SkyWest E175 oral questions Flashcards

0
Q

Looking at a release, you notice you are flying with a new first officer. What are some restrictions for the first officer with less than 100 hours? You are not a check airman. (Refer to FOM Chp 3)

A

The PIC must make all takeoffs and landings in the following situations:

a) At Special PIC Qualification Airports designated by the administrator or at special airports designated by SkyWest; and
b) In any of the following conditions:
1) The prevailing visibility value in the latest weather report for the airport is at or below 3/4 mile.
2) RVR for the runway to be used is at or below 4000 feet.
3) The runway to be used has water, snow, slush, or similar conditions that may adversely affect airplane performance.
4) The braking action on the runway to be used is reported to be less than “good.”
5) The crosswind component for the runway to be used is in excess of 15 knots.
6) Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport.
7) Any other condition in which the PIC determines it to be prudent to exercise the PIC’s prerogative.
4) Crosswind Landings
a) The maximum limit for SIC to conduct crosswind landings is a 90º crosswind component of 20 kts.

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1
Q

Before showing for work, what are some required items a pilot is supposed to have with him? (Refer to FOM Chp 3)

A
Current Pilots License, 
medical, 
corrective lenses (if required), 
company ID, 
FCC license, 
flashlight, 
headset, 
Passport (if required). 

Aircraft contains the SOP, FOM and current Jeppesen charts.

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2
Q

What makes an airport a “special airport”?

A

Determined by the administrator for such items that may include surrounding terrain, obstacles, complex departures and arrivals procedures.
SOURCE: FOM 4-3

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3
Q

Looking at the weather forecast, do we need an alternate? When do we need a second alternate?

A

Alternate = 1-2-3 rule
Additional alternate when destination and first alt wx is marginal.

Marginal wx = defined as anytime the weather conditions at the destination and first alternate is at or forecast to be, at the estimated time of arrival, equal to the lowest authorized minima for that destination and alternate airport.

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4
Q

What emergency equipment is in the flight deck?

A

Emergency Equipment includes: PBE, Halon Fire Extinguisher, Crash Ax, 2 flashlights, 3 life Vest, Escape Ropes, o2.

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5
Q

When you turn the batteries on, what is the first thing you look for? (Battery voltage) What do you do if battery voltage is less than required?

A

Voltage of 22.5 volts or better

If voltage is between 21.0-22.5, charge the batteries referencing chart in SOPM

If voltage is below 21 volts call mx

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6
Q

Describe the electrical flight control PBIT

A

The electrical PBIT is initiated when AC power is established and takes 3 minutes to complete. Once completed it is valid for 50 hours and can this can be verified on the Flight Control Synoptic Page.

The electrical PBIT may be interrupted in the following ways three ways:
AC power interrupt, turning hydraulic pumps on, cycling the control switches.

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7
Q

What does the APU Emergency Stop button do?

A

When pushed in it closes the APU fuel shutoff valve, shutting down the APU without a one minute cooldown. Selection of this button will illuminate a white strip in the lower half of the APU EMER STOP button. In case of Fire the upper half of the button illuminates red.

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8
Q

For what conditions will the APU auto shutdown on the ground?

A

Underspeed, Fadec Critical Fault, Overspeed, Sensor fail, High oil Temp, EGT overtemp, Low oil press, Fire

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9
Q

What conditions trigger the green light?

A

Steering off (EICAS message)
No Toe Break Pressure
Parking Break off
External switch in proper position.

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10
Q

APU is inop and you have to perform a ground pneumatic start. Why do we have to start Engine #2 in this condition?

A

Ground crew will be positioned on the left side of the aircraft due to external air connection.

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11
Q

We push back after the start above and want to taxi out single engine on #2. What do we have to think about?

A

We have to turn on Hydraulic Pump number 2 to power hydraulic system 2. Hydraulic system 2 contains amongst other things Inboard Brakes and Nose Wheel Steering.

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12
Q

Normal single engine taxi is on which engine? Why?

A

Engine 1 due to Hyrdraulic system logic.

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13
Q

Do we have to reference the QRH for a cross bleed start?

A

No. SOPM 4-4.5 says so.

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14
Q

When do we perform a Cold Weather Inspection?

A

A Cold Weather Preflight Inspection must be performed during the external walkaround to determine the wings are free from frozen contaminants when:
• The OAT is 5°C or less, or
• The wing fuel temperature is 0°C or less, or
• Atmospheric conditions conducive to icing exist, or
• The aircraft has remained overnight and may have frozen contaminants due to exposure to frost or precipitation, which could involve the entire airframe, or
• On any through flight where residual ice from the inbound flight may have accumulated on airframe surfaces or components, or
• Cold soak ice is suspected in the fuel tank area.

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15
Q

When do we select ENG anti ice for taxi/takeoff?

A

Anti-ice must be set to ENG in the following cases when OAT is between 5C and 10C:

1) If there is any possibility of encountering visible moisture up to 1700 feet AFE.
2) When operating on ramps, taxiways or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water or slush may be ingested by the engines, or freeze on engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes.

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16
Q

When do we select A/I ALL for takeoff?

A

The TO DATASET MENU on the MCDU must be set to ALL in the following cases when OAT is below 5C and:

1) If there is any possibility of encountering visible moisture up to 1700 feet.
2) When operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush may be ingested by the engines, or freeze on engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes.

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17
Q

If wing anti ice is selected for takeoff, when will it turn on?

A

40kts wheel speed

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18
Q

If engine anti ice is selected for takeoff, when will it turn on?

A

When the associated engine is started.

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19
Q

If no anti ice is selected for takeoff, at what point will it auto activate?

A

The anti-ice valves will be inhibited closed until the end of takeoff phase, considered in the logic as 1700 ft AGL or 2 min after liftoff. After that, the engine and wing anti-ice valves will open if ice is detected.

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20
Q

When lined up for takeoff, auto throttles armed, what does the FMA look like? What is displayed?

A

Autothrottles (AT in white), ROLL (green) and TO (green) Cross bars are displayed.

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21
Q

When does ATTCS turn green?

A

ATTCS turns green once activated which is when the throttles TO/GA set position.

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22
Q

Describe “HOLD” mode

A

it deactivates the autothrottle servos between 60 kts and 400’. this is to “lock” in the takeoff thrust setting and also to prevent the autothottles from increasing thrust during a rejected takeoff

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23
Q

If you lose an engine after V1, what happens regarding ATTCS? Does it remain or go away? What is displayed above the N1 gauges?

A

Green ATTCS is replaced by cyan “RSV”
RSV is commanded during the following situations:
– Difference between both engine N1 values is greater than 15%;
– One engine failure during takeoff;
– One engine failure during go-around;
– Windshear detection.
The RSV mode is manually by moving the thrust levers to MAX position whenever the ATTCS is engaged.

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24
Q

What is the recommended climb out speeds?

A

Below 10,000 ft 250 kt
Normal 290 to M .74
Above 10,000 ft Long Range LRC to M .74
High Speed 310 to M .77

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25
Q

You’re cruising at FL350 and experience an engine fire with loss of thrust. Describe what you would do (e.g. drift down procedures)

A

Allow AT to advance thrust levers to TO/GA detent. Verify thrust levers are in TO/GA, disconnect AT and verify “CON”, adjust altitude selector to appropriate altitude, in accordance with route analysis, and set driftdown speed. When reaching the driftdown speed, select FLCH, perform applicable checklist, notify ATC, and monitor descent.

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26
Q

For drift down procedures, be able to describe what is displayed above the N1 gauges, what is happening with auto throttles, why we are supposed to disconnect them, what we are changing on the guidance panel, why we are changing it and what is displayed on the FMA.

A

CON is displayed above the N1 gauges. Disconnect autothrottles to allow one to be max (con) and the other at idle, this provides max thrust to decrease the rate of descent. We select flight level change to allow for Speed on elevator.

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27
Q

During cruise, you experience a forward cargo fire. Describe system logic with the cargo switches and bottles.

A

If the Cargo Fire Detection/Protection button is lit one push in flight will discharge the high-rate bottle and 1 minute later the low-rate bottle. If the button is not lit it will require two pushes.

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28
Q

The flight attendant reports smoke coming up from the floor of the cabin. What would you do?

A

Smoke EVAC QRC then QRH.

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29
Q

When pressing the DUMP button, what happens when pressurization is auto?

A

Packs and recirc fans turn off 
outflow valve climbs the cabin to 12,400’ at 2000fpm 
at 12,400 the outflow valve closes and the cabin rises by natural leak

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30
Q

When pressing the DUMP button, what happens when pressurization is manual?

A

Turns off the packs and recirculation fans however in manual mode it does not open the outflow valves.

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31
Q

When do we have to adjust approach speeds for icing conditions?

A

When an approach is flown with STALL PROT ICE SPEED annunciated on EICAS, VREF must be adjusted per the QRH or ACARS landing data.

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32
Q

Describe the switch logic of the AC external power switch in the flight deck?

A

Onside IDG, inside APU, outside GPU, x-side IDG

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33
Q

Describe the Hydraulic PBIT.

A

It is performed when all 3 hydraulic systems are first pressurized. It takes 1 minute to complete and it is good for 50 hours

It can be interrupted by moving a flight control

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34
Q

How long does the evacuation slide light battery last?

A

10 minutes

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35
Q

In an electrical emergency do the flaps still work?

A

Yes, at a slower speed, and they will only go to a max of 3 in order to provide adequate airspeed for the RAT

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36
Q

What are the 4 things you get back when the RAT powers the AC ESS BUS?

A

AC fuel pump 2 
ACMP hyd pump 3A 
1 channel of slats 
1 channel of flaps

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37
Q

How do you get a green light on the nose gear?

A

Parking brake off and main brakes not applied 
steering switch in ext power panel must be in disengaged– 
This will also disengage the steering inside (steer off)

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38
Q

Which engine do we normally single engine taxi on and why?

A

1, because system logic will turn on the #2 hyd pump with only the #1 engine running, whenever the parking brake is released, and the pump knob is in auto. this will give us pressure to the INBD brakes which are on sys 2.

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39
Q

Can we single engine taxi on the #2 engine?

A

YES, by following a QRH procedure which will have us turn on the #1 hydraulic pump to provide pressure to the outboard brakes

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40
Q

What is SkyWest min speeds in icing conditions?

A

maximum endurance speed or 210kts whichever is higher

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41
Q

You see a “Wing A/I Valve open msg after T/O, why might that be?

A

It is a normal test upon reaching 10,000’ agl or 10 minutes after takeoff. It will run for 1 minute or until all slat temp sensors increase by 10 degrees C

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42
Q

How do you know that ATTCS worked?

A

The green ATTCS will disappear and the cyan thrust mode will be displayed with a RSV indication

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43
Q

What is Track mode?

A

Track mode is used to intercept and maintain an inertial derived airplane track from the IRS during Takeoff and Go around

It activates at 100kt and with bank less than 3 degrees on takeoff

on a go around it activates when Toga button is pushed

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44
Q

What system powers the nose wheel steering?

A

HYD 2

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45
Q

What happens when you push and illuminated cargo fire switch in flight?

A

The high rate bottle will discharge followed by the low rate bottle 1 minute later unless you push it earlier

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46
Q

Can you discharge the cargo bottles in flight without a fire msg?

A

Yes, push the button once to arm it, a second time to blow the bottles according to logic.

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47
Q

Can you discharge the cargo bottles on the ground without a fire msg?

A

Yes, push the button once to arm it, a second time to blow the high rate bottle and a 3rd time to blow the low rate bottle.

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48
Q

How do you calculate Vap speed?

A

Non-ice conditions 
Vref +5 min or take 1/2 steady state headwinds plus the full gust factor up to max of Vref + 20

ex. landing rwy 36 
Vref is 130 
winds are 360@10 gusting to 20 
Vap would be 145kts

icing conditions 
Vap would be min of Vref new +0 up to Vref new +20

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49
Q

How many batteries for the emergency lights 
how long will they last?

A

4 batteries, 10 minutes

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50
Q

Can you put out an engine fire with the airplane depowered?

A

Yes, the fire bottles are located on the hot battery buses

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51
Q

What type of engines do we have?

A

GE CF34-8E

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52
Q

What is max rated thrust of engine?

A

14,200

53
Q

Which areas of plane have fire protection?

A

LAV 
APU 
CARGO COMPS 
ENGINES

54
Q

What happens when you pull the fire handle?

A

Closes the 
fuel shutoff valve 
hyd shutoff valve 
bleed shutoff valve 
and bleed air crossbleed valve closes

55
Q

How many loops in Apu and Engines?

A

2

56
Q

Why is it important for the AC stby bus to be powered and how is it powered with no AC power?

A

It has the A ignitors on it, and is powered by DC ESS 1 through the static inverter.

57
Q

How long does it take the RAT to deploy and what powers plane during this time?

A

8 seconds, batteries during this 8 secs

58
Q

How long will batteries last if they are the only source in flight?

A

10 minutes

59
Q

Where is the O2 blow out disc?

A

just forward of the fwd cargo pit

60
Q

You find a 3” puddle of oil in the engine exhaust, what do you do?

A

Nothing up to 4” is considered within normal limits

61
Q

Will nav lights switch automatically if one burns out?

A

no, there is a switch in the cockpit and it is a mx function

62
Q

How many static dischargers on wing?

A

6 on winglet 3 on aileron

63
Q

How many static dischargers on tail?

A

4 on rudder 
4 on elevator 
1 on vert stab

64
Q

What is the most important thing we lose in direct mode?

A

AOA limiter, we can now stall the plane

65
Q

How many fuel pumps in right wing?

A

6 
main ejector 
DC pump 
AC pump 
3 scavenge pumps

66
Q

How many fuel pumps in left wing?

A

5 
main ejector 
ac pump 
3 scavenge pumps

67
Q

Does Fadec provide Start Protection?

A

Yes for 
Hot 
Hung and 
No lightoff starts

68
Q

How do you dry motor the engine?

A

Turn off the igniters.

69
Q

What is Stab trim priority?

A

Backup 
Captain 
FO 
Autopilot

70
Q

What kind of Brakes do we have and why?

A

Carbon, They are much lighter and wear much less at high temps 
i.e. use higher force and less frequent application 
don’t drag brakes

71
Q

How many brake applications with the emergency parking brake?

A

6

72
Q

How long will ice pro remain on after ice is detected?

A

5 mins.

73
Q

On ground, with only the Apu on will your windshield be heated?

A

No, only for 120 seconds during the elec pbit test

Both are heated when you have 2 AC sources

74
Q

Is the DV window heated?

A

No

75
Q

In flight with only one AC source will your window work what about the FO’s?

A

Yes, the FO’s will only work if the captains fails

76
Q

When will autothrottle engage on takeoff?

A

50 degrees TLA

77
Q

What will the bank button do?

A

Limits bank to 17 degrees, but only in heading mode

78
Q

How do you track a VOR radial in green needles?

A

You can’t.

79
Q

Why do you turn the fuel xfeed switch to low 1 on the dual engine failure?

A

To turn on the DC fuel pump.

80
Q

What does the APU emergency stop button do?

A

Closes the fuel shutoff valve to apu, no cooling down period.

81
Q

Why is Batt 2 an auto switch?

A

Automatically isolates APU start bus during APU start, and is a locked backup for all 3 DC ESS busses when BATT 1 fails.

82
Q

What do you have left in Elec emergency?

A

Screens 2 and 3 
CA DRP, 
compass light 
IESS 
Clock 
MCDU 2 
CA’s CCD 
Both ACP’s but only Comm 1/ Nav 1

83
Q

How do you know if you are within the engine airstart envelope?

A

WML icon next to N1

84
Q

What happens if you hold the fired detection button for 10 seconds?

A

Shuts down APU

85
Q

When does ACMP 3B turn on?

A

When ACMP 3A fails

86
Q

When will cabin mask drop automatically?

A

Cabin alt 14,000-14,750

87
Q

How long will pax o2 last once activated?

A

12 minutes

88
Q

What is best climb rate?

A

Vfs +50 to clear wx

89
Q

What is best climb angle?

A

Vfs to clear obstacles

90
Q

Why should you only shutdown an engine while taxiing straight ahead?

A

To avoid interruptions the steering when sys 2 is momentarily depowered

91
Q

How much fuel in collector tanks?

A

660 lbs

92
Q

Why do we fly 150kts min with the RAT out?

A

to provide a buffer over the 130 kt limit (150kt closes connector upon deployment)

93
Q

Where do you have windshear guidance?

A

10-1500agl

94
Q

What is the lowest height you can keep the autopilot engaged?

A

50’

95
Q

The published RA for a Cat 2 approach is 75’, what number will set as your DH?

A

80’ is the lowest we set

96
Q

What flap setting do we use for Cat 2’ s?

A

Flap 5 is mandatory

97
Q

When do you need to do a radar alt test?

A

If only one is avail, you must test it

98
Q

How do you set Vref for a Cat 2 Approach?

A

You will use the Vref Cat 1 with ice accretion regardless if you have ice or not

99
Q

What should show at the top of your FMA during a Cat 2 approach?

A

A Green APPR 2

100
Q

What is the lowest rvr we can land with?

A

TDZ 1200’ (REQ AND CONTROLLING) 
MID 600’ (IF AVAIL IS CONTOLLING) 
ROLLOUT 300’ (REQ AND CONTOLLING FOR OPS

101
Q

What are the required approach lights for cat 2?

A

ALSF-1 OR 2 ONLY 
sequenced flashing lights may be inop

102
Q

What is the lowest RVR you can use if only the TDZ is avail?

A

1600’

103
Q

What is max X-wind for a Cat 2?

A

15 kts

104
Q

Can you LAHSO

a) on a wet runway without vert or visual guidance
b) with windshear in last 20 mins
c) with a tail wind

A

No, no, no

105
Q

What are the LAHSO wx mins?

A

ceiling no less than 1500’ 
no less than 5 miles visibility

1000’ and 3 miles with a PAPI or VASI

106
Q

What is the lowest Cat 1 mins?

A

1800’ RVR, must use flight director, 
15 kt xwind NO LONGER APPLIES

107
Q

Can you land at 1800’ RVR without TDZ lights?

A

Yes, by using the flight director

108
Q

When can you descend below DA, MDA?

A

Normal position to land and at least one of the following 
Runway, runway markings, or runway lights 
approach light system 
threshold, threshold markings, threshold lights 
TDZ, TDZ markings, lights 
VASI, PAPI 
REIL

109
Q

High mins Captain, What must you add to your mins?

A

Must add 100’ and 1/2 mile to your mins 
lowest mins would be 1 mile and 300’ for standard Cat 1
RVR conversion
MINS Baby Cpt Mins 
1800 4500 
2400 5000

110
Q

Dest vis is below 3/4 or 4000 rvr what must you factor?

A

Runway length must be 115% or required landing distance

111
Q

Alt airport mins for airports with one suitable approach?

A

Add 400’ to MDA or DA add 1 mi to vis min

112
Q

Alt airport mins for airports with 2 suitable approaches

A

Add 200’ to the HIGHER MDA or DA and add 1/2 m to the HIGHER min

113
Q

How many RVR’s must operating to takeoff below 1600?

A

2

114
Q

Takeoff 1/4 mile or 1600rvr 
what do you need? One of the following 


A

HIRL 
CL lights 
RCLM 
or adequate visual ref

115
Q

Takeoff 
1200, 1200, 1000 
what do you need?

A

Daylight- RCLM or HIRL or CL lights 
Nighttime– HIRL or CL lights

116
Q

Takeoff 
1000,1000,1000 
what do you need?

A

CL lights or HIRL and RCLM

117
Q

Takeoff 
600, 600, 600 
what do you need?

A

HIRL AND 
CL lights

118
Q

What is the ACTUATOR CONTROL ELECTRONICS (ACE)

A

The ACE units connect the control column electronically to the respective control surface, providing direct analog control of the surface.

119
Q

What is the FLIGHT CONTROL MODULES (FCMs)

A

The FCMs provide software-based assistance to the P-ACE and is required for normal-mode operation of the flight controls system.

120
Q

What high level functions are provided by the FCM.

A

NORMAL MODE: The Flight Control Module (FCM) provides software based airspeed gain schedules and control limits to the P-ACE, as well as high level functions such as:
– Elevator control laws scheduling with airspeed.
– Auto-thrust compensation with elevator.
– Angle-of-Attack (AOA) limiting with elevator offset.
– Rudder airspeed gain scheduling and stroke limiting.
– Yaw damper and turn coordination via AFCS.
– Rudder flight authority.
– Roll spoiler scheduling with airspeed and speedbrake deployment.
– Configuration change compensation with horizontal stabilizer due to speed brakes actuation

121
Q

What is direct mode of FCM?

A

DIRECT MODE: The FCM is removed from the control loop (for instance, due to loss of airspeed data) and the control limits default to values set by hardware in the P-ACE.
– Direct mode of operation is primarily the result of loss of data from all FCM (no airspeed input) or; multiple ACE failures.
– Operation is defaulted to fixed control laws configuration.
– Control input provided by Captain and First Officer’s sensors is sent directly to the surface.

122
Q

What does the ELECTRICAL POWER UP BUILT IN TEST test?

A

The Electrical PBIT provides detection of out-of-tolerance conditions and failures in the FCMs, P-ACEs and SF-ACEs.

123
Q

What does the HYDRAULIC POWER UP BUILT IN TEST test?

A

The Hydraulic PBIT provides functional test of the flight control actuators.

124
Q

TO-1/2 appears when?

A

you select it in the MCDU.

125
Q

CLB-1/2 appears when:

A
  • Landing gear retracted
  • Airplane is above 400 AGL
  • Any change in vertical mode
126
Q

CRZ appears when:

A
  • Airplane is level at the preselected altitude for 90 seconds and,
  • The airspeed is within 5 kts (or .01 Mach) from preselected airspeed.
127
Q

CON appears:

A

Automatically if engine fails at or above 3,000 AGL Manually selected in the MCDU TRS menu

128
Q

GA appears when:

A
  • Flaps are > 0 and Gear down, or,
  • From CRZ, CON, or CLB, if TOGA is pressed
  • If levers are advanced to TOGA position, GA thrust will be achieved although “GA” EICAS annunciation doesn’t appear.
129
Q

LOCKED WHEEL PROTECTION when?

A

Locked wheel protection is active anytime on ground and at wheel speeds above 30 kt.

130
Q

ANTISKID PROTECTION when?

A

Above 10 kts

131
Q

TOUCHDOWN PROTECTION when?

A

Touchdown protection prevents the airplane from touching down with the main landing gear brakes applied.
It is deactivated:
• Three seconds after WOW has sensed the ground; or
• When wheel speed is above 50 kt.