Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dental Meds > Module 1 > Flashcards

Module 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Pharmacology

A

study of: drugs, their origin, properties of the drugs, how drugs effect living organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

1825

A

first journal of pharmacology published

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

1852

A

American pharmaceutical Association

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

1926

A

Epinephrine isolated from adrenal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

1951

A

Government regulation (prescriptions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

1970

A

Controlled Substance Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What year was the DEA established?

A

1970

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

1997

A

FDA Modernization Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What did the FDA Modernization Act do?

A

-shortened approval time (AIDS- drugs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pharmacotherapy

A

specific drugs utilized in prevention, diagnosis and treatement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pharmacy

A

compounding, preparing, and dispensing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Index Terms

A

drug name, accepted abbreviation of generic drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pharmacologic Category

A

One or more systemic classifications of drug

What drug is used for

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Generic

A

Official Name

active ingredient is no longer protected by a patent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Does a generic drug have an upper or lowercase first letter?

A

lowercase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Brand/Trade

A

Drug manufacturers name

protected/patented name (only mfg. can use)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Toxicology

A

harmful effects of drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A

The response/Movement of drugs

  • adsorbtion/distribution
  • duration of action
  • metabolism/extcretion
  • half-life
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Class- I drugs

A

Highest abuse potential, no safe medical use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Class II drugs

A

High abuse potential, safe medical use, must have a written prescription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Class III drugs

A

Moderate abuse potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Class IV drugs

A

Low abuse potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Class V drugs

A

lowest abuse potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Class I drug examples:

A

marijuana, PCP, LSD, heroin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Class II drug examples:

A

cocaine, morphine, methadone, methamphetamine, oxycodone (percodan/percocet), Ritalin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Class III drug examples:

A

Acetaminophen with codeine or hydrocodone (vicodin), anabolic steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Class IV drug examples:

A

Triazolam, valium &xanex (benzodiazepine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Class V drug examples:

A

Cough medications that contain codeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Dose/Response Curve

A

how much (mg/dose) do I give before I see a response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Ceiling Effect

A

occurse when a theraputic response cannot be increased with a high dose
-detrimental/overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Potency

A

how much drug is needed to produce a response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Median Effective Dose

A

the amound of drug that produces half of the maxiumum effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

High potency

A

a smaller dose of a drug will produce the same effect as a higher doseof another drug in the same class

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

lower ED 50=

A

more potent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Efficacy

A

differences in the maximum effect that drugs will produce at any dose

More of the drug will not = better results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

An example of efficacy

A

Aspirin and Morphine are analgesics, aspirin in its most effective dose is not as effective as morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Theraputic Index

A

Ratio of drugs is toxic dose (LD) to its theraputic dose (ED)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Does a safe drug have a low or high TI

A

High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How many subjects does a LD kill

A

1/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How many subjects does a ED have a response in?

A

1/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

High theraputic index

A

Low toxicity- few side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Low theraputic Index

A

Greater toxicity, needs to be monitored closely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is an example of a drug with a low theraputic index?

A

DIgitalis (for congestive heart failure), Coumadin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Idosyncracy

A

an unexpected effect, a toxic, opposite, unusual or no effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What can cause an Idiosyncracy

A

a genetic deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is an example of an idiosyncracy

A

Amphetamines (stimulant) calms kids with ADHD down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Allergy

A

response to allergen in hypersensitive person; disorder of immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Antibody

A

protein develops in response to antigen,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Antigen/Antibody response forms:

A

the basis of immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Can antibodies be present from the past?

A

Yes, immunizations, vaccinations, transfered from mom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Antigen

A

any substance foreign to body that provokes an immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what happens when there is a true allergic reaction?

A

mast cells release histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does histamine do?

A

bronchi constrict/vasodilation which causes increased blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What does histamine cause?

A

rash, hives, dyspnea, decreased BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What anesthetics are less allergenic?

A

sept, lido, carbo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Define a drug

A

any substance that when taen into the living organism may modify one or more of its functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

is a drug biologically active?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is a placebo

A

has no effect on living organisms, not biologically active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

A placebo is an inert substance T/F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is tolerance?

A

dcreased response to a drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What happens when there is a tolerance?

A

a larger and larger does is required to obtain the same response as the orginal dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What does a pt. experience when they have to take larger and larger doses

A

a euphoric high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is a sign of dependence

A

oxycontin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What kind of drugs does tolerance occur with?

