Module 20: Reproductive System Flashcards

1
Q

5 Anatomical features found in male

A
Testes
Ducts
Accessory sex glands
Urethra
Penis
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2
Q

6 anatomical features found in female

A
Ovaries
Uterine tubes
Uterus
Cervix
Accessory sex glands
Vagina
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3
Q

Function of testes

A
  • produce sperm

* produce testosterone

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4
Q

Function of ducts

A

• transport, store, and assist in maturation of sperm

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5
Q

Function of accessory sex glands in male

A

• secrete bulk of semen

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6
Q

Function of penis

A
  • encloses urethra as passageway for excretion of urine

* + urethra used to introduce semen into female coitus and ejaculation

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7
Q

Function of ovaries

A
  • produce oocytes

* produce progesterone, estrogens, inhibin, and relaxin

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8
Q

Function of uterine tubes

A
  • transport oocyte to uterus

* site of fertilization

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9
Q

Function of uterus

A

• site of implantation of fertilized ovum and supports fetal development

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10
Q

Function of accessory sex glands in females

A

• secrete fluid during coitus (intercourse)

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11
Q

Function of vagina

A

• receives penis during coitus

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12
Q

Function of cervix and vagina

A

• passageway for childbirth

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13
Q

The specialized cells that when combined, make another, unique human being

A

Gametes

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14
Q

Gametes produced by male

A

Spermatozoa

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15
Q

A single spermatozoa

A

Spermatozoon

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16
Q

A canal enclosed by connective tissue that brings and takes rich blood supply to testes

A

Spermatic cord

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17
Q

Ducts which carry sperm

A

Ductus deferens (vas deferens)

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18
Q

Two muscles of the scrotum

A

Dartos

Cremaster

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19
Q

Surrounds the scrotal sac subcutaneously, will cause wrinkles in sac when muscle contracts

A

Dartos

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20
Q

Draws the testes higher in the scrotal sac to protect them and draw more body heat when necessary

A

Cremaster

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21
Q

Spermatozoa are made by

A

Spermatogenic cells

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22
Q

Function of sertoli (sustentacular) cells

A

Support spermatogensis

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23
Q

Function of Leydig cells

A

Produce androgens

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24
Q

Hormones which support male metabolism and secondary sex characteristics

A

Androgens

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25
Q

Inside each testis, a series of tubules(_________________) lead to a central network which then lead into the ____________.

A

(Seminiferous tubules), epididymis

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26
Q

Functions of scrotum

A
  • support and encloses testes and spermatozoa cord

* regulates temp of testes

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27
Q

Carries sperm from seminiferous tubules to prostate

A

Ductus deferens

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28
Q

______ and ______ add secretions and the mixture is dumped into urethra

A

Prostate and seminal vesicles

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29
Q

_________ glands add secretions just prior to ejaculation

A

Bulbourethral(Cowper’s)

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30
Q

_________ _______ consists of sponge-like venous passages which fill up with congested blood to make penis erect

A

Erectile tissue

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31
Q

3 structures associated with erectile tissue

A
Corpora cavernosa (R & L)
Corpus spongiosum
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32
Q

A midline structure that surrounds the urethras and also makes up the bulk of the glans penis

A

Corpus spongiosum

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33
Q

Uncircumcised men have _____ covering glans

A

Prepuce(foreskin)

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34
Q

Epididymis

A

Store and mature sperm

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35
Q

Protects sperm from the immune system

A

Blood-testes barrier

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36
Q

Stem cells that are found along basement membrane of seminiferous tubules, farthest from luminal surface

A

Spermatogonia

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37
Q

Sperm itinerary

A
  1. Released into lumen of seminiferous tubules of testes
  2. Mature in epididymis, wait for ejaculation
  3. Upon sexual stimulation leading to ejaculation, travel via ductus deferens
  4. Critical fluids from prostate and seminal vesicles are added
  5. Ejaculated through urethra of erect penis
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38
Q

Spermatogensis 1

A

Spermatozoon is born:

  1. Spermatogonia
  2. Primary spermatocytes
  3. Secondary spermatocytes
  4. Early spermatids
  5. Late spermatids
  6. Spermatozoa
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39
Q

Spermatogenesis 2

A

The waiting room:

  1. (Rete testes) after being produced in seminiferous tubules of testes, spermatozoa move to rete testes and cross imaginary border into epididymis
  2. (Ductus pididymis) Pass through efferent ducts to ductus epididymis
  3. (14 days)Ductus epididymis where sperm wait 14 days to mature
  4. (Contract=expel) Smooth muscle layer surrounding epididymis responds to sexual arousal by contracting = expelling sperm
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40
Q

The only cells in human body with flagellae

A

Sperm…flagellae allows them to be motile

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41
Q

Spermatogenesis 3

A

The Tubes:

  1. (Forced into deferens) upon leaving epididymis, spermatozoa forced into bad deferens
  2. (Cowper’s glands) bulbourethral glands secrete a small amt. of alkaline fluid to lubricate and buffer pH in urethra
  3. (Meet) vas deferens meet urethra at prostate
    - secretions from seminal vesicles and prostrated added
  4. (Semen) fluid officially semen
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42
Q

Spermatogenesis 4

A

Ejaculation:

  1. (Sympathetic) Sympathetic reflex coordinated by lumbar spinal cord
  2. (Internal closes) Internal urethral sphincter closes = prevent leakage of urine and backflow of sperm
  3. (Peristaltic waves) Peristaltic waves occur in epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles, ejaculatory ducts, and prostate
  4. (Contractions) Contractions of muscles at root of penis
    • bulbosponglosus
    • ischiocavernosa
    • superficial transverse perineus
  5. Emission and ejaculation
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43
Q

Is ejaculation sympathetic or parasympathetic

A

Sympathetic

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44
Q

Semen =

A

Sperm + fluid secretions

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45
Q

Seminal vesicles contribution to semen

A

pH, fructose, prostaglandins

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46
Q

The major unit which powers sperm motility

A

Fructose

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47
Q

Contribution to semen from prostate

A

Zinc, citrate, and enzyme acid phosphatase

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48
Q

______ give semen a milky quality

A

Prostatic secretion

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49
Q

One of the anti-clotting agents found in semen

A

Prostatic-specific antigen (PSA)

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50
Q

How much semen in average ejaculate

A

2.5-5mL

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51
Q

How much spermatozoa per mL

A

100 million

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52
Q

How much spermatozoa in semen to be defined as infertility

A
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53
Q

pH of semen

A

7.2-7.7 = neutralizes acidity of urethra and vagina

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54
Q

T/F: semen clots 5 minutes after ejaculation

A

True

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55
Q

Where are female gametes produced

A

Ovaries

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56
Q

If no fertilization occurs, or for some reason the embryo is unable to implant, then the uterine linings do ovum/embryo are flushed out of the uterus

A

Menstruation

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57
Q

Serves as an outlet for menstrual tissue, a channel for childbirth, and location of coitus

A

Vagina

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58
Q

The externally visible parts of the female reproductive system are collectively called

A

Vulva or pudendum

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59
Q

In younger women, a membranous structure that may partially or completely cover vaginal orifice

A

Hymen

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60
Q

3 parts of the vulva

A

External urethral orifice
Labia minora
Labia majora

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61
Q

Convey the female gamete from the ovaries to the uterus

A

Uterine tubes

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62
Q

T/F: there is no firm connection between the ovaries and uterine tubes

A

True

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63
Q

Condition where an oocyte may slip out of reproductive system and fertilize in peritoneum or other locations

A

Ectopic pregnancy

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64
Q

The removal of ovaries

A

Oophorsalpingohysterectomy

Or hysterectosalpingoopherectomy

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65
Q
  • stores and matures eggs

* secreted estrogens and progesterone

A

Ovaries

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66
Q
  • conduct egg from ovary to uterus

* usual site of conception

A

Uterine tubes

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67
Q

• site for embryo implantation

A

Uterus

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68
Q
  • muscular tube to permit insertion of penis

* flexible channel for childbirth

A

Vagina

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69
Q
  • external opening(introitus) for reproduction

* external urethral orifice allows urination

A

Vulva

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70
Q

The structure that encloses an oocyte and promotes its maturation is a

A

Follicle

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71
Q

The female reproductive years lie between

A

Menarche and menopause

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72
Q

First menstruation

A

Menarche

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73
Q

Last menstruation

A

Menopause

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74
Q

Precursors to the ova that undergo their last cell division before birth and remain in a quiescent state as ________ _______ until after menarche

A

Primary oocytes

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75
Q

What, in several concentric layers, surround a primary oocyte

A

Granulosa cells

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76
Q

What’s the follicle called when granulosa cells surround the primary oocyte

A

Primary follicle

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77
Q

What’s the follicle called when a fluid-filled pocket develops

A

Secondary follicle

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78
Q

What’s the follicle called when the fluid predominates

A

Mature/graafian follicle

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79
Q

When a mature/Graafian follicle ruptures

A

Ovulation

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80
Q

Stimulates development of a follicle in the ovary

A

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

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81
Q

What releases FSH and LG

A

Anterior pituitary

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82
Q

Average female reproductive cycle

A

28 days

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83
Q

What’s the oocyte called when the mature follicle ruptures releasing the oocyte

A

Secondary oocyte

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84
Q

In response to a surge of LH released from the pituitary once each month, the mature follicle ruptures and releases a secondary oocyte

A

Ovulation

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85
Q

The follicular cells of secondary and mature follicles secrete

A

Estrogens

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86
Q

after the follicle ruptures and the secondary oocyte is released, the follicle becomes filled with a yellowish, waxy substance called

A

Corpus luteum

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87
Q

The corpus luteum secretes ________ and ________ whose job it is to maintain the lining of the uterus and prepare woman’s body for implantation

A

Progesterone & estrogens

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88
Q

After 14 days, the corpus luteum no longer secretes hormone and becomes a _______ ________, a knot of scar tissue with no endocrine function

A

Corpus albicans

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89
Q

a knot of scar tissue with no endocrine function

A

Corpus albicans

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90
Q

Follicular development in the ovary

A
  1. Primordial follicle
  2. Primary follicle
  3. Secondary follicle
  4. Mature follicle
    • about 2 cm in diameter
  5. Ovulation ➡️ secondary oocyte expelled
  6. Corpus luteum
  7. Degenerating corpus luteum
  8. Corpus albicans (scar tissue)
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91
Q

Which part of menstrual cycle secondary and mature follicles secrete estrogens

A

Days 1-14

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92
Q

What part of menstrual cycle corpus luteum secreted progesterone and estrogens

A

15-28

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93
Q

Path of secondary oocyte

A

Released from follicle, from ovary @ ovulation ➡️ fimbriae ➡️ uterine tubes(encounters sperm) ➡️ undergoes cell division = ovum ➡️ fertilize = zygote ➡️ embryo ➡️ out tubes to uterus & implantation

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94
Q

Female gamete

A

Ovum

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95
Q

Inner lining of the uterus

A

Endometrium

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96
Q

Muscular layer of uterus

A

Myometrium

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97
Q

Serosa layer of uterus(nearest pelvic cavity)

A

Perimetrium

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98
Q

What is sloughed off during menstrual cycle

A

Epithelium & stratum functionalis

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99
Q

More than 90% of the thickness of the uterus is the

A

Myometriun

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100
Q

Blood flow in uterus

A

Internal iliac arteries ➡️ uterine arteries ➡️ arcuate arteries ➡️ radial arteries ➡️ branch into spiral arteries (shed with stratum functionalis) and straight Arterioles (stratum basalis not shed) ➡️ uterine veins ➡️ internal iliac veins

(IUARSSUI)

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101
Q

Muscular layer of uterus

A

Myometrium

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102
Q

Serosa layer of uterus(nearest pelvic cavity)

A

Perimetrium

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103
Q

What is sloughed off during menstrual cycle

A

Epithelium & stratum functionalis

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104
Q

More than 90% of the thickness of the uterus is the

A

Myometriun

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105
Q

Blood flow in uterus

A

Internal iliac arteries ➡️ uterine arteries ➡️ arcuate arteries ➡️ radial arteries ➡️ branch into spiral arteries (shed with stratum functionalis) and straight Arterioles (stratum basalis not shed) ➡️ uterine veins ➡️ internal iliac veins

(IUARSSUI)

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106
Q

3 layers of endometrium

A
  • simple columnar epithelium
  • stratum functionalis
  • stratum basalis
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107
Q

T/F: stratum functionalis is shed during menstrual cycle

A

True

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108
Q

T/F: Arterioles and venules of stratum functionalis are shed with endometrium during menstruation, then regrow from stratum basalis during proliferative phase

A

True

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109
Q

Menorrhagia

A

> 80 mL blood

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110
Q

How long does the ideal menstruation last of a 28 day cycle

A

7 days

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111
Q

Is there a complete or incomplete loss of stratum functionalis during menstruation

A

Complete

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112
Q

Stratum functionalis rebuilt during which phase

A

Proliferative

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113
Q

Which phase do glands of endometrium proliferate and endometrium becomes a secretory organ as well as “potting soil” for embryo

A

Secretory phase

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114
Q

2 phases of uterine cycle

A

Proliferative

Secretory

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115
Q

Average menstrual flow

A

37 mL per cycle

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116
Q

T/F: ovarian and uterine cycles are in sync

A

True

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117
Q

What is Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) from hypothalamus used for

A

To coordinate release of FSH and LH from anterior pituitary

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118
Q

What secretes estrogens to help maintain the growth and development of stratum functionalis of endometrium

A

Mature follicle

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119
Q

At the midpoint of the cycle, day 14, a burst of ___ and ___ triggers ovulation

A

FSH and LH

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120
Q

4 structures that secrete hormones used to coordinate ovarian and uterine cycles

A

Pituitary, follicle, corpus luteum, endometrial glands

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121
Q

A temporary endocrine organ that secretes progesterone and estrogens

A

Corpus luteum

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122
Q

Hormone that promotes development and maintenance of female reproductive structures, feminine secondary sex characteristics, & breasts

A

Estrogen

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123
Q

Hormone that ⬆️ protein anabolism

A

Estrogen

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124
Q

Hormone that ⬇️ blood cholesterol

A

Estrogen

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125
Q

Hormone that moderate levels inhibit release of GnRH, FSH, & LH

A

Estrogen

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126
Q

Hormone that works with estrogens to prepare endometrium for implantation

A

Progesterone

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127
Q

Hormone that prepares mammary glands to secrete milks

A

Progesterone

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128
Q

Hormone that inhibits release of GnRH & LH

A

Progesterone

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129
Q

Hormone that inhibits contractions of uterine smooth muscle

A

Relaxin

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130
Q

Hormone that during labor, increased flexibility of pubic symphysis and dilates uterine cervix

A

Relaxin

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131
Q

Hormone that inhibits release of FSH and, to a lesser extent, LH

A

Inhibin

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132
Q

Predominate estrogen in nonpregnant females

A

17B-estradiol

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133
Q

What is 17B-estradiol made from

A

Testosterone

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134
Q

Main estrogen form during menopause and later

A

Estrone

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135
Q

Main estrogen during pregnancy

A

Estriol

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136
Q

What makes estriol

A

Fetal liver

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137
Q

How long is normal gestation

A

40 weeks

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138
Q

All ___ week embryos start out as an indifferent gender(male and female appear exactly the same)

A

5

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139
Q

what gene on Y chromosome -> development of male gonads and genitalia

A

Sex-determining region Y (SRY)

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140
Q

Generic designation for female

A

XX

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141
Q

Genetic designation for Male

A

XY

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142
Q

If there is no ___ chromosome there is no SRY gene

A

Y

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143
Q

If SRY is not present ______ gonads develop

A

Female

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144
Q

Intersex/hermaphrodites

A

Development of gonads is somewhere between SRY-on and SRY-off

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145
Q

Estimate of intersex incidence

A

Range 0.02-1.7%

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146
Q

Analogous gonads

A

Male: testes
Female: ovaries

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147
Q

Analogous paramesoneohric ducts

A

Male: [degenerate]

