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Immunology > Vaccines and Immunotherapy > Flashcards

Vaccines and Immunotherapy Flashcards

1
Q

What is the vaccination paradox?

A

success of vaccination has led to increased opposition

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2
Q

When polio determined eradicated?

A

1980

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3
Q

This type of immunization is the administration of a vaccine to which the recipient mounts his or her own adaptive immune response.

A

Active immunization

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4
Q

Active immunization is long-lasting. True or false?

A

true

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5
Q

This type of immunization is the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from an immune donor to a non-immune recipient.

A

passive immunization

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6
Q

Passive immunization protection is ____ but ___-lived

A

immediate; short

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7
Q

This type of immunization is conferred by IgG antibodies that pass through the mother to the fetus or by antibodies ingested with breast milk

A

Natural Passive immunity

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8
Q

This type of immunity is the administrate of pre-formed antibodies to a person who has a life-threading infection or intoxication, or to someone who has a B cell or antibody deficiency.

A

artificial passive immunity

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9
Q

Artificial passive immunity occurs most often when a patient becomes infected by a microorganism capable of producing a harmful toxin. Pre-formed antibodies typically ___ or ___ antiserum

A

human; horse

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10
Q

Why do antibodies given in artificial passive immunity have to be given immediately after infection?

A

in order to neutralize the toxin since waiting for the patient to to generate his or her own antibodies would take too long

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11
Q

This type of immunity is the transfer of lymphocytes from an immunocompetent donor to an immunodeficient recipient.

A

adoptive immunity

ex: bone marrow or stem cell transplants confer adoptive immunity

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12
Q

Explain Herd immunity

A

occurs when vaccination of a portion of the population provides protection to unvaccinated individuals. Scientists have found when a certain percentage of the population is vaccinated (90%), the spread of the disease to the remaining population (10%) is effectively stopped.

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13
Q

Explain contact immunity

A

occurs when a vaccinated individual spreads a live vaccine to other individuals, who then become vaccinated inadvertently

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14
Q

The most efficient immunity is conferred by what?

A

an active infection (live, attenuated vaccine)

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15
Q

Live viral vaccines induce a ___ response as well as ___ production

A

Tc; antibody

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16
Q

Live vaccines administered by the intranasal or oral route induce secretory ____ production in addition to serum ___ response

A

IgA; IgG

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17
Q

Most killed or subunit vaccines given by the parenteral route (subcutaneous, intradermal, intramuscular) stimulate only ____ immunity that is largely restricted to the ___ class of antibody and does not protect the host where?

A

humoral; IgG; portal of entry

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18
Q

In regards to safety concerns, live vaccines have the potential to revert to what?

A

wild type capable of causing disease

ex: Sabin polio vaccine that has been discontinued in U.S.

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19
Q

In regards to safety concerns, this live vaccine has been associated with persistent infections

A

varicella-zoster

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20
Q

In regards to safety concerns, live vaccines can contain components to which the recipient may be ____ (egg antigens, antibiotics, preservatives)

A

allergic

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21
Q

These vaccines contain microorganisms that have been inactivated by heat, chemical treatment, or radiation

A

killed

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22
Q

Killed vaccines are usually administered in the ___ muscle of adults and the ___ of the infant. Injected killed vaccines mainly induce what antibody response?

A

deltoid; thigh; IgG

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23
Q

Thise vaccines are toxoids, sub cellular fragments, surface antigens, or capsular polysaccharides purified from microorganisms or produced in vitro by recombinant DNA technology. They are administered parentally and induce IgG mainly.

A

subunit

24
Q

In general, large proteins such as ___ _ surface antigen or the ____ toxoid make the best subunit vaccines. ____ are second best

A

Hepatitis B; tetanus; polysaccharides

25
Q

____ are toxins that have been modified so that they no longer cause pathology, but still induce an active immune response to the recipient. The most well-known used in immunization are tetanus and diphtheria

A

toxoids

note: toxoids are subunit vaccines

26
Q

In regards to subunit vaccines, antigens that are too small to induce an immune response on their own are called ____

A

haptens

27
Q

Haptens can be made immunogenic by chemically linking them to larger ____ proteins that den be processed and presented to ___ cells

A

carrier; TH

note: the TH cells in turn tell B cells to make antibodies to both the hapten and the carrier

28
Q

_____ _____ are used as vaccines to protect against the bacteria strep pneumonia, H flue type b, and Neisseria meningitidis

A

Capsular polysaccharides

29
Q

strep pneumonia, H flue type b, and Neisseria meningitidis can cause what?

A

respiratory infections, pneumonia, otitis media, and meningitis

30
Q

many capsular polysaccharides act as T-independent antigens. What does this mean in regards to B cells?

A

B cells specific for T-independent antigens do not need T cell help in order to produce antibodies

31
Q

T-independent antigens stimulate mainly ___ production and do not elect the formation of ___ B cells

A

IgM; memory

note: repeated immunizations with a T-independent antigen do not induce a secondary immune response

32
Q

T-dependent antigens induce class switching from IgM to other isotopes, elicit the the formation of memory B cells, and induce vigorous secondary immune responses. For these reasons, children under the age of 2 receive what type of vaccines?

A

conjugate vaccines in which capsular polysaccharides are linked to diphtheria toxoid or another strong protein antigen. Chemical conjugation changes the nature of the immune response to the polysaccharide from a T-independent response to a T-dependent response, complete with IgG production and the formation of memory T and B cells

33
Q

DO NOT ADMINISTER LIVE VACCINES TO ____ OR ____ INDIVIDUALS

A

PREGNANT; IMMUNOCOMPROMISED

34
Q

The Quadrivalent live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV4, FluMist) is a great example of a _____-sensative mutant used as a vaccine

A

temperature

note: can undergo limited replication in nasal where temps are less than 37 degrees celsius but can’t replicate at temps higher than that

35
Q

In regards to the rabies vaccine, pre-exposure has 3 vaccine doses given on day __, ___, and ___; post-exposure for an unvaccinated person has a 4 dose regiment on day ___, ___, ___, and ___ plus HRIG on day ___

A

pre-exposure: 0, 7, 21

post-exposure: 0, 3, 7, 14; 0

36
Q

DTaP vaccine: a combination vaccine containing tetanus and diphtheria ___ and ___ subunits of Bordetella pertussis, the causative agent of whooping cough

A

toxoids; structural

37
Q

Tetanus-diptheria booster (Td): protects against ___ ___ caused by clostridium tetani, and ___ caused by corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

spastic paralysis; diphtheria

38
Q

Td is administered at 10 year intervals after the childhood ___ series and after a single dose of ___

A

DTaP; Tdap

39
Q

Who are the persons who should receive pneumococcal vaccines other than healthy children and > 65 year olds?

A

smokers 19-64; persons aged 2 years or older with cochlear implants, weakened immunity, or chronic medical conditions

40
Q

Who are the persons who should receive meningococcal vaccines beyond the primary series?

A

healthy persons at increased risk such as college freshmen, military recruits, microbiologists; asplenic persons; persons with SCA ; and patients with deficiencies in MAC, properdin, factor H or factor D

41
Q

If the mother has a known HBV infection, HepB vaccine should be administered with Hep B immune globulin (HBIG) within ___ hours of birth

A

12

42
Q

HPV capsid proteins proteins produced in _____ are adsorbed to alum adjuvant

A

S. cerevisiae

43
Q

an ___ is any substance whose admixture with an injected immunogen increases the immune response

A

adjuvant

44
Q

Adjuvants enhance antibody responses and display a “__ effect”, which slows antigen degradation and clearance

A

depot

45
Q

MPL activates DCs, macrophages, and other APCs though TLR_, eliciting production of cytokines that stimulate both humoral and CMI

A

4

46
Q

____ antibodies are increasingly being used to confer passive immunity to infectious diseases and certain forms of cancer.

A

monoclonal

47
Q

monoclonal antibodies are generated how?

A

by hyper-immunizing mice with the microbe, toxin, or cancer antigen; collecting B lymphocytes from the spleen and fusing them to immortal myeloma cells (neoplastic B cells)

48
Q

The resultant cell of the monoclonal antibody procedure is called a ___. What does it secrete?

A

hybridoma (fusion of B cell and myeloma); secretes monoclonal antibodies and survives and proliferates like the myeloma cell

49
Q

Mouse monoclonal antibodies can be “humanized” to make them better tolerated by the human. This usually involves replacing the mouse ___ domain with the human’s.

A

Fc

50
Q

What diseases or conditions are treated with horse antibodies?

A

non-infant botulism (HBAT); respiratory diphtheria (DAT); snake/spider/scorpion bites (antivenom)

51
Q

BabyBIG protects infants against serotypes A and B of what?

A

clostridium botulinum (Infant Botulism)

52
Q

This human antibody is given to bone marrow and kidney transplant recipients

A

cytomegalovirus

53
Q

Measles immune globulin is offered pre-exposure or post-exposure

A

post-expsure

54
Q

Respiratory syncytial virus immune globulin intravenous (RSV-IGIV) is used to prevent what?

A

lower respiratory tract infection caused by RSV in children less than 24 months of age with breathing problems or a history of premature birth

55
Q

Which antibodies are given to prevent Erythroblastosis fetalis

A

Anti-D

Immunology (12 decks)

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