A

addictive or mind altering drugs that cause excitement, depression or addiction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What happens in tolerance to antibiotics?

A

antibiotics may not be effective b/c the bacteria may have become resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the definition of a theraputic effect

A

the intended effect, clinically desireable action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the theraputic effect of antibiotis

A

to kill bactera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is the theraputic effect of valium

A

sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what is the theraputic effect of antidepressants

A

to bring you out of depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is a side effect

A

effects other than expected or intended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the side effect of morphine

A

nausea of dizziness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Do all drugs have side effects?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What makes someone more susceptible to side effects?

A

body chemistry, mental attitude, susceptibilty of receptor sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is a toxic effect?

A

when a side effect becomes harmful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is a teratogen?

A

the development of abnormal structures in an embryo which result in birth defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the drug that cause the largest medical catastrophe of teratogens?

A

Thalidomide in 1961

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is THalidomide?

A

OTC drug used for morning sickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What defect did Thalidomide cause?

A

fetus to have short arms and legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Who was the FDA inspector who got THalidomide off the shelves?

A

Frances Kelsey in 1962

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Definition of carcinogen

A

cancer causing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is drug dependence?

A

it is an addition or habituation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is an addiction

A

psychological or physiological dependence of drug?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what happens to an addicted person when they stop taking the drug

A

they become deathly ill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are common drugs used for detox?

A

suboxone, trazodone, anabuse,methadone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is anabuse used for

A

detox off alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what is methadone used for

A

opioid dependency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what is suboxone used for

A

heroin, opioid detox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what is trazaone used for

A

alcohol, cocaine detox

89
Q

What is a habituation

A

psychological dependence or habit

90
Q

What are the oral routes of administration?

A

Enteral-intestines or rectal

91
Q

How are oral meds adsorbed?

A

in the small intestine

92
Q

What are the types of oral meds?

A

tabs, capsules, powder, suspensions, liquids

93
Q

Liquids have a _________onset of _______ mmins

A

liquid, 30-60 m ins

94
Q

What is the enteral route?

A

sublingual/buccal

95
Q

How fast is the sublingual/buccal route?

A

onset within minutes

96
Q

what is an example of a sublingual med?

A

nitro tabs/ spray

97
Q

What are some oral route considerations?

A
  • may cause nausea/vomiting
  • unpredictable blood levels
  • slow onset
98
Q

What are the benefits of an oral med?

A

simple, many dosage forms

99
Q

What is the Parental forms of administration?

A

IV, IM, SQ, IO

100
Q

What is the IV route of administration?

A

drug delivered directly into blood

101
Q

are IVs more predictable?

A

YES

102
Q

IV have a faster/slower onset

A

faster

103
Q

Why is there a rapid onset of IV drugs?

A

the adsorption phase is by passed

104
Q

What are the disadvantages of of IV administration?

A
  • phelbitis
  • drug is not retrivable
  • high allergy rate
  • greater side effects
105
Q

What is the intraosseous infusion

A

drains into the venous system

106
Q

when is the IO infusion used?

A

when an IV is not acceptable in peds

107
Q

What are the advantages of an IM drug?

A

muscle is vascular, quick onset

108
Q

What is an example of an IM drug?

A

demorol

109
Q

What are the disadvantages of an IM drug?

A

temp, and muscularity may effect adsorbtion

110
Q

W hat are the advantages of a SQ drug?

A

quick

111
Q

What is a SQ drug?

A

insulin

112
Q

What are the disadvantages of a SQ drug?

A

temp and muscularity may effect adsorbtion

113
Q

What are the topical routes of administration?

A

Inhalation, topical cream/ointment/suppository

114
Q

What are the advantages of inhalation drugs?

A

oral or nasal delivery, fairly easy/ fast onset

115
Q

what are the disadvantages of inhalation drugs?

A

may damage mucosal tissue

116
Q

What is the onset with topical creams/ointment/suppository?

A

onset varies with tissues

117
Q

What is the advantage of an intradermal injection?

A

more blood vessels than subcutaneous layer

118
Q

What are exampes of intradermal injections

A

allergy testing, tb test

119
Q

Where are SQ drugs injected?

A

into connective tissue

120
Q

What drugs cant be used SQ?

A

irritating drugs or large volumes

121
Q

What are examples of SQ drugs?