Female: uterine tubes, uterus, vagina

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148
Q

Analogous glans area of genital tubercle

A

Male: glans penis & corpora cavernosum

Female: clitoris

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149
Q

Analogous urethral folds of genital tubercle

A

Male: penile urethra

Female: labia minora

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150
Q

Analogous labioscrotal swellings of genital tubercle

A

Male:
•penis, scrotum
•Corpus spongiosum

Female:
• labia majora
•Vestibular bulb, pubocervical fascia

151
Q

Analogous to prostate

A

Paraurethral

152
Q

Analogous to bulbourethral glands

A

Greater vestibular glands

153
Q

The region surrounding the genitals and anus

A

Perineum

154
Q

Two triangular regions or the perineum

A

Urogenital triangle

Anal triangle

155
Q

Are the vestibular bulb and greater vestibular glands present in male or female

A

Female only

156
Q

“Sitz bones” where our weight rests if we sit on a flat bench

A

Ischial tuberosities

157
Q

Primary sex organs

A

Gonads

158
Q

In both males and females, _____ from the hypothalamus directs the secretion of ____ or ____ from the anterior pituitary

A

GnRH, FSH, LH

159
Q

T/F: males have follicles and a corpora lutea

A

FALSE! Instead, FSH acts as a stimulant to the spermatogenic cells and sustentacular(Sertoli) cells of the testes

160
Q

What does FSH do in males

A

Act as a stimulant to the spermatogenic cells and Sertoli cells of testes

161
Q

In males what does LH do

A

Acts on Leydig cells of testes

162
Q

What can testosterone be converted to

A

Dihydrotestosterone

163
Q

A hormone that alters and maintains secondary sexual characteristics in males

A

Dihydrotestosterone

164
Q

A negative feedback loop controlled by __________ levels ensures that sperm are not over-produced

A

Inhibin

165
Q

Most body cells are

A

Somatic cells

166
Q

A process where the DNA content is doubles as and then divided equally between two daughter cells

A

Mitosis

167
Q

The chromosome content of somatic cells

A

Ploidy

168
Q

Somatic cells have 2 copies of every chromosome which makes them…..

A

Diploid

169
Q

Are gametes haploid or diploid

A

Haploid

170
Q

Meiosis is a ________ ________

A

Reduction division

171
Q

Where DNA content is reduced

A

Reduction division

172
Q

In meiosis are cells diploid or haploid

A

Both: start off diploid then are haploid after division

173
Q

During what phase of mitosis is DNA content doubled

A

S phase

174
Q

Where the two alleles from homologous chromosomes “swap places” on chromosomes during meiosis

A

Cross over

175
Q

And important feature unique to meiosis is

A

Crossing over

176
Q

What phase of meiosis does genetic recombination occur

A

Prophase of Meiosis 1

177
Q

Mitosis or Meiosis: a cell division where the DNA of the daughter cells is exactly the same sequence in the same order as that of the parent cell

A

Mitosis

178
Q

Mitosis or Meiosis: involves tetrad formation and crossing over

A

Meiosis

179
Q

Mitosis or Meiosis: a reduction division

A

Meiosis

180
Q

Mitosis or Meiosis: preserves the ploidy and n number of the cell.

A

Mitosis

181
Q

Multiplication of the n number in mitosis occurs during what phase

A

S phase

182
Q

Diploid or haploid: precursors of gametes

A

Diploid

Resulting cell = haploid

183
Q

Diploid or haploid: When 2 haploid gametes meet, and the Nucleu combine, the resulting cell is

A

Diploid

184
Q

Fertilized ovum

A

Zygote

185
Q

Zygo turns into…

A

Divided mitotically into an embryo, then fetus

186
Q

T/F: mitosis is a cyclical process

A

True

187
Q

Mitosis or Meiosis: once cells become gametes, they can’t ever produce new cells except by joining another gamer in fertilization

A

Meiosis

188
Q

All cells of the body except germ cells

A

Somatic cells

189
Q

Do spermatogonia undergo mitosis or meiosis

A

Mitosis

190
Q

As long as spermatogonia stay near the basement membrane, they remain a ________________ and divide by ___________

A

Stem cell, mitosis

191
Q

If spermatogonia leave the basement membrane that begin a process of ____________

A

Differentiation

192
Q

What happens when spermatogonia go through differentiation

A

They become a primary spermatocyte (diploid)

193
Q

Primary spermatocytes undergo _____________ to become ____________

A

Meiosis 1, secondary spermatocyte(haploid)

194
Q

What happens when secondary spermatocytes undergo meiosis 2

A

They split up their DNA into individual chromatids = haploid spermatids

195
Q

T/F: spermatids undergo further differentiation after meiosis 2, but have no further changes in DNA content

A

True….so they end up haploid (1n spermatozoa)

196
Q

Which are euploid
• haploid
• diploid
• polyploid

A

All

197
Q

Euploid: 23 X 1 =

A

Haploid

198
Q

Euploid: 23 X 2 =

A

Diploid

199
Q

Euploid: 23 X anything > 2 =

A

Polyploid

200
Q

When does meiosis 1 begin in female gametes

A

After oogonia undergo their last mitotic division in female fetus

201
Q

Female gametes undergo meiosis 1 =

A

Primary oocyte

202
Q

How long do oocytes stay suspended halfway through meiosis 1

A

10-50 years

203
Q

How many primary oocytes respond to the hormonal signals from the pituitary after menarche

A

5-12

204
Q

How many of the 5-12 primary oocytes generally progress all the way meiosis 1 and to form what

A

1 to form secondary oocyte

205
Q

Remaining genetic material, of primary oocyte after changing into secondary oocyte, is disposed of by the body forming….

A

The first polar body

206
Q

Does the secondary oocyte complete meiosis 2

A

No, unless sperm penetrates

207
Q

When secondary oocyte completes meiosis 2 it becomes an

A

Ovum

208
Q

After becoming an ovum, the genetic material is again disposed to form

A

Second polar body

209
Q

For a time, female DNA and male DNA remain separate, as female and male _____

A

Pronuclei

210
Q

After male and female DNA pronuclei they eventually fuse to form ______________

A

The diploid zygote (2n)

211
Q

The fusion of pronuclei to form a zygote is _____________ of embryonic development

A

Time zero

212
Q

Primary sex characteristics in males

A

Penis, scrotum, and associated glands

213
Q

Primary Sex characteristics in females

A

Vulva, ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, and associated glands

214
Q

Male secondary sex characteristics

A
  • Body hair in pubic region, arms, and legs
  • deeper voice
  • more prominent Adam’s apple
  • more muscular and skeletal growth
215
Q

Female secondary sex characteristics

A
  • body hair in public region, arms, and legs
  • larger breasts
  • wider hips
216
Q

__________ ands _________ change structure of the embryonic and newborn brain

A

Androgens and estrogens

217
Q

During puberty, a burst of ____ from the hypothalamus leads to _ ____ and _ ___ which in turn _ ___ and _ ___

A

GnRH, ⬆️ LH, ⬆️ FSH, ⬆️ androgens, ⬆️ estrogens

218
Q

Puberty is triggered by _________ _________

A

Complex interactions

219
Q

T/F: ⬆️ obesity does not affect onset of puberty

A

False: it is a factor responsible for change. It acts on and endocrine organ and may alter the developmental clock

220
Q

Which is a gradual process…menarche or menopause

A

Menopause

221
Q

Average age of menarche

A

Just over 12

222
Q

Relatively sudden….menarche or menopause

A

Menarche

223
Q

Theories of ongoing decline in average age of menarche:

  • decline over last few centuries due to better nutrition, health
  • decline in last few decades due to childhood obesity? Other factors?
A

🙂

224
Q

An instrument for measuring penile erection

A

Penile plesmythograph

225
Q

An instrument for measuring penile erection

A

Penile plesmythograph

226
Q

Sexual response is easier to study in males or females

A

Males

227
Q

Incoming sensory information from structures which produce sexual arousal comes into spinal cord at ________

A

S2-S4

228
Q

Nerves of sexual arousal:

Outgoing striated motor and parasympathetic autonomic

A

S2-S4

229
Q

Nerves of Sexual Arousal:

Outgoing sympathetic autonomic (motor) at

A

T10-L2

230
Q

T/F: the brain does not influence the basic sexual arousal reflex pathway

A

False! It does influence!!

