SKW Erj-175 class study cards Flashcards

Erj 175 study cards for PC/limitations

0
Q

Flight deck emergency equipment: doorway

A

PBE, Halon fire extinguisher, Crash axe.

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1
Q

EJR engines

A

GE CF-34-8E

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2
Q

Igniters for ground

A

Channel/pair 1

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3
Q

Igniters for air start

A

Channel/pair 2

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4
Q

Igniters on OVRD

A

Fires both 1 & 2

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5
Q

Flight deck emergency equipment: captain side

A

Flashlight, life vest, jumpseat life vest, escape rope, Oxygen mask.

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6
Q

Flightdeck emergency equipment: FO’s side

A

Flashlight, life vest, escape rope, oxygen mask, landing gear and RAT safety pins.

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7
Q

Flight deck emergency equipment: observers seat

A

Observer seat, observer O2, observer headset.

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8
Q

Required flight deck items

A

AFM, QRH, gear pens, spare bulb kit, Jumpseat headset, current Jeppesen Airside kit, registration certificate, airworthiness certificate, FMS/EGPWS handbook

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9
Q

Required items in A/C maintenance can

A

M-74, security log, DMI placards, aircraft flight log, aircraft maintenance log, DMI log.

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10
Q

Flight deck non-required documents

A

Deice checklist, QRC, aircraft checklist, balance charts, jumpseat briefing card

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11
Q

Areas of fire protection

A
  • Engine fire protection
  • APU fire protection
  • Cargo compartment fire protection
  • Lavatory fire protection
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12
Q

What happens when the fire handle is pulled?

A

Closes:

  • Fuel shutoff valve
  • Hydraulic shutoff valve
  • Bleed air shutoff valve
  • Bleed air X-bleed valve
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13
Q

APU fire protection

A

Comprised of two detector loops

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14
Q

APU fire extinguishing system comprised of:

A
  • One pushbutton

- One fire extinguisher bottle

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15
Q

Cargo fire protection: forward and aft

A
  • Fwd cargo compartment-3 smoke detectors

- Aft cargo compartment-2 smoke detectors

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16
Q

Cargo fire extinguishing system comprised of:

A
  • One high-rate bottle, 1 min. later…
  • One low-rate bottle (75min., good for 60 min. diversion time)

Both installed in center avionics bay

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17
Q

Flight attendant light panel (rainbow lights)

A
  • Sterile = Yellow
  • Pilot = Green
  • Emergency = Red
  • Pax = Blue
  • Toilet = Orange
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18
Q

Lavatory smoke detection consists of:

A

One smoke sensor installed on each LAV ceiling

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19
Q

Lavatory fire protection system consists of:

A

One fire extinguisher bottle on each waste container

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20
Q

Number of static wicks on the tail

A
  • 4 on the rudder
  • 4 on each elevator (8 total)
  • 1 on the vertical stabilizer
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21
Q

How many static wicks per wing

A
  • 3 static wicks on the aileron

- 6 on the wing tip

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22
Q

Minimum fuel

A

2,250 lbs.

This provides 45 min. of fuel based on 1500’ AFE/Green Dot/Clean.

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23
Q

Emergency Fuel

A

1,500 lbs.

This provides 30 min. of fuel based on 1500’ AFE/Green Dot/Clean.

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24
Q

Single Engine Speeds manual vs. FMS speeds

A

FMS speeds are prohibited, must use manual.

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25
Q

Climb speed schedule above 10,000’ - Normal

A

290 kts. to M.74

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26
Q

Climb speed schedule above 10,000’ - Long Range

A

LRC - M.74

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27
Q

Climb speed schedule above 10,000’ - High Speed

A

310 kts. to M.77

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28
Q

Altitude the speed reference changes from IAS to Mach #

A

~29,000’

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29
Q

Max angle of climb speed

A

Vfs

Use for obstacle considerations

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30
Q

Max rate of climb speed

A

Vfs + 50kts.

Use for WX considerations

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31
Q

Stall Recovery

A
  1. Disengage A/P & A/T
  2. Max thrust
  3. Lower nose (reduce AOA)
  4. Level wings
  5. Retract speed brakes.
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32
Q

Engine failure speed below V2

A

Pitch for V2

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33
Q

Engine failure speed between V2 and V2 + 10kts

A

Pitch for present speed

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34
Q

Engine failure speed above V2 + 10kts

A

Pitch for V2 + 10kts

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35
Q

Engine failure bank angles V2, V2+5kts, V2+10kts.

A

15• at V2
20• at V2+5kts
25• at V2+10kts

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36
Q

RVSM - components required

A
  • Transponder(s)
  • Either primary altimeter system
  • Altitude alerting and capture capability
  • Autopilot

Note- TCAS not required!

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37
Q

Max Holding speeds

A
S/L - 6000'
(200 kts)
6001'-14,000'
(230 kts)
14,001'-Above
(265 kts)
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38
Q

SKW holding speeds

A

Minimum green dot. In icing conditions max endurance speed or 210 kts whichever is higher.

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39
Q

Drift down speed

A

Green dot

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40
Q

Max Ramp Wt.

A

85,870

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41
Q

Max T.O. Wt.

A

85,517

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42
Q

Max Landing Wt.

A

74,957

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43
Q

Max Zero Fuel Wt.

A

69,886

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44
Q

Max Fwd Cargo

A

3306

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45
Q

Max Aft Cargo

A

2535

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46
Q

Min. Runway Width

A

100’

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47
Q

Wing Span

A

93’11”

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48
Q

Aircraft Length

A

103’11”

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49
Q

Tail Height

A

32’4”

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50
Q

Main Landing Gear Distance Between

A

17’1”

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51
Q

Landing Gear Distance Between Nose and Mains

A

37’5”

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52
Q

Max Ops. Altitude

A

41,000’

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53
Q

Max T.O. And Landing Altitude

A

8,000’

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54
Q

Max Temp. T.O. And Landing

A

ISA + 35•C

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55
Q

Min. Temp. T.O. And Landing

A

-40•C

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56
Q

RWY Slope

A

+/- 2%

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57
Q

Max. Tailwind

A

15 kts

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58
Q

Max Single Pack Operations

A

31,000’

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59
Q

Vmo Sea Level - 8,000’

A

300 Kts

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60
Q

Vmo 10,000-Mach Transition

A

320

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61
Q

Mmo

A

.82

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62
Q

Va

A

240 Kts

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63
Q

Vlo Ext

A

250 Kts

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64
Q

Vle Ret

A

250 Kts

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65
Q

Vle

A

250 Kts

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66
Q

Vtire

A

195 Kts

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67
Q

Vrat Deploy Max

A

Vmo/Mmo

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68
Q

Vmin (to provide electrical power)

A

130 Kts

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69
Q

Vb (below 10,000’)

A

250 Kts

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70
Q

Vb (10,000’and above)

A

270/.76 (whichever is slower)

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71
Q

Vwiper ops max (SKW)

A

250 Kts

72
Q

Vwindow

A

160 Kts

73
Q

Vfe 1

A

230 Kts

74
Q

Vfe 2

A

215 Kts

75
Q

Vfe 3

A

200 Kts

76
Q

Vfe 4

A

180 Kts

77
Q

Vfe 5

A

180 Kts

78
Q

Vfe Full

A

165 Kts

79
Q

Max Crosswind - Dry

A

38 Kts

80
Q

Max Crosswind - Wet

A

31 Kts

81
Q

Max Crosswind - Compacted Snow

A

20 Kts

82
Q

Max Crosswind - Standing Water/Slush/Wet Snow/Dry Snow

A

18 Kts

83
Q

Max Crosswind - Ice

A

12 Kts

84
Q

Static T.O. Not recommended with crosswind grater than __

A

30 Kts

85
Q

Max Altitude Flaps/Slats Extended

A

20,000’

86
Q

Slats/Flaps Enroute Ops.

A

Prohibited

87
Q

Minimum Spoiler Speed

A

180 Kts

88
Q

Slats/Flaps Cat II Approach

A

Mandatory Flaps 5

89
Q

Landing Flaps Full, Go-Around __

A

Flaps 4

90
Q

Landing Flaps 5, Go-Around __

A

Flaps 2

91
Q

Batteries Min. Voltage

Call maintenance at __

A

22.5 Volts

<21.0 volts

92
Q

Max Engine Start Temp

A

815•C

93
Q

Min. Oil Temp for Start

A

-40•C

94
Q

Min. Oil Pressure for Start

A

25 PSI

95
Q

Starter Cranking Limits (Ground)

A

Start # 1 & 2: 90 seconds on, 10 seconds off.

Start # 3-5: 90 seconds on, 5 minutes off.

96
Q

Starter Cranking Limits (In Flight)

A

Start # 1 & 2: 120 seconds on, 10 seconds off.

Start # 3-5: 120 seconds on, 5 minutes off.

97
Q

Dry motoring cycle limits

A

Motoring #1: 90 seconds on, 5 minutes off.
Motoring # 2-5: 30 seconds on, five minutes off.

*After five motoring attempts a 15 minute cool down period is required.

98
Q

Ground starts with a tailwind

A

Monitor N1 indication, if no positive indication of N1 before starter cut out at 50% N2, start must be manually aborted.

99
Q

ATTCS

A

Take off with automatic thrust control system off, is not authorized

100
Q

Fuel: Max capacity

A

20,935 lbs.

101
Q

Fuel: Max imbalance

A

794 lbs. indication at 800 lbs.

102
Q

Fuel: Minimum fuel tank temperature

A

-40°C

103
Q

Fuel crossfeed operations

A

Fuel crossfeed must be off during takeoff and landing

104
Q

APU: limits/restrictions

A

Wait 30 seconds after EICAS is energized to start.

Do not leave the aircraft unattended for more than five minutes with APU running.

APU bleed air and high pressure cart air is prohibited at the same time.

105
Q

APU start attempts

A

1 & 2: 60 seconds off

106
Q

APU Start Temps OAT (min/max)

A

Min: -54°C
Max: ISA +35°C

107
Q

APU Max altitude for use

A

33,000’

108
Q

APU Max altitude for generator use

A

33,000’

109
Q

APU Max altitude bleed use

A

15,000’

110
Q

APU Max altitude for engine start

A

21,000’

111
Q

Max Pressurization Differential: up to 37,000’

A

7.8 psi

112
Q

Max pressurization differential: above 37,000’

A

8.34 psi

113
Q

Max pressurization differential overpressure

A

8.77 psi

114
Q

Max pressurization differential negitive pressure

A

-0.5 psi

115
Q

Max differential pressure take off and land

A

0.2 psi

116
Q

Hydraulic reservoir temperature for engine start, min.

A

-18°C

117
Q

Brake temperature

A

Must be in the green for takeoff

118
Q

Thrust Reversers (all limits)

A

Do not attempt a go-around after deployment.

Do not move thrust levers into forward thrust range until REV icon is shown in amber or green.

Thrust reversers during taxi are prohibited.

Thrust reversers for power back are prohibited.

119
Q

Anti-ice system automatic operation temperature limit

A

No temperature limitation exists

120
Q

Anti-ice ENG on when ___

A

OAT is between 5°C and 10°C and:

Any possibility of encountering visible moisture up to 1700’ AFE.

When operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush maybe ingested by the engines, or freeze on Engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes.

121
Q

Anti-ice ALL on must be selected when ____

A

OAT is below 5°C and:

Any possibility of encountering visible moisture up to 1700’ AFE.

When operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush maybe ingested by the engines, or freeze on Engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes.

122
Q

Anti-ice in flight

A

System is automatic unless one or both ice detectors are failed, then crew must select anti-ice on when in icing conditions.

123
Q

Autopilot minimum engagement height

A

400’

124
Q

Auto pilot minimum height use

A

50’

125
Q

Autopilot minimum height use - Non-Percision approach

A

MDA

126
Q

FMS limitations - approaches

A

RNP instrument approaches are not authorized

127
Q

FMS limitations - single engine

A

FMS speed mode is prohibited single engine, manual speeds must be used

128
Q

Instruments - TAT, SAT, TAS only valid above __

A

60 Kts

129
Q

Navigation equipment - standby magnetic compass

A

While transmitting in VHF 1, the standby magnetic compass is not valid

130
Q

Cat 1 approach limitation

A

Barometric altimeter minimums must be used

131
Q

Back course approach limitation

A

Back course approaches using IESS are prohibited

132
Q

Enhanced ground proximity warning system (EGPWS) limitations

A

Navigation is not to be predicated on the use of the terrain awareness system.

Landing at an airport that is not in the database, EGPWS functions should be inhibited.

Use of EGTWS functions must be inhibited when GPS data is unavailable or inoperative. Press the ground proximity terrain inhibit button to inhibit predictive EGPWS functions.

133
Q

WANT briefing

A
  • Weather
  • Airport
  • Notams
  • Threats
134
Q

Use of flight director

A

The flight director is used and updated at all times. When the flight director is not synchronized with the actual aircraft maneuver it must be updated or turned off.

Turning off flight director will not turn off autopilot.

135
Q

Autopilot must be used above __

A

20,000’

136
Q

Autothrottle use

A

Preferable to override the Autothrottles than turn them off

137
Q

IESS initialization

A

The aircraft must not be moved until IESS is initialized, usually within 90 seconds after power up

138
Q

Fire extinguishing panel check

A

Check FFOD and when swapping with pwd a/c.

-Wait 30 sec. after pwr turned on before running test.

Hold The test button and observe:

-8 lights (eng 1 fire handle, eng 2 fire handle, cargo smoke fwd button, cargo smoke aft button, APU button, upper half of APU emerg stop button, both warning lights on
glareshield)

  • 7 messeges (cargo Fwd smoke, cargo Aft smoke, APU Fire, ENG 1 Fire, Eng 2 Fire, Fire on both ITT’s)
  • 1 Aural warning
139
Q

Electrical PBIT

A

Takes three minutes after electrical power up.

Interrupted by….

any hydraulic pump turned on.

flight control mode panel switches cycled.

A/C power supply interrupted.

–Three minutes, three things–

140
Q

Hydraulic PBIT

A

All three hydraulic systems must be pressurized for at least 1 minute and reservoir temperature greater than 10°C.

Interrupted by moving any flight control surface

–One minute, one thing–

141
Q

Hydraulic System Warm-Up. Must be done when reservoir temperatures are below -18°C

A
  1. Hydraulic electric pump system #1, 3A. Turn ON
  2. PTU. Turn ON
  3. Wait 30 seconds
  4. PTU. Turn to AUTO
  5. Hydraulic electric pump system #2. Turn ON
  6. Verify all reservoir temperatures warmer than -18°C.
  7. Hydraulic Electric pump system 1 & 2. Turn to AUTO
  8. Hydraulic electric pump system 3A. Turn OFF
142
Q

Air data smart probe heater

A

Must be turned on during the first flight of the day with temperatures below -18°C, or when Smart probes are frozen.

Turn off during after start checklist.

143
Q

Ram air fault nuisance message

A

If ram air fault message remains for more than one minute after power up:

  • Pack one and pack two: push out
  • Wait five seconds
  • Pack one and pack two: push in
144
Q

Walk Around: Turbine exhaust area

A

After engine shutdown, the scavenge system is no longer a effective. A small amount of oil may leak through the oil sump drain and pool in the engine Chevron nozzle. Oil puddle must not exceed 4 inches.

145
Q

Walk Around: Brake Wear Indicators

A

Parking brake must be selected on and sufficient hydraulic pressure.

146
Q

Frost layer permitted underneath wing surfaces

A

Up to 1/8 of an inch, 3 mm, is allowed

147
Q

Crew oxygen levels

A
Green = 3 Crewmembers
Cyan = 2 Crewmembers
Amber = no dispatch
148
Q

Before start checklist to the line can be read___

A

Once fuel is on board, ATC clearance has been received, EFB has been setup.

149
Q

Before start check list below the line can be read___

A

Once ready to taxi signal has been received from the flight attendants and cockpit door has been closed and locked

150
Q

Autobrakes during pushback

A

When pushback speed is higher than 5 Kts and either hydraulic system one or two is not pressurized, the autobrake automatically disarms until wheel speed is reduced to less than 5 Kts, or both the hydraulic systems are pressurized.

151
Q

Engine warm up for takeoff or shut down

A

Minimum of two minutes

152
Q

Engine start actions

A

At 7% N2 ignition, at 20% N2 fuel flow, positive oil pressure, ignition out at 50% N2.

N1 target value on EICAS must be equal or greater than but not lower than 0.5% of the computed calculation value.

153
Q

IDG’s during cold weather operations

A

May take five minutes for IDG’s to stabilize

154
Q

Oil pressure during cold weather operations

A

Oil pressure may remain below minimum levels for two minutes, then engine must be shut down and oil heated to at least -20°C

155
Q

IDG faults

A

IDG 1/2 OIL displayed on EICAS and amber LED illuminates on overhead panel when either:

IDG oil pressure drops below 140 psi plus or -25 PSI,

or the IDG oil temperature reaches 335°F plus or -10°F

Automatic disconnection is achieved at 366°F IDG oil temperature, or by manually selecting IDG disconnect position for one second.

156
Q

IDG and APU generator ratings

A

40 kVA, 115 VAC, 400 Hz, three-phase

157
Q

Ram air turbine RAT rating

A

15 kVA, 115 VAC, 400 Hz, three-phase

Deploys whenever AC power sources are not powering easy buses. After eight seconds it supplies power to the AC essential bus. During the eight second period batteries are used as backups to power the DC essential buses and standby AC bus.

RAT’s electrical power drives the AC motor driven pump 3A.

Minimum of 130 Kts maximum of VMO/MMO

150 Kts need to “latch”

No altitude restriction

158
Q

TRU’s (transformer rectifier units)

A

Three on the aircraft rated at 300A.

TRU 1 , TRU 2, TRU essential.

They convert 115 VAC power from the AC buses into 28 VDC power

If one fails, the buses will automatically be powered by the remaining TRU’s

159
Q

Aircraft batteries

A

22.8 VDC, 27 amp

Batteries are charged by any AC source through the TRU’s

During an electrical emergency, batteries supply essential loads for 10 minutes

Battery over temp is triggered if battery temperature reaches 70°C for at least two seconds

Minimum temperature for APU start on battery 2 is -20°C

160
Q

DC GPU

A

Used during the APU starting cycle if battery number two is below -20° C or is not available.

Suitable DC GPU should be at least 24 VDC and no more than 32 VDC, can be checked on the synoptic page

161
Q

SPDA’S (secondary power distribution assemblies)

A

An electrical load management unit which receives power from the ICC AC/DC electrical buses and distributes it to the aircraft systems.

Two in each plane, number one is in the forward electronics bay and number two is in the center electronics bay. Incorporate electronic circuit breakers to protect load distribution

162
Q

ICC (integrated control center)

A

Provides power distribution and protection for the airplane’s electrical loads, the SPDA’s and the circuit breakers.

There are 4 ICCs:

  • Left integrated control center
  • Right integrated control center
  • emergency integrated control Center
  • Auxiliary integrated control center

Installed in the electronics Bay, they incorporate thermal circuit breakers, LRU’s, LRM’s and AC/DC electrical buses.

163
Q

What is on the AC essential bus

A

4 things:

  • AC fuel pump 2A
  • ACMP HYD 3A
  • SF-ACE 1 FLAP ch 1 AC feed
  • SF-ACE 2 SLAT ch 1 AC feed
164
Q

MAU’s

A

Mau’s have the ability to process Various inputs and define either on/off or open/close status for a specific system.

165
Q

Electrical priority for power

A

On side, inside, outside, Cross side

166
Q

Engine vibration indications

A

Green: normal operating range 0 to 3.9

Amber: cautionary operating range 4.0 to 5.0

Amber dashed: invalid information or value

167
Q

Air data smart probes (ADSP)

A

Comprised of:
Multi function probes,
Air data computer.

Work with TAT two cents and transmit static pressure, total pressure, angle of attack and total air temperature to the air data system

Angle of attack is calculated based on an interface between the static pressure of the smart probes

168
Q

ILS critical area

A

Protected only during operating hours of the tower and in the following weather conditions:

800’ ceiling and/or
< 2 SM visibility

169
Q

Taxi Speeds - Dry

A

Straight- 30 Kts max

Turn - 10 Kts max

170
Q

Taxi Speeds - Wet

A

Straight- 10 Kts max

Turn - 5 Kts max

171
Q

Aircraft Nose Tires - Brand, PSI, Size, etc.

A

Michelin Air, 102 +10/-0PSI, 24x7.7R10, 195 kts. (225 mph) MAX, 16 Ply, Rated @ 9725 lbs. each, Filled With Nitrogen

172
Q

Aircraft Main Tires - Brand, PSI, Size, etc.

A

Dunlop, ~160 PSI, H38x13R18, 195 kts. (225 mph) MAX, 20 Ply, Rated @ 25,075 lbs. each, Filled With Nitrogen

173
Q

Lavatory Waste - Size, Full mark

A

Size - 95 liters MAX

Full - (Service Light) @ 75% (71.25 liters)

174
Q

Potable Water Amount

A

70 liters MAX

175
Q

Brake Locked Wheel Protection

A

Active anytime on ground and wheel speeds greater than 30 kts. Compares wheel speeds, anytime they differ by 33% or more the brake control module releases either opposite outboard or opposite inboard brake pressure until both wheels equalize. The 33% tolerance is to allow for steering with differential breaking.

176
Q

Cabin High Altitude

A

9,700’

177
Q

Auto Brakes

A

LO - 1.2 m²/sec.

MED - 2.4 m²/sec.

HIGH- 4.0 m²/sec.

178
Q

Engine Out Distance for T.O. Alt.

A

300nm