A

insulin, local anesthetic

122
Q

What is the onset of IM drugs?

A

15 to 30 min onset

123
Q

WHere is a good site for and iM injection?

A

deltiod, gluteus, somewhere away from bone, vessels nerves

124
Q

What is the transdermal route of administration?

A

(topical) contiuous low dosage release

125
Q

What are some examples of transdermal?

A

nitro, nicoder, birth control, pain control

126
Q

Ihalation is a _________effect

A

local and systemic

127
Q

How fast does inhalation work

A

within one minute

128
Q

What is an example of a local effect of a inhalation drug?

A

bronchodilators

129
Q

what is a systemic example of a inhalation drug

A

nitrous, oxygen

130
Q

What are the layers of a transdermal patch?

A

impermeable membrane, drug resivor, memebrane, adhesive

131
Q

What does the impermeable membrande of a transdermal patch do?

A

keeps drug from evaporating

132
Q

What does the drug resivor do in a transdermal patch?

A

Stores drug

133
Q

What does the membrane in a transdermal patch do?

A

controls rate of drug release

134
Q

What is the route of administration in an emergency?

A

IV

135
Q

What are examples of topicals?

A

ointments, drops, creams/gels, application

136
Q

What effect does a percutaneous route of administration have?

A

a local effect on the skin

137
Q

What is the application of a percutaneous drug?

A

local anes. ointment cream

138
Q

What is adsorbtion?

A

process of moving a drug across cell/tissue membranes

139
Q

What is distribution?

A

the process of transporting drugs through the body

140
Q

What is metabolism?

A

chemical reactions in the body/ biotransfromation

141
Q

What is excretion?

A

removing substances from the body

142
Q

Before a drug is adsorbed what must is pass through?

A

cell membranes and or tissue barriers to gain access to organ/tissue and have an effect

143
Q

What are the barriers for an oral capusle drug?

A

esophagus, GI tract, Into blood, intestinal mucosal bood barrier

144
Q

Are liquid forms of a drug readily adsorbed?

A

yes

145
Q

What are the barriers for an oral sublingual drug?

A

epithelium of the oral mucosa before entering blood

146
Q

What harmful substances are allowed through the placental barrier?

A

alcoho, nicotine, drugs

147
Q

In order for a drug to have a pharmacological effect on tissues it must cross the

A

blood/tissue barrier

148
Q

TO have an effect on the brain a drug must cross the

A

blood brain barrier

149
Q

WHat does a cell memebrane form

A

the barriers between different compartments in the body

150
Q

What is biophospholipid membrane compsed of?

A

lipids, protiens, carbs

151
Q

What are the qualities of the outside of the cell membrane?

A

polar, hydrophilic, water soluble heads oriented outward

152
Q

Drugs that are water soluble do not pass through the lipid layer by

A

aqueous pores

153
Q

What is the inside of the cell membrane composed of?

A

non polar, hydrophobic, fat soluble tails inside membrane

154
Q

what doe sthe lipid membrane allow through l

A

lipid soluble drugs to penetrate cell membranes more easily by diffusion

155
Q

Lipid soluble drugs are the only ones able to pass through_________

A

the blood brain barrier

156
Q

A drug should have both lipid and water soluble qualities T?F

A

True

157
Q

What is one on the most important determinants of the parmacokinetic characteristics of a drug

A

Lipid solubility

158
Q

When food is absent it causes a drug to work ___

A

faster

159
Q

When a cell has a thick membrane it causes drugs to work

A

slow

160
Q

When a drug is lipid soluble it causes it to work

A

faster

161
Q

Then the temperature is warm it causes a drug to work

A

faster

162
Q

When there is increased surface area it causes a drug to work

A

fast

163
Q

Name the physical states of a drug and their rate of asdorbtion

A

gas-fast
liquid-slower
solid- slowest

164
Q

When there is ioniization a drug adsorbs

A

slower

165
Q

when there is unionization a drug adsorbs

A

faster

166
Q

Desrcibe connections of cell membranes and their adsorbtion rate

A

Brain-tight-slower

liver-loose-faster

167
Q

WHat are the 2 factors that affect adsorbtion:

A

Transport mechanism and drug ionization

168
Q

What are the 3 transport mechanisms

A

passive or facilitated diffusion, active transport

169
Q

What is passive diffusion

A

From a high concentration to a low concentration

170
Q

What is the most common way for a drug to be adsorbed?

