Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Spring:Abd > Study guide test 4 > Flashcards

Study guide test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary advantage of an US guided intervential procedure?

A

provides for continuous real time visualization of the biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the common indication for a biopsy?

A

confirm a malignancy in a mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some contraindications for biopsies?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What lab test is used to evaluate the effects of heparin antihistamines on the blood clotting process?

A

PTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

National safety patient standards mandate a time out be performed before beginning any procedure, why?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are post biopsy complications?

A

heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A higher percentage of positive cells is observed in what portion of a thyroid mass?

A

small calcifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the best way to recognize the tip of a needle with US?

A

tip appears as a hyperechoic area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which part of the kidney is typically biopsied in a renal transplant procedure?

A

upper pole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are advantages of using US guided procedures?

A

fixed angles when using needle guides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the limitations of US guided procedures?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

International normalized ratio (INR) was developed because of the variable results of what lab test?

A

PT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What needle gauge is used for FNA’s?

A

20-25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What biopsy uses an automatic spring loaded device?

A

core biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the role of cytopathology team?

A

minimize the number of core samples, ensure enough diagnostic tissue is obtained, increase the percentage of biopsies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The wait time after discontinuing the use of aspirin before a procedure:

A

5-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Preprocedural image should document the patient’s name and what?

A

time, date, and needle path

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most common organ biopsy?

A

liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the reason for doing a renal parenchymal biopsy?

A

proteinuria

20
Q

When we do a renal parenchymal biopsy, what part of the kidney are we biopsying?

A

lower pole

21
Q

What complication of a renal biopsy (specific to above)?

A

hematuria

22
Q

What is the position for a patient undergoing a thoracentesis?

A

sitting

23
Q

What do biopsies of the spleen carry an increased risk for?

A

hemorrhage

24
Q

What patient position is commonly used for a prostate biopsy?

A

left lateral decubitus

25
Q

Which laboratory test would indicate a liver lesion?

A

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)

26
Q

A bursa provides what function?

A

provides fluid protection to areas subject to friction

27
Q

If you see a baker’s cyst, what would that be an example of?

A

communicating bursa

28
Q

Infringement of the median nerve in the wrist results in what disorder?

A

carpal tunnel syndrome

29
Q

What tendon is responsible for dorsal and plantar flexion of the foot?

A

achilles tendon

30
Q

What type of tendonitis causes pain over the lateral wrist?

A

De Quervain tendonitis

31
Q

Complete tear of the muscle with straight forward appearance of a retracted hyperechoic muscle surrounded by a hematoma is called:

A

the clapper and the bell

32
Q

Support and strength of a joint resolve from what structure?

A

ligament

33
Q

Whencompared with muscle, a normal nerve is what type of sonographic appearance?

A

hyperechoic

34
Q

Artifacts in musculoskeletal US include what?

A

reverbation, shadowing, anistroph

(not mirror image)

35
Q

Achilles tendon is at an increased risk for injury because of why?

A

limited blood supply

36
Q

Indications for risked sonography include what?

A

swelling, foreign body, tinels sign

(not thompson sign)

37
Q

Acute rotator cuff tear may be caused by what?

A

bicep tendon rupture, fall, shoulder dislocation

(not yrs of playing tennis)

38
Q

Proximal portion of a muscle?

A

origin

39
Q

Tendonitis is seen more often in shoulder, wrist, and what other joint?

A

elbow

40
Q

What is the easiest tendon to image with sonography in the adult shoulder?

A

biceps

41
Q

What is the most common site for achilles tendon tear?

A

distal

42
Q

What is the largest tendon in the body?

A

achilles

43
Q

Patients with carpal tunnel syndrome, when they are experiencing pain, its called a certain sign?

A

tinels sign

44
Q

What is the sonographic normal appearance of muscles?

A

homogeneous

45
Q

What is the hypoechoic halo around a tendon called?

A

normal synovial sheath

Spring:Abd (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions