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From Flashcardlet > CRIM 103 Chapters 5-12 > Flashcards

CRIM 103 Chapters 5-12 Flashcards

0
Q

what are the biggest misconceptions about sex offenders?

A
  • they are a high risk to sexually offend again
  • this misconception is due to the media and irresponsible researchers that selected their samples from only those sex offenders that had prior history of sexual offending
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1
Q

what is the best word to describe sex offenders?

A

-heterogeneous

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2
Q

what are 3 things that are the true reality about sex offenders?

A
  1. sexual recidivism is rare
  2. sexual offenders are more likely to non-sexually recidivate
  3. high-rate non-sex offenders are more likely to commit a sex offence in adulthood than juvenile sex offenders
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3
Q

are all sexual offenders sexually deviant?

A
  • NO
  • rape can be about power/control/ or humiliation
  • war crimes are proof of this
  • the same number of sex offences are reported to police in Canada each YEAR
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4
Q

what are the typical characteristics of a sex offender?

A
  • heterogeneous
  • young
  • prior criminal history (both less common with cases where kids are sexually assaulted)
  • sexual abuse is common within the background of juvenile offenders
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5
Q

what is MTC classification of a Rapist?

A
  • displaced aggression (power/control)
  • compensatory, response to arousal+ inadequacy)
  • sexually aggressive
  • impulsive
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6
Q

what is Finkrlhor’s Model for a rapist?

A

has to include 4 things

  1. emotional congruence
  2. sexual arousal
  3. blockage
  4. disinhibition
    - sexual offender must identify more with emotions of children than emotions with an adult
    - sexually attracted to children
    - cannot get sexual relations with desired female so they took advantage of kids/ previous failures
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7
Q

What is Seto and Barbaree’s developmental view on rapists?

A
  • adolescence limited path: usually opportunistic, will usually sex offend against girlfriend and usually stops with age
  • pedophilia path
  • antis-sociality path
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8
Q

Describe Marshall and Barbee’s Integrated Theory

A
  • is the fusion f sex and aggression
  • begins with inconsistent parenting that fails to promote attachment
  • leads to ABS, emotional detachment, low social competency and poor self-esteem
  • due to child abuse, insecure attachment and poor peer socialization they can’t develop attachments so turn to children or sexually coercive methods in dating
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9
Q

define Paraphilias

A
  • intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors generally involving 1. nonhuman objects 2. the suffering or humiliation of oneself or one’s partner 3. children or other non-consenting person
  • must occur over a period of at least 6 months
  • paraphilia and sex offending are not interchangeable
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10
Q

define pedophilia:

A
  • as to happen over a period of at least 6 months
  • intense sexually arousing fantasies, urges or behaviors involving sexual activity with a prepubescent child
  • this person is at least 16 and 5 years older than the victim
  • difficult to determine its prevalence
  • MOST ADOLESCENTS WHO SEXUALLY OFFEND AGAINST CHILDREN DO NOT HAVE A SEXUAL PREFERENCES FOR CHILDREN
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11
Q

what is sexual sadism?

A
  • is when one is sexually aroused by inflicting humiliation or pain on others
  • relatively rare
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12
Q

what is Frotteurism?

A

-it is an interest in touching and rubbing up against a nonconsenting person person

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13
Q

Describe the 4 areas of sexual assault (lifestyle, anti-sociality, interpersonal, and affective)

A
  • lifestyle: capitalize on opportunities due to impulsive decision making
  • antisociality: antisocial attitudes and associates, more opportunities for sex offending
  • interpersonal: actively seek to manipulate and dominate others
    affective: unemotional connection to others fails to deter
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14
Q

what percent of sex offenders recidivate? and which are more likely to recidivate young or old?

A

5.3%

young offenders

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15
Q

describe what a rapist is:

A
  • sadist: wants to cause harm
  • anger: has anger against women and assault usually goes further than expected
  • opportunistic = they dont plan
  • they differ between victim types
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16
Q

what are the 3 Knight + Sim’s Knight Pathways?