A

via passive diffusion

171
Q

Is any energy used is passive adsorbtion?

A

no

172
Q

What does passive diffusion depend on?

A

degree of lipid solubility

173
Q

What is facilitated diffusion?

A

drug is too large or too plar to diffuse across membrane and a carrier protein is needed

174
Q

Is there energy used in facilitate diffusion?

A

no

175
Q

What are examples of things that use facilitated diffusion?

A

sugar, penicilin, asprin

176
Q

Is active diffusion?

A

involves the use of carrier proteins to move drugs against the concentration gradient

177
Q

Active diffusion is _________ concentration to _________ concentration

A

low to high

178
Q

does active diffusion use energy?

A

yes

179
Q

What are examples of things that use active diffusion?

A

vitamins, sugars, amino-acids

180
Q

What drugs readily pass through body membranes?

A

non ionized, uncharged, nonpolar, lipid soluble

181
Q

The amount of drug adsorbed is less if it is:

A

polar, ionized, charged, decrease in lipid solubility

182
Q

How much of the drug changed to ionized depends on

A

pKA and pH of drug

183
Q

What is the pH of a drug

A

concentration of H ions

184
Q

What is the pKA of a drug

A

related to the equilibrium that the drug has with its ionized form and is the ph at which the drug is 50 percent ionized

185
Q

When a drug leaves the blood it is distributed to

A

extracellular fluid or enter the intracelluar space

186
Q

What is the extracelluar fluid?

A

all fluids outside the cells which include plasma, interstital fluid, lymph

187
Q

What factors affect how much drug reaches the receptor sites?

A

Plasma protein binding, size of organ, drug solubility, tissue affinity, barriers

188
Q

Is a bound drug available for interaction?

A

no

189
Q

WHat is an example of a bound drug

A

Warfarin

190
Q

What do NSAIDS do to warfarin?

A

displaces it from the drug complex raising blood levels of arfarin and increasing the risk of bleeding

191
Q

An unbound drug is available for paramacologic reactoin T/F

A

true

192
Q

Is an unbound drug biologically active

A

YEs

193
Q

Can drugs be bound reversibly to plasma proteins

A

yes

194
Q

How does the size of the organ effect how much drug reaches the receptor sites?

A

organs with the largest amt of blood flow are exposed to the most drug

195
Q

How does drug solubility affect how much drug reaches the receptor sites?

A

All lipiid soluble drugs will pass into the interstitial fluid

196
Q

When drugs pass in to the interstitial fliuid what happens

A

They will encounter other cell surfaces and will readily pass

197
Q

What can water soluble drugs only interact with?

A

the external portion of the cell

198
Q

What can lipid soluble drugs interact with?

A

internal and external sites

199
Q

Drugs that are bound or attracted to certain tissue sites is called

A

tissue affinity

200
Q

What is metabolism/biotranformation?

A

when the body changes a drug for easier excretion

201
Q

Drugs must be in what form to be excreted

A

water soluble

202
Q

Drugs are eliminated as

A

parent compounds, unchanged

203
Q

In metabolism a drug molecule is

A

altered, metabolites

204
Q

some drugs are biotransformed by enzymes in the :

A

Kidney, Plasma, Lungs, Intestinal Mucosa

205
Q

What is the major route of fluoride elimation

A

Urine

206
Q

Are fat soluble drugs excreted in the urine?

A

NO

207
Q

What needs to happen to fat soluble drugs before they can be excreted?

A

metabolized into water soluble in the liver

208
Q

What is the PRIMARY site of biotransformation?

A

LIVER

209
Q

The liver changes drugs to__________ through an enzymatic process

A

metabolites

210
Q

what is the most imporant route of elimination’?

A

kidneys

211
Q

What happens if an individual has impairment of liver or kidney function

A

toxicity occurs quickly

212
Q

Is the mechanism of action known for all drugs?

A

no

213
Q

What is the site of action fo the theraputic effect/drug activity?

A

area we want action to take place

214
Q

WHere do we interpret pain?

A

brain

215
Q

where is the fever reducer?

A

hypothalmus

216
Q

Where is anesthetics effect?

A

nerve

217
Q

What is drug action?

A

what the drug does when it combines with the drug receptor

218
Q

What are receptors

A

macromolecuse (proteins, carbs, glycoprotiens)

Dental Meds (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions