European nations established empires in Africa as they were finally able to conquer it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What were the 4 motives behind Europe’s conquest of Africa?

A
  1. Missionary and humanitarianism
  2. “White Man’s Burden”
  3. Economic motives
  4. Social Darwinism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What was Absolutism and when did it occur?

A

In the 17th century, it was a period when kings tried to acquire absolute authority over everything (which no king has every truly done).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Why did Absolutism initially arise?

A

It arose as a knee-jerk reaction to feudalism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What group was the strongest supporter of the King?

A

The Merchant Class (AKA Middle Class Bourgeoisie).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Why did the Merchant class support the King?

A

Because they liked stability in business (the king could do things in their favor).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What 2 reasons were given to justify Absolutism?

A
  1. Kings had divine right to power

2. People were unruly and needed to be protected from themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Who argued for the divine right to kingship?

A

Bishop Jacques Bossuet, who argued for such in “Politics Drawn from Holy Scripture” in 1709.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Who argued that people needed a king to protect them from themselves?

A

Thomas Hobbes, who argued for such in “Leviathan” in 1651.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What French King epitomized an Absolutist King?

A

Louis XIV (14th) of the Bourbon Dynasty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Who was the French Minister of Finance?

A

Jean Baptiste Colbert.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is mercantilism?

A

Economic system in which the government regulates and subsidizes industries with the intention of furthering the state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is bullionism?

A

Increasing precious metals in a country.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is colonialism?

A

A set of unequal relationships between colony (indigenous people) and the colonial power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What was the Enlightenment?

A

It was “the age of human reasoning.” It represented a shift from tradition and faith to evidence and reason.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What were tenets of the Enlightenment?

A
  1. It was an optimistic age.
  2. The leaders of the Enlightenment looked forward to the discovery if all the natural laws of the universe.
  3. They believed in reason and education.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What were leaders of the Enlightenment called?

A

Philosophes. The founding fathers were among them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is deism?

A

It is the belief in god, but not religion. Deists saw god as a clockmaker - he made the universe, set it in motion, and let it move on its own from there.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Who were physiocrats?

A

They were people trying to uncover the natural laws of economics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does “Laissez-faire” refer to?

A

If refers to a free market economic policy. It essentially means a hands off approach for the government

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Who was Adam Smith and what is he famous for?

A

He was famous for writing “The Wealth of Nations” which talked about the ‘invisible hand’ of the free market. He argued that people should pursue their self-interests when it comes to economics and that an economy works best when people do just that.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Who, and in what writing, implicitly described a social contract?

A

Thomas Hobbes in his book “Leviathan.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Who explicitly describes a social contract, and what is it?

A

John Locke. Individuals in an ordered society must give up some freedom to a government and in return, the government will keep them safe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What “self-evident truths” does the constitution refer to?

A

Unalienable rights.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

John Locke argued people have the right to do what?

A

He argued that people have the right to rebel when a government oversteps its bounds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is “Spirit of Laws” about and by whom was it written?

A

It was written by Montesquieu and it argued that the only way to protect liberty is via checks and balances in government.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is enlightened despotism?

A

It is a form of government in which monarchs pursue reforms inspired by the Enlightenment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How did things look in France in the summer of 1789? Why did it look that way? (3 reasons)

A

Things looked bad and hopeless.

  1. There was a famine in France due to poor harvests.
  2. The leaders of France were bad and people had little confidence in them.
  3. France was bankrupt from several costly wars.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What were the 3 estates in France?

A

Clergy, nobility, and commoners.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

In what way did King Louis XVI ask the nobility for help? How did the nobility respond?

A

He asked them to pay taxes (which they previously hadn’t done) due to France’s dire financial situation. They agreed to pay taxes, but only if the King would call an Estates General.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is an Estates General?

A

It was an advisory board to the King, with all estates represented.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Why did the nobility call for an estates general? What was different about this one than those in the past?

A

They wanted to control the king. The difference was that the commoners were represented by well-off, educated men and could greatly influence the Estates General this time around (having been through the Enlightenment).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What was the National Assembly and why was it formed?

A

The representatives of the commoners were not treated well in the Estates General so they made their own organization. The King refused to do voting by head count (which they would’ve won easily) and instead wanted the old system of voting by chamber.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the Tennis Court Oath?

A

The National Assembly first met in a tennis court and made the following oath: “We will not disband until a Constitution has been made for France.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What was Bastille famous for?

A

On July 14, 1789, commoners destroyed many things that represented the power of the King. Mobs destroyed a prison which held political prisoners of the King.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Why did mobs form at Bastille?

A

As a result of the King calling in troops while the National Assembly met.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What was the March of the Fishwives?

A

It was a march on the palace of Versailles by women demanding bread (and food in general) from the King. They felt he should come back to Paris with the commoners.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the 4 main tenets of “Declaration of the Rights of Man AND the Citizen?”

A
  1. A person’s political liberty ends where another’s begins.
  2. Laws should only prohibit actions harmful to society.
  3. Laws should be the same for everyone whether they protect or prohibit.
  4. Presumption of innocence until proven guilty.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What kind of government resulted from the Constitution of 1791?

A

A constitutional monarchy, not a French Republic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the contents (3) of the Constitution of 1791?

A
  1. Declaration of the rights of man and the citizen.
  2. Constitutional Monarchy
  3. Legislative Assembly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the differences between active and passive citizens and what determined the status of citizens?

A

Active citizens could vote and hold political office, whereas passive citizens could not. Wealth determined whether you were active or passive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

When did the second phase of the French Revolution begin?

A

August 1792

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What was the Jacobin Party?

A

A political party in France that believed the revolution didn’t go far enough. They disliked the distinction of “active” and “passive” citizens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Who led the Jacobin Party?

A

Robespierre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What happened at the National Convention?

A

France was declared a republic. Several political parties met to make a new constitution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What was the Committee of Public Safety?

A

The executive branch of the new government.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Who led the Committee of Public Safety?

A

Robespierre, the leader of the Jacobins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How did Robespierre use the Committee?

A

He used it as a spy network, in an attempt to squelch any opposition to the republic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What was the “Reign of Terror?”

A

It was the name given to series of events in which Robespierre killed 40,000 people (within the first year) he suspected of opposing the republic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What ended the “Reign of Terror?” When did it happen?

A

It ended in July 1799 when Robespierre was executed via guillotine. This happened because he started to kill other leaders, and they weren’t going to have it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Why did many other countries declare war on France around 1792?

A

The countries did not want the influence of a republic near their borders (they didn’t want to lose control of their subjects).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What did the French Constitution of 1795 do?

A

It made France a republic. There was no longer a king and there was universal male suffrage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What was “The Directory?”

A

A 5 man council that held executive power in the Republic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Where was Napoleon born?

A

Corsica, from which he held nobility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Where was Napoleon educated?

A

In a military academy in Paris.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What were some characteristics of Napoleon? (4 things)

A
  1. He had a huge ego, believing that fate destined him for greatness.
  2. He was a man of the Enlightenment.
  3. He was extremely intelligent and a great multitasker.
  4. He was a mathematician (hence his quantitative approach to war).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

When was France planning on invading Austria?

A

Around 1796/1797.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What role did Napoleon play in the French invasion of Austria?

A

He led an army to the south with the mission of distracting the Austrian army. His success proved much more useful than that of a mere diversion, and as such, the Austrians asked him for peace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is “Campo Formio?”

A

It was the treaty signed by Austria in 1797 after their surrender to Napoleon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Due to his success in the war with Austria, what did The Directory do for Napoleon?

A

They named him “Protector of the Directory.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Who was Horatio Nelson?

A

He was a leader in the British Navy. He was a thorn in Napoleon’s side until his death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

When did Napoleon overthrow the government and what did he do next?

A

In 1799, he launched a coup and declared himself First Consul. The French love him.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

When did Napoleon declare himself Emperor?

A

1805.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What were the Napoleonic reforms? (4)

A
  1. Napoleonic Code of 1807 - liberal and equal law code
  2. Careers open to talent (meritocracy)
  3. Mass public education system
  4. Concordat of 1801 - resolved riffs between Catholic Church and French government
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Why was Napoleon’s army so successful? (5)

A
  1. Personal training - trained in elite military schools
  2. Flexibility - no dogma, all practicality in warfare
  3. Efficient troop movement
  4. Inspired masses with his presence
  5. Napoleon personally led troops
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

If Napoleon was to conquer England, what must he first do?

A

He had to control the English channel, a very difficult feat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What happened in (and when was) the Battle of Trafalgar?

A

In 1805, the British Navy defeated the combined navies of France and Spain. Horatio Nelson died in combat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What was the Continental System?

A

An economic blockade against Britain by Napoleon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Why did the Continental System not work?

A

Because Europe needed Britain more than Britain needed Europe. Britain was industrially revolutionized and more economically powerful than the rest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What did Napoleon do to 300 German kingdoms?

A

He reduced that number to 39 provinces and by doing so, he unintentionally created a sense of a national Germany.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What was the Battle of Friedland?

A

It was a battle in 1807 in which the French defeated the Russians. Napoleon forced Alexander I into a treaty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What was the Tilsit Treaty?

A

It was the treaty signed by Alexander I of Russia after Napoleon defeated them. It brought Russia into the continental system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Why did Russia no longer honor the Tilsit Treaty? What happened afterwards?

A

Because Russia was very economically dependent upon Britain and could not afford to cut off trade with them. As a result, France invaded Russia in 1812.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What was the initial Russian strategy to the invading French Armies?

A

They would retreat and burn villages and resources behind them, so that the French armies could not use them for resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

When did the Russians finally dig in and fight back (rather than implementing a scorched earth policy)?

A

The Battle of Borodino in September 1812. 100 miles outside of Moscow, the armies fought and the French won, though suffering heavy casualties. French armies soon captured Moscow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What forced the French to retreat?

A

The winter of 1812. The French armies could not handle the Russian winter due to lack of resources and bitter cold. Hundreds of thousands of French troops died and many fled. The Russians followed them and attacked.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What was the Quadruple Alliance?

A

The alliance of Britain, Russia, Prussia, and Austria against France.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What happened at the Battle of Leipzig in 1813?

A

The Quad Alliance defeated Napoleon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Where was Napoleon initially exiled to?

A

St. Elba

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

After taking Napoleon out of the picture, who was brought to power in France by the Quad Alliance?

A

Louis XVIII of the Bourbon Dynasty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What was the “100 Days Reign?”

A

It was the period of time when Napoleon was back in power after escaping St. Elba. It lasted about 100 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

When and where was Napoleon finally defeated?

A

The Battle of Waterloo in 1815.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Where was Napoleon exiled to, the second time around?

A

St. Helena, a very remote island.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

An industrial revolution comes into play when what 2 things happen?

A
  1. When physical power is being replaced by inanimate power.

2. The domestic system is being replaced by the factory system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the simplified process of a factory?

A

Raw materials go in, finished products come out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What’s the difference between domestic and factory systems?

A

Domestic system: work goes to workers (at home)

Factory system: Workers go to work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

In which industry did the Industrial Revolution first occur?

A

The textile industry (in Britain).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What new fabric showed up in Europe during the Industrial Revolution?

A

Cotton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

When and where did the Industrial Revolution begin?

A

In England around 1750.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What were 6 reasons the I.R. began in England?

A
  1. Adequate sources of power.
  2. Great canals and ports
  3. Temperate climate
  4. Concentrated world knowledge
  5. British were open to new ideas
  6. Gov’t was kind to business
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

How did the steam engine help the energy supply?

A

The steam engine allowed for an energy supply that was more localized than in the past.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What was the big revolution in the transportation industry?

A

Railroads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Who invented the cotton gin?

A

Eli Whitney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Who invented the morse code?

A

Samuel Morse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Who invented a suitable electrical generator (and lightbulb)?

A

Thomas Edison

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Who invented the telephone?

A

Alexander Graham Bell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Who invented the gasoline powered combustion engine?

A

Gottlieb Daimler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Who invented the oil powered combustion engine?

A

Rudolph Diesel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What were the 3 main downsides of the I.R.?

A
  1. Urbanization
  2. Exploitation of women and children
  3. Psychological challenges
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Why was urbanization a problem during the I.R.?

A

Cities were not prepared for the numbers of people that came in. It happened too rapidly and the infrastructure was inadequate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Why were women and children taken advantage of?

A
  1. They were more obedient than men.
  2. They worked at a cheaper rate.
  3. They had smaller hands, great for working with.textiles.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What were the 3 reasons the I.R. was psychologically challenging?

A
  1. Alien world - from rural life to urban life
  2. Independence to dependence - working at your own rate vs a boss and long work days.
  3. Time is of the essence, no breaks!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Who invented the spinning jenny?

A

James Hargreaves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Who invented the water frame?

A

Richard Arkwright

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Who invented the steam engine?

A

James Watt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What did Matthew Perry force Japan into signing?

A

The Harris Treaty. It established formal relations with Japan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

In what 3 ways did Japan embrace change?

A
  1. Japanese Imperial Oath of 1868
  2. A constitution was created.
  3. Department of Education was established in 1871.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What did the Japanese Imperial Oath of 1868 consist of? (3 things)

A
  1. Freedom of speech.
  2. Abandonment of outdated practices.
  3. Pursuit of knowledge.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Upon which Western nation did Japan model their new government?

A

Germany, with their constitutional monarchy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What was the Japanese Department of Education’s mission statement?

A

To wipe out ignorance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What was the Meiji Restoration?

A

From 1868-1912, Japan transitioned from a feudal society to a world power. Emperor was head of state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What does “Meiji” mean?

A

Enlightened rule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Why was Japan viewed as a world power?

A
  1. Anglo-Japanese Alliance of 1902: between Britain and Japan. A military alliance.
  2. Sino-Japanese War (1894-1895): Japan beat China for Eastern dominance.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What was significant about the Anglo-Japanese Alliance of 1902?

A

The British broke their “splendid isolationism” in favor of alliance with an Eastern power (over that of even a Western power).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Why did Japan fight China around 1894-95?

A

Over control of Korea. Both sides agreed to let Korea be politically independent. Japan won.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is the Treaty of Shimonosaki?

A

Treaty signed after Sino-Japanese War. Gave control of Korea to Japan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What was the Russo-Japanese War?

A

In 1904-1905, Japan fought Russia over control of Manchuria. First time an Eastern power had beat a Western nation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Why were the Russians interested in Manchuria?

A

Russia did not have a sufficient warm water port. Port Arthur was located there and the Ruskies wanted it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Why were the Japanese interested in Manchuria?

A

Port Arthur, as well as the railroads and mining resources there.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Who was the mediator between Russia and Japan?

A

President Roosevelt, for which he won the Nobel Peace Prize.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What treaty ended the Russo-Japanese War and what did it do?

A

The Portsmouth Treaty. Japan gained control of Manchuria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

In 1871, what Western nation produced the most industrial goods?

A

Germany.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Who was Otto van Bismarck?

A

He was the Prime Minister (Chancellor) of Prussia. Very good at working things in his favor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Prior to 1871, Bismarck was a “hawk.” What does this mean?

A

It meant he was in favor of war.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What were Bismarck’s two biggest goals PRIOR to 1871?

A

To create a unified Germany and protect the interests of the Prussian Royal Family.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Who was William I?

A

The King of Prussia who appointed Bismarck as Prime Minister. They worked well together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

How did Bismarck intend to unify the German people?

A

War, propagandized correctly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What were Bismarck’s 3 wars?

A
  1. War of 1864 w/ Denmark
  2. Seven Weeks War of 1866 w/ Austria
  3. Franco-Prussian War (1870-1871).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Why did Bismarck fight Denmark in 1864?

A

Over “border” issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Why did Bismarck fight the Seven Weeks War of 1866 with Austria?

A

Over who was going to lead the Germanic people: Prussia or Austria. Prussians won.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Why was the Franco-Prussian War of 1870-1871 fought?

A

France did not want a Prussian noble (Leopold) to be king in Spain (they would have enemies on both sides then). Much drama ensued and Prussia won.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What ended the Franco-Prussian War?

A

Napoleon III’s capture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What treaty ended the Franco-Prussian War and what did it do? (2 things)

A

The Treaty of Frankfurt: Prussia gained two wealthy provinces and William I was coronated in the Palace of Versailles.

165
Q

What was the government type of the German Empire?

A

Constitutional monarchy. Powerful central government with 25 smaller states.

166
Q

What kind of powers did the German Feds hold vs those of the smaller states?

A

German Federal gov’t held enumerated power (as written in constitution) while the 25 states held residual power (anything that wasn’t written in the constitution).

167
Q

What was iffy about the German constitution?

A

It gave people a sense of participation without actually giving them power.

168
Q

How did the German constitution favor a few?

A

The two most powerful positions, Kaiser and Prime Minister, were inherited.

169
Q

What does “Kulturkampf” translate to?

A

“Struggle for civilization.”

170
Q

What was the Kulturkampf?

A

A struggle between those who considered themselves “enlightened” Europeans and the Roman Catholic Church.

171
Q

What was the “Syllabus of Errors?”

A

In 1864, Pope Pius 9th identified what he believed to be errors of modern societies.

172
Q

What were the “errors” Pope Pius 9th listed? (4 things)

A
  1. Freedom of speech/press
  2. Separation of church and state
  3. Secular education
  4. Civil (non-Church) marriage
173
Q

What was the “First Vatican Council & Doctrine of Papal Infallibility” and what was the problem with it?

A

In 1870, the council said that the Pope could do no wrong in matters of FAITH, whereas some thought they said he could do no wrong period (which was an incorrect interpretation).

174
Q

How did Italy respond to the misbehaving Catholic Church?

A

In 1870, the Italian army occupied Rome and made clear that Rome was part of the Italian state.

175
Q

Why did Napoleon III pull troops out of Rome?

A

Troops that usually protected the Church were pulled back to fight in the Franco-Prussian War. The Church was not happy with this.

176
Q

How did Bismarck make Kulturkampf worse?

A

He made the May/Falk laws that persecuted and punished the Catholic Church in Germany. This was stupid as a third of Germany was Catholic.

177
Q

Why did Bismarck enact the May/Falk laws? (3 possible reasons, last one is best)

A
  1. Pope is an Italian Prince
  2. Prejudice
  3. Foreign policy
178
Q

What were Bismarck’s two major goals POST 1871?

A
  1. He wanted to identify friends and isolate enemies.

2. He didn’t want enemies to feel threatened.

179
Q

Who did Bismarck identify as a potential enemy and what did he do next?

A

He identified Russia as a potential enemy and entered the Dual Alliance with Austria.

180
Q

What was the Dual Alliance of 1879?

A

It was a military alliance between Germany and Austria. Primarily aimed at Russian threat.

181
Q

What was the Triple Alliance of 1882?

A

An alliance between Germany, Austria, and now Italy. From German view, it was directed at France.

182
Q

What was the Reinsurance Treaty of 1887?

A

A German peace treaty towards Russia. It was mostly just a goodwill gesture.

183
Q

Why status did Italy want and what step were they going to take to move towards it?

A

Italy wanted to be seen as a world power and they wanted to take Tunisia.

184
Q

What role did Germany play regarding Tunisia?

A

Bismarck secretly told the French that if they wanted to take Tunisia, Germany would not be opposed. France took Tunisia before Italy could get there.

185
Q

How did Italy respond to the French taking Tunisia?

A

They asked the Germans to support them in Tunisia, and Germany said they would if Italy resolved their differences with Austria.

186
Q

When did William I die and who took his place?

A

In 1888; his son Frederick III took position as Kaiser.

187
Q

How did Frederick III being the Kaiser play out?

A

He died of throat cancer after about 100 days as Kaiser. Subsequently, William II took the throne.

188
Q

What did William II think of Bismarck?

A

He admired him at first, but once he became Kaiser, he thought he knew better than Bismarck (which would’ve been a mighty feat).

189
Q

What was William II’s foreign policy?

A

He embraced imperialism (in opposition to Bismarck). He said “Germany will have its place in the sun.”

190
Q

What strained German-British relations going into WWI?

A

German naval buildup.

191
Q

How did Bismarck lose position of Prime Minister?

A

William II forced him to resign.

192
Q

What was the Franco-Russian Military Alliance of 1894?

A

A military alliance between France and Russia aimed at the threat of the Triple Alliance.

193
Q

What was the Entente Cordial of 1904?

A

A promise of support between France and Britain. Each country promised to support the others’ colonial claims.

194
Q

What was the Anglo-Russian Entente of 1907?

A

A promise of support between Britain and Russia. It settled colonial disputes between the two, all under French mediation. The 3 were identified as the “Triple Entente” afterwards.

195
Q

What were the 3 main causes of WWI?

A
  1. Empire building
  2. Weak Ottoman Empire (the “sick man” of Europe)
  3. Secret Alliances
196
Q

What region was known as the “powder keg of Europe?”

A

The Balkans, a region the Ottoman Empire was losing control of.

197
Q

What did Serbia want with the Adriatic Sea?

A

As a landlocked country, Serbia wanted a sea outlet in the Adriatic, through Bosnia and Herzegovina.

198
Q

What did Austria do to Bosnia and Herzegovina?

A

They annexed those two countries and brought them into their empire, which rustled the jimmies of Serbia.

199
Q

Who killed Archduke Ferdinand and his wife Sophia?

A

Princip, a Serbian who was part of the Black Hand Society (a terrorist organization).

200
Q

How did Austria and Germany respond to the assassination of Ferdinand?

A

Austria issued Serbia an ultimatum and asked Germany if they would support them in a war with Serbia, to which Germany issued a “blank check.”

201
Q

What is a “blank check” (in the specific case with Germany)?

A

The “blank check” meant that Germany would support Austria no matter what, though they recommended negotiation before war.

202
Q

What was the ultimatum that Austria issued Serbia following the assassination of Ferdinand? (3 things in it)

A

It was a 48 hour ultimatum.

  1. Serbian apology.
  2. They wanted certain Serbian officials fired.
  3. They demanded that Austrian police be allowed into Bellgrad to investigate the crime.
203
Q

On July 28, what did Austria do? (WW1 era)

A

They declared war on Serbia and began bombing Bellgrad.

204
Q

On July 30, what did Russia do? (WW1 era)

A

Russia (Nicholas II) mobilized troops along the German/Russian border.

205
Q

On July 31, what did Germany and Britain do? (WW1 era)

A

Germany told Russia to back their troops down and Britain demanded all powers respect Belgium’s neutrality.

206
Q

What was the Schlieffen Plan?

A

Germany’s plan of war (developed in 1908) in the event of a two-front war with France and Russia. Plan was to hold Russia off, beat France quickly, and then beat Russia.

207
Q

On August 1, what did Germany do? (WW1 era)

A

Germany (William II) declared war on Russia and they invaded Belgium.

208
Q

When did Germany declare war on France?

A

August 3, 1914

209
Q

When did Britain declare war on Germany and officially begin WWI?

A

August 4, 1914

210
Q

Who made up the Allied Powers and how many soldiers did they have?

A

The Entente Powers (Britain, France, and Russia) and their colonies had around 40 million troops.

211
Q

Who made up the Central Powers and how many soldiers did they have?

A

Germany, Austria, and the Ottoman Empire and they had about 21 million troops.

212
Q

How did the public (in all countries) respond to the start of WWI?

A

They were enthusiastic because they needed some “excitement.”

213
Q

Propaganda machines tried to convince people that WWI would be: (3 things).

A
  1. Just
  2. Glorious
  3. Short (in time)
214
Q

How did governments propagandize the enemy?

A

They dehumanized them, making it easier to get public support for the war.

215
Q

What was the First Battle of the Marne?

A

In September 1914, French and British troops stopped the Germans from pushing further into France.

216
Q

What is a “defensive war of attrition?”

A

A war that is won by outlasting the enemy.

217
Q

Why did WWI become a defensive war of attrition? (3 things)

A
  1. New weapons (smokeless gunpowder, machine guns, artillery, etc.)
  2. Poor communication (between leaders and troops)
  3. Neither side had a weapon of exploitation
218
Q

What is total war?

A

War fought for the complete destruction of the enemy in which all possible resources are utilized. Anyone and anything is fair game.

219
Q

What did the Berlin Conferences of 1884 & 1885 do?

A

Many European nations met and set guidelines for dividing up Africa.

220
Q

What were the two main guidelines of the Berlin Conferences?

A

In order to claim land in Africa:

  1. You must occupy it.
  2. You must maintain it.
221
Q

In the 19th century, which country held the MOST territory in Africa (and what was their goal)?

A

France, and they wanted an empire that spread across Africa, west to east.

222
Q

In the 19th century, what country held the SECOND most territory in Africa (and what was their goal)?

A

Britain, and they wanted an empire that spread across Africa north to south, to build a railroad from Cairo to Capetown.

223
Q

When and where was Chinese Gordon killed?

A

In 1885, he was killed in Khartoum, Sudan.

224
Q

Who were the Dervishes?

A

An Islamic group that opposed foreign occupation of Sudan.

225
Q

Who led the Dervishes until 1885?

A

Mahdi

226
Q

Who led the Dervishes after the death of Mahdi?

A

Khalifa

227
Q

Who was Hebert Kitchener?

A

A British general who was made commander of all British troops in North Africa in 1896.

228
Q

For what purpose was Kitchener sent to Africa?

A

He was told to march up the Nile River, claiming territory for Britain along the way so that the railroad could be built.

229
Q

What was the Battle of Omdurman?

A

In 1898, Kitchener (British) fought Khalifa (Dervishes) and wiped them out. Machine guns mowed down waves of Dervishes.

230
Q

After the Battle of Omdurman, what did British scouts do?

A

They were sent to the south to check out the land. They encountered the French, after which they became allies.

231
Q

Who was the French Foreign Minister and what did he do?

A

Del Cassey. He convinced the French gov’t to give way to the British in Sudan.

232
Q

What was major about the British/French encounter at Fashoda?

A

It was the last major colonial dispute between France and Britain. From then on, they were allies.

233
Q

Who were the first Europeans to settle in Africa?

A

The Dutch settled South Africa (Cape Colony) in 1652.

234
Q

Who were the Afrikaners?

A

White people (primarily Dutch) who had been living in Africa for a long time.

235
Q

What does “Boer” mean?

A

Dirt farmer.

236
Q

What African territory did the British take (during the Napoleonic Wars) and why?

A

They took Cape Colony because as other countries were at war, it was easy to do so (as other nations were preoccupied).

237
Q

When was slave TRADE banned in the British Empire and who was a key figure in this?

A

In 1807. William Wuberforce was a key figure.

238
Q

When was slavery ENTIRELY banned in the British Empire?

A

1833, and this included Cape Colony.

239
Q

What was the Great Trek?

A

In 1833, hundreds of thousands of Afrikaners moved out of the British Empire to keep slaves.

240
Q

What were the two new states founded by the Afrikaners from the Great Trek?

A

Transvaal and Orange Free State.

241
Q

After the establishment of the two states, what happened?

A

Significant amounts of gold and diamonds were discovered.

242
Q

Who was Paul Kruger?

A

The President of Transvaal, overall leader of new states.

243
Q

What did Paul Kruger want to do?

A

He could not allow too many outsiders to come into the new states and wanted to stop them.

244
Q

How did Paul Kruger try to slow the flow of outsiders? (3 things)

A
  1. Denied civil rights
  2. Heavy taxes on outsiders
  3. Banned English language
245
Q

Who was Cecil Rhodes?

A

A wealthy man who was the Prime Minister of Cape Colony. He made his fortune in gold and diamonds, so he was interested in Transvaal and Orange Free State.

246
Q

What did Cecil Rhodes want the British gov’t to do to the new Afrikaner states?

A

He wanted the British Empire to conquer these states.

247
Q

What was the Jameson Raid?

A

In 1895, Leander Starr brought 500 armed men into Transvaal in the hopes of sparking a revolution. They failed. Cecil Rhodes orchestrated the raid.

248
Q

What was Villham II’s (Kaiser of Germany) response to the Jameson raid?

A

He sent letter to Kruger congratulating him for being able to put down Jameson Raid without outside assistance.

249
Q

Who was the Boer War fought by (and when)?

A

From 1899-1902, the British Empire fought Transvaal and the Orange Free State.

250
Q

How many soldiers did the Afrikaners have during the Boer War?

A

88,000 combat ready men who used guerrilla warfare.

251
Q

Why could the British not afford to lose the Boer War?

A

Losing a war was bad for the reputation of an empire.

252
Q

What did Kitchener do to the Afrikaners?

A

He put them in concentration camps so they could not support the guerrilla groups. Over 20K die in these camps.

253
Q

What was the Treaty of Vereeniging and what did it do? (4 things)

A
  1. It ended the Boer War.
  2. Transvaal and Orange Free State became British holdings.
  3. Afrikaners swore oath of allegiance to British crown.
  4. English became official language of the two states.
254
Q

What did the South Africa Act of 1910 do?

A

It unified Transvaal, Orange Free State, Cape Colony, and Natal into the Union of South Africa.

255
Q

What did the Union of South Africa Land Act of 1918 do?

A

It divided the country racially: best lands went to whites, nominal (home) lands went to blacks. Blacks could ONLY live in nominal lands.

256
Q

What is apartheid?

A

All of the laws that segregated society racially (in South Africa).

257
Q

Of the time frame we have covered, who primarily controlled China?

A

The Manchus/Ching Dynasty

258
Q

What were the British complaints with China? (4 things)

A
  1. They don’t like high tariffs
  2. Limited to trade in Canton
  3. They could trade only through Co-hong (Chinese merchant organization).
  4. They don’t like being viewed as inferior.
259
Q

How did opium get into China?

A

The British smuggled it in from India and traded it for actual goods.

260
Q

What sparked the Opium War of 1839-1842?

A

In 1839, the Chinese destroyed a British ship containing $6 million of opium.

261
Q

What ended the Opium War?

A

After a series of skirmishes, the Manchus signed the Treaty of Nan-King.

262
Q

What did the Treaty of Nan-King do? (5 things)

A
  1. British received $21 million indemnity.
  2. Tariff was now fixed at 5% (on British goods going into China)
  3. China is essentially opened up to British.
  4. Extraterritorial rights.
  5. Britain received “most favored nation” status.
263
Q

What did “most favored nation” status do?

A

It gave Britain the best deal in China when conflicting with another nation.

264
Q

What were the extraterritorial rights the British received?

A

It was the right of a British citizen to be tried in a British court, all while in China.

265
Q

What was significant about the Nan-King treaty?

A

It was the template that other countries used when dealing with China for the next 100 years.

266
Q

What were the Unequal Treaties?

A

All of the treaties the Manchus signed with Western nations, which they practically ignored.

267
Q

What was the Tia Ping Rebellion?

A

From 1850-1864, there was a massive civil war between the Manchus and rebels. 20 million people died.

268
Q

Who led the rebels in the Tia Ping Rebellion?

A

Hong, who believed he was the younger brother of Jesus.

269
Q

What was the Boxer Rebellion?

A

From 1899-1900, a war was fought after the Boxers destroyed foreign legations in Peking.

270
Q

What were foreign legations?

A

Embassies

271
Q

Of the countries whose embassies were attacked by the Boxers, what was their response?

A

They demanded the Manchus do something about it and they didn’t. So they formed a coalition and wiped out the boxers.

272
Q

What is a sphere of influence?

A

When a country possesses great influence/control over another.

273
Q

What is an open door policy?

A

Free trade with a country.

274
Q

In 1899, U.S. Secretary of State John Hay wrote letters to other Western nations. What did he say?

A

In his first letter, Hay told them he agreed to spheres of influence in China, but with equality of trade rights. In his second letter, he thanked them for agreeing to the first letter (which they didn’t).

275
Q

From the 7th century to the 19th century, what was Japan’s form of government?

A

Feudalism

276
Q

What was the difference between European and Japanese feudalism?

A

Terminology

277
Q

What were Daimyos and who was the most powerful?

A

They were feudal lords and the most powerful was the Shogun.

278
Q

From 1603-1867, which clan made up the Shogun family?

A

The Tokagawa Clan.

279
Q

What family was the imperial family in Japan?

A

The Yamato family.

280
Q

Why did Matthew Perry sail into Edo Bay?

A

In July 1853, Perry did so to “open up” Japan.

281
Q

What did Perry want from Japan?

A

Refueling ports and trade with Japanese people. He also wanted them to not kill shipwrecked sailors.

282
Q

How did Total War expand women’s rights?

A

As men went overseas to fight the war, women frequently took their old jobs (often manual labor jobs), which represented a big shift from the traditional roles of women.

283
Q

What was the Battle of Verdun?

A

In February 1916, the Germans attempted for the next 7 months to take Paris. 700,000 people died.

284
Q

What was the Battle of the Somme?

A

In July 1916, the British wanted to punch a hole in the German line via heavy artillery. For 7 days, they heavily bombed a point in the German line, while Germans hid in dugouts. The British then marched forward and were promptly mowed down by German machine gun fire. 1.2 million deaths.

285
Q

What were 5 things soldiers complained about? (WW1 era)

A
  1. Mud
  2. Deafening noises
  3. Trench foot (from continual exposure to elements)
  4. Fear (of snipers, artillery, etc.)
  5. Rats/Lice
286
Q

What were 3 problems governments and military officials faced due to the length of WW1?

A
  1. Sympathy for the enemy
  2. Disillusionment on the home front and front lines
  3. A successful revolution in Russia in 1917 brought Lenin into power.
287
Q

What 3 things did Lenin promise the Russians?

A
  1. Bread
  2. Land reform
  3. To end the war
288
Q

What is the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk?

A

The treaty between Germany and Russia that ended the eastern front of WW1. Russia gave Germany 1.3 million square miles.

289
Q

What did the USA’s “neutrality” during WW1 mean?

A

It meant they would trade with whomever had money. Neither side of the war looked good or bad at that point, to them.

290
Q

What is totalitarianism?

A

A system in which a dictator/government controls every aspect of the individual’s life. This is done through terror, nationalism, and propaganda.

291
Q

What brought Lenin into power?

A

A successful Bolshevik (communist) revolution in 1917. Lenin becomes Dictator of the Proletariat.

292
Q

Describe Tzar Nicholas II’s assassination. (Who did it, why, when?)

A

Lenin had Nicholas II killed (along with the entire Romanov family) in 1918. This was done to prevent a potential counterrevolution.

293
Q

Lenin creates a Communist State supposedly based on the ideas of whom?

A

Karl Marx. The Communist State did not truly follow the ideas of Marx (private property, on a small scale, existed under Lenin, for example).

294
Q

What is the “New Economic Policy” (NEP)?

A

Lenin initiated state control of the largest sectors of the economy while, at lower levels, private enterprise continued.

295
Q

What is the Cheka?

A

Lenin’s secret police who, along with the Red Army, attempt to exterminate opposition.

296
Q

Upon Lenin’s death, a power struggle ensued among whom? Who won?

A

A communist intellectual Trotsky and Joseph Stalin. Stalin won.

297
Q

How did Trotsky die?

A

Stalin exiled him to Mexico, where he then had him brutally assassinated.

298
Q

What are two characteristics of Stalin?

A
  1. He is extremely paranoid.

2. There is nothing he will not do to maintain power.

299
Q

What are the Great Purges?

A

In the 1930s, Stalin had all party and military personnel that have proven themselves capable killed.

300
Q

What are the “5 Year Plans?”

A

Economic plans that called for the heavy industrialization and collectivization of agriculture.

301
Q

Were Stalin’s “5 Year Plans” successful?

A

They were, but at a heavy cost to the people. The Kulaks were an example.

302
Q

What happened to the Kulaks during the “5 Year Plans?”

A

The Kulaks, large land owning peasants who opposed the collectivization of agriculture, were exterminated.

303
Q

Total War tends to precipitate a shift in which direction politically?

A

To the Left, due to expanding government control of everything.

304
Q

How did Germany and Italy respond to the Russian Revolution and the overall shift to the left?

A

By going to the Right (like way, way right)!

305
Q

How was Mussolini involved in the Italian Socialist Party?

A

He became editor of their newspaper, the “Avanti.”

306
Q

What did WW1 do to the political beliefs of Mussolini?

A

Before the war, he supported left wing ideology, whereas after WW1, he became a staunch right-wing conservative.

307
Q

What was Mussolini’s newspaper?

A

After WW1, he began the Right wing newspaper called the “Papola de Italia.”

308
Q

What was the Fasci di Combattimento?

A

Violent squads, primarily composed of war veterans, who wanted to gain control of the government.

309
Q

What is fascism?

A

It is a political philosophy that advocates the glorification of the state (via propaganda), a single party system with a strong ruler, and an aggressive form of nationalism.

310
Q

How did Mussolini rise to power? (Hint: It wasn’t a coup)

A

He worked within the existing political system (constitutional monarchy) to create the 20th century fascist state.

311
Q

Regarding Mussolini, what happened in 1921?

A

He became Prime Minister of Italy.

312
Q

What did Mussolini do in 1922?

A

He created the “Grand Council of Fascist” which replaced the legislative branch of the existing government.

313
Q

What changes did the “Grand Council of Fascist” make? (2 things)

A
  1. Mussolini alone will set the date for national elections (usually done by the King).
  2. They created a Fascist military call MSVN, which swore allegiance to Mussolini and not the state.
314
Q

What resulted from the changes made by the “Grand Count of Fascist?”

A

Totalitarianism

315
Q

After WW1, what did William II (Kaiser of Germany) do and how was he helped?

A

William II fled to Holland. Queen Willomina refused to turn William II over to the Allies and remained under her protection for the rest of his life.

316
Q

When was the Versailles Peace Treaty signed?

A

June 28, 1919

317
Q

Why was the Weimar Republic doomed from the beginning?

A

Because to the average German, the new state symbolizes defeat in war and national humiliation.

318
Q

How was the government of the Weimar Republic made up and what problems were inherent in it?

A

The government was setup as to allow proportional representation. This meant that too many parties were around for a clear majority.

319
Q

Who was Paul von Hindenburg?

A

Hindenburg was a Prussian war hero of the Eastern Front who became President in 1925. He held the Weimar Republic together.

320
Q

Briefly describe the early life of Adolf Hitler (his birthplace to art school).

A

He was born in Austria in 1889, the son of a customs official. After a limited education, he went to Vienna and was rejected twice by the Fine Arts Academy.

321
Q

Where did Hitler develop his hatred of Jews?

A

Many argue in Vienna. Jews were successful whereas young Hitler was not.

322
Q

How was Hitler involved in WW1?

A

He volunteered for the Bavarian army and served for 4 years. He was promoted to corporal and received the iron cross twice.

323
Q

What did Hitler’s job of “political training official” consist of?

A

He would attend political party meetings in order to keep an eye of radical Left wing groups.

324
Q

What was the “German Workers Party?” (3 characteristics)

A

A political party that was anti-semitic, hated the Versailles Peace Treaty, and supported the union of all Germans.

325
Q

What did the “German Workers Party” come to be known as?

A

NAZIS

326
Q

Who were the Storm Troopers (SA)?

A

Young men (many of whom were WW1 vets) who protected Nazi party meetings and disrupted meetings of opposition groups through violence.

327
Q

What is the Beer Hall Putsch?

A

In 1923, Hitler attempted to overthrow the government. He served 8 months in prison, during which he wrote Mein Kampf.

328
Q

What did the failure of the Beer Hall Putsch convince Hitler of?

A

That he must work within the existing political system.

329
Q

Who were the SS (German troops)?

A

A paramilitary group that first served as Hitler’s bodyguards. Later, they were the very best troops in the German military.

330
Q

Why did Hindenburg offer the Chancellorship to Hitler?

A

Due to the government’s inability to function and fear of a possible revolution from the Left.

331
Q

What action by the British prior to the USA joining WW1 bothered the Americans? (Hint: It was naval)

A

If a U.S. ship were headed for a Central Power’s harbor, the British Navy would turn them around, or even bring them to Allied Ports.

332
Q

How did the Central Powers fight the Allied Powers at sea?

A

Submarines, as their ships could not compete with the Allies’ ships.

333
Q

What brought the USA into WW1?

A

Unrestricted German submarine warfare and the Zimmerman Note.

334
Q

Who was the German Prime Minister at the start of WW1?

A

Bethmann Hollweg

335
Q

What two views did Germany hold concerning the US during WW1?

A
  1. German admiralty believed they must carry out unrestricted submarine warfare against US.
  2. Bethmann Hollweg opposed unrestricted submarine warfare, knowing it would bring the US into the war (which would be the tipping point).
336
Q

What are the two most famous example of ships that German submarines sank during WW1?

A
  1. Lusitania (1915) - Killed 1000 civilians, including 100 Americans.
  2. Sussex (1916)
337
Q

Who was Arthur Zimmerman?

A

German Foreign Minister

338
Q

What was the Zimmerman Note?

A

It was an invitation to Mexico to enter WW1 on the side of the Central Powers. Germany told Mexico they would get Texas, New Mexico, and Arizona if they won.

339
Q

When did the USA enter WW1 and by whom were they led?

A

April 1917, led by John J. Pershing.

340
Q

What was the American Expeditionary Force?

A

The 2 million American troops that were brought in Europe to fight in WW1, led by John J. Pershing.

341
Q

What date marked the end of WW1?

A

November 11, 1918

342
Q

What was the Spartacist movement/the main reason Germany surrendered during WW1?

A

It was a socialist uprising within Germany during WW1. German leaders knew they needed to deal with it more than the war.

343
Q

What 4 main things did Wilson call for in his “Fourteen Points?”

A
  1. Open (not secret) treaties
  2. Arms reduction
  3. Self-determination - countries get to determine their own gov’t
  4. League of Nations
344
Q

What were the 3 major concerns of the Paris Peace Conference?

A
  1. Reparations for WW1
  2. Self-determination
  3. Stop the spread of Bolshevism/communism
345
Q

What 4 things did the Versailles Peace Treaty do? (other than ending WW1)

A
  1. France got back Alsace and Lorraine
  2. The Rhineland became a demilitarized zone.
  3. Germany was broken up.
  4. Germany was limited militarily.
346
Q

How was Germany limited militarily after WW1? (2 things)

A
  1. They were limited to a 100K man army.

2. They could not have submarines nor an air force.

347
Q

What does Article #231 of the Versailles Peace Treaty say?

A

It says the Germany was at fault for WW1. The whole treaty was offensive to Germans.

348
Q

How much was Germany expected to pay in indemnity after WW1?

A

$33 billion. The Austrians and Ottomans didn’t owe a dime, only Germans.

349
Q

Describe the flow of reparations after WW1.

A

U.S. had lent money to Allies, who received reparations from Germany, who got money for the reparations from the US. (It was a big circle).

350
Q

What did the Enabling Act of 1933 do? (It was in Germany)

A

It gave Hitler dictatorial power.

351
Q

How did Hitler combine the positions of chancellor and president?

A

He convinced top businessmen and military leaders to allow the move.

352
Q

What did Hitler have to do in order to convince military leaders of the Weimar Republic to allow him to combine the chancellorship and presidency?

A

Hitler did away with the SA. He had SA leadership murdered on the Night of Long Knives.

353
Q

What was the name of the position Hitler held after combining the chancellorship and presidency?

A

“Fuhrer” (leader).

354
Q

What were the Nuremberg laws? (and 3 characteristics of them)

A

In 1935, these laws systematically did away with the rights of German Jews and persecuted them.

  1. Took away citizenship
  2. No intermarriage between Jews and Germans
  3. Jews could not employ a German
355
Q

What was Krstllnacht?

A

The Night of Knives. On November 9, 1938, Jews, as well as their businesses and homes, were attacked.

356
Q

What was the Wannsee Conference?

A

In 1942, Nazi leaders held a conference and spoke frankly about the extermination of Jews.

357
Q

What supernatural force did Nazis believe in?

A

Volk, which radiated from the cosmos to the earth and back. Some groups had a better “Volk” than others, they thought.

358
Q

What 3 factors brought about WW2?

A
  1. The ferociousness of WW1
  2. Versailles Peace Treaty
  3. Extreme isolationism
359
Q

What was the “Policy of Appeasement” with regards to British/Hitler relations?

A

It was the policy of continually giving in to the demands of Hitler in the hope he could be satisfied.

360
Q

When did Mussolini invade Ethiopia?

A

January 1935

361
Q

In March 1935, Germany did what?

A

They no longer honored the limitations placed on their military.

362
Q

Why did Hitler get away with annexing several countries prior to WW2?

A

Because the League of Nations (and its constituent nations) did not have the guts to stop him.

363
Q

When did Germany invade the Rhineland? What was significant about this?

A

March 1936. It was the demilitarized zone between France and Germany.

364
Q

In March 1938, Anschluss occurred. What was this?

A

The German annexation of Austria. The Treaty of Versailles forbade the unification of the two.

365
Q

In September 1938, why did Hitler occupy the Sudetenland (part of Czechoslovakia)?

A

He claimed that German citizens were being mistreated there.

366
Q

When did Hitler take all of Czechoslovakia?

A

March 1939

367
Q

What was the Anglo-Polish Mutual Assistance Pact?

A

In August 1939, Poland and Britain formed a military alliance aimed at Germany.

368
Q

What was “Case White?”

A

The German invasion of Poland on September 1, 1939. This began WW2.

369
Q

What is Blitzkrieg?

A

“Lightning warfare.” Military technique of the Germans.

370
Q

What was “Case Yellow?”

A

The German invasion of France (May 10, 1940). French put up almost no fight.

371
Q

How did Germany plan to control Britain?

A

By controlling their skies. The Battle for Britain (Jun-Oct 1940) was lost by the Germans because they could not afford it any longer.

372
Q

What was “Operation Sea Lion?”

A

Nazi Germany’s planned LAND invasion of Britain. it never happened.

373
Q

What is tactical bombing?

A

Bombing a specific target.

374
Q

What is carpet bombing?

A

Bombing an entire area to completely destroy it.

375
Q

What was the “Butt Report?”

A

An Allied report in 1941 that reported the huge inaccuracies of their bombing campaigns.

376
Q

What was the Tripartite Pact of 1940?

A

A military alliance between Germany, Italy, and Japan.

377
Q

What was Operation Barbarossa?

A

German invasion of the USSR in 1941. Hitler wanted to completely annihilate the Slavs.

378
Q

What great difficulty did Operation Barbarossa face?

A

The Russia winter of 1941!

379
Q

What was the Lend-Lease Act of 1941?

A

An program which overturned the Neutrality Act. The US supplied all Allied nations, regardless of their government type.

380
Q

What was Operation Torch?

A

The Allied invasion to route Germans out of Algeria.

381
Q

What was Operation Husky?

A

When the Allied Powers took Sicily was the Axis Powers.

382
Q

What was the Cold War?

A

A state of diplomatic tension between the two world Superpowers, the U.S.A. and U.S.S.R.

383
Q

Why was the Cold War deliberately maintained?

A

For the purpose of winning political and economic advantages without fighting (with the exception of “hotspots”) and to influence countries to join them.

384
Q

Why did the Cold War occur?

A

Conflicting political and economic philosophies

385
Q

What two catalysts fed the Cold War?

A
  1. Distrust between each side

2. Atomic bomb

386
Q

What was the end result of the Cold War?

A

The destruction of the Soviet Union

387
Q

What four countries occupied zones of Germany after WW2?

A

America, Britain, France, and Russia.

388
Q

What did the U.S., Britain, and France do to their zones of Germany?

A

Combined them into an independent German state on June 7, 1948.

389
Q

How did Stalin respond to the unification of German zones by the other countries?

A

He blockaded all road, rail, and river traffic into West Berlin for a year.

390
Q

What was the foreign policy known as “Containment?”

A

It stated that the U.S. would contain aggressive Soviet actions by applying counter force at strategic points. Implemented by the Truman Administration.

391
Q

What was the “Truman Doctrine?”

A

Economic aid will help protect nations from being sucked into communism.

392
Q

What was the Marshall Plan?

A

European recovery plan which became the basis for the U.S. containment policy. U.S. gave $13 billion to rebuild Europe.

393
Q

Who was the Secretary of State in 1947?

A

George C. Marshall

394
Q

After the revolution in 1911 in China, a Republic was formed. What happened next?

A

The Republic fell and was followed by a period of anarchy and rule by local warlords.

395
Q

What two groups rose to power following the fall of the Republic in China?

A
  1. Communists - led by Mao. They win.

2. Nationalist Party - led by Chiang Kai-shek.

396
Q

Why did Japan invade China?

A

To fight a common enemy

397
Q

What is the Domino Theory?

A

Theory proposed by Eisenhower that states that when one country falls to communism, neighboring countries follow.

398
Q

At the end of WW2, the Soviets occupied the North area of ______ and the US occupied the Area South.

A

38th Parallel

399
Q

How did the U.S. and UN respond to North Korea invading South Korea?

A

They joined the fight in the Korean War. The US pushed them back into North Korea until China stepped in. A “peace” came in 1953.

400
Q

What was Operation Overlord?

A

The Allied invasion of Normandy.

401
Q

What two beachheads did the U.S. get in Operation Overlord?

A

Utah and Omaha

402
Q

What two beachheads did Britain get in Operation Overlord?

A

Gold and Sword

403
Q

What beachhead did Canada get in Operation Overlord?

A

Juno

404
Q

What was Operation Fortitude?

A

The diversion operation to convince the Germans that the Allies would invade at Calais.

405
Q

What three things were established at the Yalta Conference?

A
  1. Russia would declare war on Japan 3 months following victory in Europe.
  2. Free elections would be held in all lands held by Germany.
  3. Germany would be divided into 4 zones of occupation.
406
Q

What was the Casablanca Conference?

A

Allies agreed that they would only accept unconditional surrender from Axis Powers. (Japan kept their emperor though).

407
Q

True or False: By the end of WW2, imperial powers are getting stronger.

A

False. For example, France was losing control of Indo-China.

408
Q

What did North Vietnam rename Saigon as?

A

Ho Chi Minh City, after the communist leader.