A
  1. verbal/physical verbal abuse: leads to antisocial traits
  2. verbal/ physical abuse: acting out on antisocial tendencies
  3. sexual abuse: sexual preoccupations , sexual deviancy and hyper sexuality
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17
Q

describe the difference between sexual offences and offending:

A

sexual offending: is no different from offending in general

sexual offences: relates to antisocial tendencies

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18
Q

define exhibitionism:

A
  • illegal

- has masturbation escape route and gets off on facial expression of victim

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19
Q

define hebophilia

A

-preference for children at the beginning of puberty (typically females)

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20
Q

what percent of sex offences committed in adulthood came from offenders without a history of sexual assault offending in adolescence?

A

78%

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21
Q

can you compare juvenile sex offenders committing a sexual offence to the same as them committing property, violation or drug offences at the fairly similar rate

A

yess

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22
Q

where is violence more likely to occur?

A

-in peoples homes or near high crime areas on the streets

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23
Q

define passive-aggressive behavior:

A
  • is hostile behaviour that does not directly inflict physical harm
    ex) refusing to speak to someone you hold a grudge on
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24
Q

what are the two types of aggression?

A
  • expression

- instrumental

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25
Q

define expressive aggression

A

-is aggression in which a person’s primary aim is to hurt or do injurey to others

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26
Q

define instrumental aggression:

A
  • is aggression carried out for the primary purpose of gaining material goods or other rewards rather than for the purpose of harming the victim
  • involves planning, goal-orientated , unprovoked acts that are free of anger and directed at a stranger victim
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27
Q

define violence:

A

-destructive physical aggression intentionally directed at harming other people or things.

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28
Q

describe the psychodynamic views surrounding aggression:

A

-believe humans by nature will always be prone to aggressive impulses and hence likely to commit violent acts if these impulses are not appropriately managed or held in check

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29
Q

what is the hydraulic model, who thought of it?

A
  • Freud was convinced humans are susceptible from birth to build up aggressive energy that needs to dissipate before it reaches dangerous levels
  • influential in modern-day strain theory
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30
Q

define ritual aggression

A

-the symbolic display of aggressive intentions or strength without actual physical combat or conflict

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31
Q

does frustration always lead to aggression?

A
  • NO

- and aggressive behaviour does not always signify “frustration”

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32
Q

what is the frustration-aggression hypothesis?

A
  • theory that frustration leads to aggressive behavior
  • influenced by Lenard Berkowitz
  • suggests that a person will go through theses steps before become aggressive
    1. person is blocked from obtaining goal
    2. frustration results with anger
    3. anger then readies the person to behave aggressively
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33
Q

what is weapons effect and who suggested it?

A
  • Berkowitz
  • suggested the presence of weapons leads a witness or victim to concentrate on the weapon itself rather than other features of the crime
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34
Q

describe the excitation transfer theory, who was it purposed by?

A
  • purposed by Zillmann

- explains how physiological arousal can generalize from one situation to another

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35
Q

what is the displaced-aggression theory, who believed in this?

A
  • Bushman et. al
  • he believed that aggression is displaced when the target is innocent of any wrong doing, but simply in the wrong place at the wrong time.
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36
Q

define rumination:

A

-this refers to the self-focused attention towards one’s thoughts and feelings

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37
Q

what does a growing number of studies reveal about road rage?

A
  • generally young males between 18-35 years old
  • with criminal or violent histories, psychiatric problems and drug or alcohol problems
  • also shows that victims tend to be repetitive possibly due to poor habits
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38
Q

what are the 3 major types of models Bandura identifies?

A
  1. family members
  2. members of ones subculture
  3. symbolic models provided by the mass media
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39
Q

what is the cognitive scripts model and who purposed this?

A
  • Rowell Huesmann
  • states that social behaviour in general and aggressive behaviour is controlled largely by cognitive scripts learned and memorized through daily experiences
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40
Q

what is the hostile attribution model and who was it developed by?

A
  • Kenneth Dodge and colleagues
  • states that youth/adults are more prone towards violence and are more likely to interpret ambiguous actions as hostile and threatening than their less aggressive counterparts
  • it begins to develop in preschool years and remains a stable attribute until adulthood
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41
Q

what is the general aggression model?

A
  • GAM
  • states that violence often occurs because of an escalation cycle, which begins with an initial triggering event
  • states that aggression and violence originate from a wide range of factors
  • incorportes biological, social, cognitive and decision processes
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42
Q

what is I^3 theory? How does it differ from GAM?

A
  • is an extension of the GAM
  • organizes aggression risk factors into 3 categories:
    1. instigating triggers (discrete incidents that arouse tendencies that are conductive to aggression)
    2. impelling forces (forces that increase the likelihood of an agressive action following the instigating trigger)
    3. inhibiting force (factors that increase the likelihood that aggression will be contained
  • it differs from GAM as it incorporates recent research on self-regulation as a core emphasis of the theory and specifies different ways in which aggression risk factors produce aggression and violence
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43
Q

how do overt and covert aggressive actions differ? what is an example of a covert crime?

A
  • behavior patterns
  • emotions
  • cognitions
  • development

-ex) cyber bullying

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44
Q

what is reactive aggression?

A

-includes anger expressions, temper tantrums, and vengeful hostility actions

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45
Q

what is proactive aggression?

A
  • includes bullying, domination, teasing, name-calling, and coercive acts
  • develops as a result of exposure to aggressive role models
  • this form displays greater problems in social and psychological adjustments
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46
Q

what is the contagion effect?

A
  • tendency in some people to model or copy an activity portrayed in the entertainment or news media
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47
Q

what is the difference between violence and aggression?

A

-aggression has harm to others as its main goal and can sometimes be considered socially normative such as within sports
WHEREAS
-violence is any aggression where extreme harm is the goal

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48
Q

what % of victims of violent report physical injury?

A

25%

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49
Q

what is the forensic psychologist perspective surrounding crime?

A
  • belief that not all offenders engage in violence and thus there must be something about violent offenders
  • primarily interested in identifying which offenders engage in violent recidivism
  • looks at individual risk factors
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50
Q

what is the criminologists perspective on violence?

A
  • believe that all frequent offenders are also frequent general offenders
  • risk factors that explain general offending can also explain violent offending
  • primary interest is in comparing violent and non violent offenders across criminal careers
  • looks at environmental risk factors
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51
Q

why are violence rates highest during the summer months?

A
  • it is hot
  • people have more leisure time
  • days are longer thus people stay out later
  • more alcohol consumption
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52
Q

what is Wikstrom’s situational action theory?

A
  • main condition facilitating violence propensity, situational context and absence of detterant factors
  • similar to I^3 theory
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53
Q

what are 3 things that we look at relative to offending?

A
  1. offender traits
  2. offender states
  3. detterant factors
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54
Q

describe what unstructured risk assessment is:

A
  • ex a forensic psychologist walks into a room and makes a decision based on their interview and whether this offender will commit a crime again
  • observation, asks questions based on experience and makes conclusion based on this
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55
Q

describe what actual risk assessment is:

A
  • uses a checklist to determine the intensity (low med or high) risk offenders
  • find most relevant risk factor and put it in an assessment tool and use no clinical opinion
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56
Q

what is HCR-20?

A
  • created Structure Professional Judgment
  • identified the most important risk factors based on a review of the literature
  • 10 static factors, 5 clinical factors, 5 risk management factors and professional override
  • was more gloablized
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57
Q

define what a status offence is:

A
  • class of legal behaviour that only people with certain characteristics or status can commit
    ex) running away, violating curfew, buying alcohol, skipping schol.. ect.
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58
Q

under the Federal Law at what age can juveniles be prosecuted under the criminal law?

A
  • age 15
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59
Q

who is classified as children delinquents?

A
  • juveniles between ages 7-12 who have committed a delinquent act according to the criminal law
  • these often attract medias attention
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60
Q

what % of children under 13 years make up all of the juvenile arrests?

A

9%

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61
Q

define what unlawful acts against persons means:

A
  • is violent crimes, such as those committed by adults

ex) aggravated assault, robbery, sexual assault, ect…

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62
Q

define what unlawful acts against property means:

A
  • is property crime similar to those committed by adults

ex) burglary, larceny-theft, vandalism

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63
Q

define what public order offences are:

A

-nuisance crimes against society such as noise violations committed by juveniles

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64
Q

what does PINS or CHINS mean?

A
  • this is a person or child in need of supervision
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65
Q

what % of serious offences result in police contact?

A

3-15%

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66
Q

In 2009 what are the percentages of girls who accounted for juvenile arrests, juvenile arrests for violent crime, property crime, and larceny-theft arrests?

A
  • juvenile arrests= 30%
  • violent crime = 18%
  • property= 38%
  • larceny-theft= 45%
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67
Q

what is the GSG?

A
  • “girls study group”
  • was a project designed to gain a better understanding of delinquency and recommended effective prevention programs directed specifically at girls
  • wanted to identify protective and risk factors of such girls
  • concluded that girls violence mainly occurred due to peer violence, violence within school, violence within disadvantaged communities, girls in gangs and family violence
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68
Q

describe the callous-unemotional theory and who it was identified by:

A
  • Paul Frick and colleagues
  • refers to a severe and chronic pattern of antisocial behaviour characterized by little feeling or empathy towards others
  • for both boys and girls and children as young as 3/4
  • there is a strong link between CU traits and conduct disorder
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69
Q

what is the percentage of children/adolescents with high CU traits within incarcerated antisocial juveniles compared to in a community sample?

A
  • 13-38% of incarcerated antisocial juveniles display CU traits
  • 10-32% of juveniles from community sample
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70
Q

define what primary prevention means:

A
  • is an intervention program designed to prevent behavior or disorders before any signs of the behavioral pattern develops.
  • this is universal
  • usually implemented before the ages of 7-8
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71
Q

define what secondary prevention means:

A
  • is an intervention program designed for individuals who demonstrate early signs or indicators of behavioural problems or antisocial behaviour
  • is also known as selective prevention
  • this is working with specific children and adolescents who are at high risk who display an early sign of antisocial behvaior but cannot be classified as a delinquent by the court
72
Q

what is the definition of treatment?

A
  • intervention strategy designed to reduce or eliminate behavioural problems or antisocial behaviour that is fully developed in individuals
  • also known as tertiary prevention
73
Q

describe residential treatment:

A
  • is the juvenile “training school” where youths are incarcerated for extended periods of time
  • typically physically secure
  • studies show children who received this treatment have higher rates of criminal involvement after release than their counter parts who recieved intensive family and community based treatments
74
Q

define multi-systemic therapy:

A

-is a treatment approach for serious juvenile offenders that focuses on the family while being responsive to many other contexts such as peer group, neighborhood and the school

75
Q

who was Robert Hare?

A
  • psychologist who is one of the worls leading experts on psychopathy
  • describes them as social predators who charm, manipulate, and ruthlessly ploww their way through life
  • outlined 3 categories of psychopaths: primary, secondary and dyssocial.
  • wanted a clinical and objective assessment of psychopathy
  • concluded there was 22 symptoms believed to capture Cleckley’s PPD characteristics
76
Q

describe a primary psychopath

A
  • “true” psychopath
  • an individual who demonstrates those physiological and behvioural features that represent psychopaths
  • have a weak BIS (dont fear punishment), have low levels of anxiety, more cold-blooded
77
Q

describe a secondary psychopath

A
  • individual with psychopathic characteristics
  • commits antisocial acts because of severe emotional problems or inner conflicts
  • have a overactive BAS (experience fear and anxiety), highly impulsive and bothered easily, more reactive in their violent behaviour than primary psychopaths
78
Q

describe a dyssocial psychopath:

A
  • individual with psychopathic characteristics

- antisocial because of social learning and does not posses the features of a primary psychopath

79
Q

define antisocial personality disorder:

A
  • is a pervasive path of disregard for the rights of others

- begins in childhood and early adolescence and continues into adulthood

80
Q

define what a “criminal psychopath” is:

A
  • used to identify those primary psychopaths who do engage in repetitive antisocial or criminal behavior (not always violent)
    ex) someone who forges documents
81
Q

do psychopaths normally have mental disorders?

A
  • no and if they do its either mild or severe no inbeween
  • most lack anxiety, psychotic thinking, delusions, and severe depression or hallucinations
  • psychopathy is not recognized as a mental disorder - it is related to biology.
82
Q

define semantic aphasia:

A

-is when psychopaths articulate their regrets for having done something, but words are devoid of emotional meaning

83
Q

what is factor analysis?

A

-a statistical procedure by which underlying patterns, factors, or dimensions are identified among a series of scale items

84
Q

describe each factor in the two factor position:

A

FACTOR 1
-reflects the interpersonal and emotional component of the disorder and consists of items measuring remorseless, callousness, and selfish use and manipulation of others
-relates more with planned predatory violence
-linked to resistance and inability to profit from treatment
-more bio psychological influences
FACTOR 2
-closely associated with a socially deviant or antisocial lifestyle
-characterized by poor planning, impulsiveness, an excessive need for stimulation, boredom, and lack of realistic goals
-linked to socioeconomic status, educational attainment as well as cultural and ethnic background

85
Q

define recidivism, is this high amongst psychopaths?

A
  • tendency to return to criminal offending
  • shown to be high amongst psychopaths
  • PCL-R is a strong predictor for recidivism
86
Q

what is a “marker”?

A

-is a term used for the neurological indicators of a particular phenomenon, such as psychopathy

87
Q

define avoidance learning:

A

process whereby if a person responds in time to a warning signal, he/she avoids a painful or aversive stimulus

88
Q

by what age should children have developed the knowledge of right or wrong?

A

by age 7 or 8

89
Q

what is the minimal and maximum age for criminal responsibility in juveniles within Canada?

A

min: 12
max: 17

90
Q

describe the coercion developmental theory:

A
  • states that parenting is primarily responsible for all types of offending trajectories
  • states temperament may elicit coercive parenting practices, child then learns about coercion through this
  • also referred to as the “uni casual theory”
  • believes males are more likely to offend
91
Q

what is the YRNA?

A
  • youth at risk assessment
  • specific to BC
  • completed by probation officers to identify presence of a risk in any variety of domains
92
Q

What is the PCL:YV?

A
  • psychopathy checklist : youth version

- specific measure of psychopathy only

93
Q

what is the SAVRY?

A
  • structured assessment of violence risk in youth
  • 3 domains
    1. historical
    2. socio contextual
    3. individual clinical
  • includes an overall rating by the profession administering the test
94
Q

what does structured risk assessment entail ?

A
  • isnt reliant on what tools they used

- needs some clinical judgement for when the tool provides them with the wrong info

95
Q

define retribution?

A
  • also known as crime control
  • tough on crime
  • emphasizes punishing criminals in order to protect social and deteriorate the punished offender.
96
Q

define rehabilitation:

A
  • known as welfare model
  • soft on crime
  • might be inflicted by social or political confidence
  • believe that those who commit crimes are no different than the others
97
Q

definition of a psychopath:

A
  • is an insane person with a lack of delusions
  • generally seen as creating functional impairments of the affective, interpersonal and behavioural domain
  • is not psychosis or a sociopathic personality disorder
  • is the same as antisocial behaviour just measured in different ways
98
Q

what percent of the population is considered to correlate with psychopathy/

A

1%

99
Q

what is involved within personality disorders?

A

-how individuals interact with themselves, others, and environment

100
Q

why cant psychopathy be diagnosed prior to the age of 18?

A

because it is a personality disorder

101
Q

are all personality disorders mental disorders and vis-versa?

A
  • yes all personality disorders are mental disorders but NOT all mental disorders are personality disorders
102
Q

what are individuals with psychopathic personality disorder (PPD) at greater risk of?

A
  • general recidivism; violent recidivism
  • greater overall frequency of offending
  • institutional misconduct
  • influencing others to engage in misconduct
103
Q

what percentage of the adult population within prison is considered psychopaths?

A

15-20%

104
Q

what does the “heavy” mean within the prison system?

A
  • means this person is the landlord
  • this person shows symptoms of psychopathy
  • tends to victimize people
  • high level of institutional misconduct and also influences others to do the same
105
Q

what are key indicators within an individuals childhood, adolescence and adulthood that point towards psychopathy?

A
  • childhood: difficulty connecting and playing with peers
  • adolescence: disregard for the effect of antisocial behaviour on victims
  • adulthood: inability to understand the emotional needs of a partner
106
Q

how is psychopathy measured and who designed this measurement?

A

-‘Mask of sanity’ has provided the basis for current research instruments and Cleckley designed it outlining 16 symptoms characteristic of psychopathic personality disorder

107
Q

what does the three factor model include?

A
  • interpersonal
  • affective
  • life style
108
Q

what does the four factor model include?

A
  • interpersonal
  • affective
  • lifestyle
  • antisocial behaviour
109
Q

what is some criticism on the PCL:YV

A
  • it is tautological: relying on behaviour
  • disagreement in the number of factors
  • relies on too few personality derived measures
110
Q

what is CAPP?

A
  • comprehensive assessment of psychopathic personality
  • utilizes a 6 dimensional model for attachment
  • purpose was to bring focus of psychopathy back to the personality and away from the PCL:YV’s emphasis on criminal and antisocial behaviour
  • developed in 2004
111
Q

what are the 6 domains of attachment?

A
  1. prosocial
  2. self
  3. cognitive (hardest to measure)
  4. dominance (easier to see in adulthood)
  5. behavioural
  6. emotions
112
Q

what are some criticism of CAPP?

A
  • requires continued validation

- lower inter-rate reliability when assessing the ‘self’ domain

113
Q

who suggests that psychopathy is the best theory of crime?

A

Matt Delisi

114
Q

Describe the dominance domain and its symptoms

A
  • Antagonistic: hostile, disagreeable, contemptuous, opposes others; often arguing to draw a reaction
  • Domineering: arrogant, overbearing, controlling, tries to hold power over others; examples forces others to pay rent, contempt for other bullies
  • deceitful: dishonest, deceptive, misleads, cheats others; often does not react when challenged by RA
  • manipulative: devious, exploitative, calculating, controls others to their own advantage; example feigns emotions for sympathy
  • insincere: superficial, slick, evasive; often good with excuses and admits to enjoy lying
  • garrulous: glib, pretentious, talkative, wordy; often attempting to dominate conversation and goes off topic
115
Q

what does incompetent to stand trial mean?

A
  • IST

- is a judicial determination that a defendant lacks sufficient ability to understand

116
Q

what does not guilty by reason of insanity mean?

A
  • NGRI
  • is a legal determination that a defendant was so mentally disordered at the time of the crime that he/she cannot be held criminally responsible for his/her actions
117
Q

definition of a mental disorder:

A
  • is a term used for a vast number of mental conditions, ranging from the mild to the serious, the impede ones ability to function
  • pattern of behaviour or cognitive processing that impairs functioning and coping with life
  • is not due to developmental or social norms
118
Q

definition of mental retardation:

A

-a cognitive disability typically assessed by performance scored on standardized intellegence tests
-term preferred is action intellectually or developmentally disabled
-

119
Q

what is the DSM?

A
  • diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders
  • contains 5 different axis’s
    1. clinical disorders
    2. mental retardation and personality disorders
    3. medical conditions
    4. factors that may contribute
    5. level of functioning
120
Q

definition of a delusion:

A

-fake beliefs about the world

121
Q

definition of hallucinations:

A

-things or events that a mentally disordered but no other person sees or can perceive.

122
Q

define major depressive disorder:

A
  • general label for symptoms that include an extremely depressed state
  • generally slowing down of mental and physical activity and feelings of self worthlessness
123
Q

what is adjudicative competence?

A
  • some as competence to stand trial

- relates to the ability to participate in a wide variety of court proceedings and court related activities

124
Q

what does competency to stand trial mean?

A

-is the legal requirement that a defendant is able to understand the proceedings and to help the attorney in preparing a defense

125
Q

what was the insanity defence reform act of 1984?

A

-a law designed to make it more difficult for defendants using the insanity defence in the federal courts to be acquitted

126
Q

describe what ‘guilty by mentally ill’ means?

A

-is a verdict alternative in some states that allows mentally disordered defendants to be found guilty while seemingly affording them treatment for mental disorders

127
Q

what does iatrogenic mean?

A
  • is a process whereby mental or physical disorders unintentionally induced or developed in patients by physicians, clinicians, or psychotherapists
128
Q

definition of murder:

A

-felonious killing of one human being by another with malice afterthought

129
Q

definition of criminal homicide:

A

-term that includes both murder and non negligent homicide

130
Q

define non negligent manslaughter:

A

-is the killing of a human being without premeditation but with the intention to kill in the “heat of the moment”

131
Q

define negligent manslaughter:

A
  • is killing another as a result of reckless or culpable negligence
  • also known as involuntary manslaughter
132
Q

define aggravated assault:

A

-is when the intention is to inflict serious bodily injury

133
Q

describe the dynamic cascade model;

A
  • is a statistical and theoretical model that sees the many risk factors in a youths early development as affecting subsequent factors
  • has a snowball effect that leads to increased antisocial behaviour
134
Q

what do stereotypical abductions refer to?

A
  • refer to highly unusual cases where it ends with the death of the child
  • usually committed by strangers
  • receive considerable media attention
135
Q

what is munchausen syndrome by proxy?

A
  • is an unusual form of child abuse where the parent consistently bring a child in for medical symptoms falsified by the parent
136
Q

definition of infanticide:

A

-means the killing of an infant, but has become synonymous with the action of a parent killing a child

137
Q

definition of neonaticide compared to filicide:

A

-refers to the killing of a newborn within the first 24hrs of birth whereas filicide refers to the killing of a child after 24 hrs

138
Q

describe axis two of the DSM:

A
  • divides personality disorders into 3 sections
    1. cluster A: paranoid/schizotypal
    2. cluster B: APD, histrionic, narcissistic, borderline (most likely to be associated with offending as you cant be diagnosed with APD without offending first)
    3. Cluster C: dependant, avoidant, OCD
139
Q

what is required in order to be found NCRMD?

A
  • person suffers from a mental disorder
  • he/she fails to appreciate the nature of quality of his/her acts
  • he/she may understand what they are doing but may not realize it is wrong
140
Q

what are the 3 options if found NCRMD?

A
  • absolute discharge
  • conditional discharge
  • detention in custody or hospital
141
Q

why do we have NCRMD laws?

A
  • it is against the fundamental basis of justice

- cant punish someone who had no idea that what they were doing was wrong

142
Q

what is the M’Naghten Rule?

A
  • labouring under such defect of reason from disease of the mind not to know the nature and quality of the act he was doing or if he did know what he was doing he didnt realize it was wrong
  • emphasizes cognitive elements
  • also known as the right or wrong test
143
Q

What was the movement between rules in the U.S. purpose?

A
  • to make it more difficult for an individual to be found NCR (NGRI)
144
Q

when relative to a mental disorder define presumption:

A

-belief that every person is presumed not to suffer from a mental disorder until the contrary is proved on the balance of possibilities

145
Q

when relative to mental disorders define burden of proof:

A

-must happen on the party who raises the issue

146
Q

Facts about NCRMD:

A
  • used in only 2 cases per 1000
  • 26% success rate
  • 15% of NCRMD charged with murder
  • automatism is not a reason for NCRMD
  • only 17% of individuals are found to recidivate
  • demographics show that it is mostly male aged 31
147
Q

what are symptoms of schizotypal personality disorder?

A
  • difficulty forming close relationships
  • presence of peculiar beliefs and behaviors
  • loner
  • suspicious
  • anxious
  • flat emotion
  • has psychotic episodes
148
Q

Describe what schizophrenia appears like:

A
  • loss of contact with reality
  • typically unrelated to offending
  • delusions
  • hallucinations
  • disorganized speech
  • grossly disorganized behaviour
  • in a state of psychosis
149
Q

what are the 5 different types of schizophrenia?

A
  1. disorganized: incoherent thought patterns
  2. catatonic: disturbances in muscular and voluntary movement
  3. paranoid: delusions or hallucinations
  4. undifferentiated: psychotic features
  5. residual: one episode with continuing risk, but not all symptoms present
150
Q

what is battered womens syndrome?why doesnt it fall under NCRMD?

A
  • women who go through seriously abusive relationships
  • brainwashed victims are not suffering from any recognizable mental disorder and it is seen as environmental rather than biological
151
Q

Facts about homicide:

A
  • accounts for 1-2% of all violent crime in the U.S.
  • rates have been decreasing since the 1970s
  • males are more likely to commit and be victims of homicide
  • tend to be young
152
Q

what is the difference between first degree and second degree murder?

A 
first= deliberate
second= not deliberate and not against a peace officer
153
Q

what is a general altercation?

A
  • most common

- ex) someone gets into a bar fight and one gets stabbed in a sensitive area and dies

154
Q

what is a felony+ homicide?

A

-ex) course of a bank robery teller reaches for a button and gets shot

155
Q

when referring to homicide what does “mass” mean?

A
  • 4+ victims
  • single location
  • no cooling off period
  • ex)school shooting
156
Q

when referring to homicide what does a “spree” mean?

A
  • 2+ victims
  • multiple locations
  • no cooling off period
  • ex) someone goes to work kills someone and the goes home and kills their family
157
Q

when referring to homicide what does ‘serial’ mean?

A
  • 3+ victims
  • typically multiple locations
  • cooling off period
  • ex)Clifford Olsen
158
Q

what did early theories relate homicide to compared to contemporary theories nowadays?

A
  • early: was due to maniacs who were psychopathic and cold-blooded
  • nowadays: due to bad luck, impulsivity, context, and lifestyle
159
Q

do individuals committing sexual homicide score high on the PCL-R?

A

-yes and offenders typically have deviant sexual interests

160
Q

facts about intimate partner violence:

A
  • 38,000 incidents reported in 2006

- 51% of women reported at least one incident since the age of 16

161
Q

what is dysphoric -borderline battere?

A
  • related to delusions

- may have an underlying mental disorder

162
Q

describe what white collar crime is:

A
  • often male, white, highly educated, and in upper management positions
  • more hedonistic, narcissistic tendencies, less self-control, more conscientious
  • lower integrity, irresponsibility, lack of dependability, disregard of rules and social norms
163
Q

who are two examples of white collar criminals?

A
  • Bernie Madoff: pyramid scheme with non-legitimate investment.. paying old clients with new clients money
  • Conrad Black is a canadian example, committed company misconduct
164
Q

what is money laundering?

A

disguising where money came from

165
Q

describe what organized crime is:

A
  • group of 3+ people
  • association is for the purpose of committing serious offences
  • police use this definition abusively in order to get increased funding to spend money to get new toys for a special unit
166
Q

what are some characteristics of organized crime?

A
  • violence and intimidation
  • critical skills
  • money laundering
  • have a purpose
  • use street-level gangs to insulate from risk
  • key point is that they seek to find someone else to hold the blame for them
167
Q

why did Lombroso feel females were involved in crime?

A
  • because they were hypersexual

- he was overly focused on biology and sexist

168
Q

why did William Healy believe females participated in crime?

A

-because they were just simply deviant

169
Q

pre 1960s how were female offenders viewed vs. post 1960s?

A
  • they were either ignored or assumed that the explanations for a male criminal would also explain females
  • after the 1960s it was assumed that all theories to describe a man of a crime could also describe a female
170
Q

what were 3 theories that helped figure female offenders out?

A
  1. theory of pathway research
  2. intergraded liberation and economic marginalized theory
  3. person, interpersonal, and community-reinforcement theory
171
Q

who were Simon and Alder?

A
  • they were feminists who paid close attention to female offenders
172
Q

what does the general diversion and custody restraint state?

A

-that all available sanctions other than custody that are reasonable in the circumstances should be considered for all young persons, with particular attention to the circumstances of Aboriginal young persons

173
Q

what group of people are most overrepresented in the criminal justice system?

A

aboriginal peoples

174
Q

what percentage of aboriginal offenders make up the inmate population?

A

16-20% even though they make up 3% of Canada’s population

175
Q

what are the causes for the overrepresentation of aboriginal people in prisons?

A
  • impact of colonialism and long-term mistreatment
  • offences by Aboriginal people are more likely to result in criminal justice processing
  • racial discrimination
  • differential impact of criminal justice on Aboriginal people
176
Q

How does the government plan to reduce the overrepresentation of Aboriginal people?

A
  • self-administered First Nations police (high burn out rate)
  • culturally appropriate treatment in correctional facilities
  • transfer of offenders to aboriginal communities
  • changes to sentencing practices
177
Q

what are some aboriginal treatment programs?

A
  • 23 healing programs across Canada
    ex) traditional spiritual practices, aboriginal literacy practices, sweat lodge ceremonies, drumming classes, and aboriginal healing lodges
  • it is unclear whether this leads to a lower level of recidivism

From Flashcardlet (20 decks)

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