231
Q

Penile erection results from

A

Congestion in the corpora cavernosa

232
Q

The processes that work together to cause penile erection

A
  1. Relaxation of smooth muscle in corpora cavernosa
  2. Vasodilation ⬆️ arterial blood flow to penis
  3. Restricted flow of blood out of the penis due to compression of dorsal veins
233
Q

What promotes dilation of blood vessels throughout the body

A

Nitric oxide

234
Q

Increased ___ promotes penile erection by stimulating all of the the processes

A

NO (nitric oxide)

235
Q

_____ ______ is a neurotransmitter that causes vasodilation

A

Nitric oxide

236
Q

Mouse eNOS mutants:

A

Unable to make NO = ⬆️ arterial blood pressure than “normal” mice

237
Q

Why is nitroglycerine used in angina(heart pain from decreases blood flow to heart)

A

Because NO causes vasodilation

238
Q

As blood vessels dilate in corpora cavernosa….

A

Penile erection occurs

239
Q

Mechanism of Action of Viagra:

Normally, the signaling molecule involved is inactivates by an enzyme called ____

A

PDE5

240
Q

________ block PDE5 and prolongs smooth muscle relaxation

A

Sildenafil (Viagra)

241
Q

Can NO cause erection of the clitoris

A

Yes, because it’s still a dilation of vasculature

242
Q

Is the erection of the clitoris enough to cause a sexual response in females

A

No

243
Q

____ and _____ _____ are the only structure which demonstrate ⬆️ blood flow during sexual arousal

A

Clitoris & vaginal bulb

244
Q

An area surrounding the female introitus

A

Vestibular bulb

245
Q

Entrance to the vagina

A

Introitus

246
Q

The _______ ____, the _______ ______, and the ______ ______ embedded in nearby tissue, are also homologous to the corpus spongiosum penis in males, so that embryonic origin is consistent with a similar role in female sexual arousal

A

Vestibular bulb, pubocervical fascia (Halban’s fascia), paraurethral glands(skenes glands)

247
Q

A location in the vaginal wall near the position of the pubocervical fascia

A

Grafenberg spot (G-spot)

248
Q

The vestibular glands have been implicated in providing the _______ that accompanies sexual arousal in females

A

Lubrication

249
Q

Is the lubrication from the vestibular glands in females sufficient for sex purposes

A

No

250
Q

Four stages of sexual arousal in the Masters and Johnson Model of female response

A
  1. Excitement
  2. Plateau
  3. Orgasm
  4. Resolution
251
Q

What kind of response is the focus in the Masters and Johnson Model

A

Physiological

252
Q

Stages of the Kaplan model of female sexual arousal

A
  1. Desire (psychological)
  2. Excitement
  3. Orgasm (physiological)
253
Q

Basson model of female sexual response posits that _________________________________ is the primary motivator for sexual activity

A

Emotional intimacy

254
Q

Model of female sexual response that is based on “male”, hydraulic model of sexual arousal

A

Masters and Johnson

255
Q

Model of female sexual arousal that is a motivation model

A

Kaplan

256
Q

Model of female sexual arousal that states women engage in sexual intercourse because of desire for emotional closeness (sexual neutrality)

A

Basson

257
Q

How long can some survive after ejaculation

A

3 days

258
Q

How long does an unfertilized secondary oocyte survive

A

2 days after ovulation

259
Q

Where does conception(fertilization) take place

A

Uterine tubes

260
Q

What is the name of the head of sperm

A

Acrosome

261
Q

What is the unpolymerized actin in the acrosome of the spermatozoon

A

Profilacin

262
Q

Profilactin is converted to actin in the _______ ________

A

Acrosomal reaction

263
Q

This process helps the spermatozoon penetrate the secondary oocyte

A

Acrosomal reaction

264
Q

About how many sperm are released to begin journey in the female reproductive tract

A

300 Million

265
Q

T/F: thousands of spermatozoa reach the uterine tube

A

False! Only a few hundred

266
Q

T/F: some sperm can complete the journey to the uterine tubes within a few minutes

A

True

267
Q

Occurs when a single spermatozoon penetrates the secondary oocyte, causing it to develop an ovum

A

Fertilization

268
Q

What kind of twins occur when two oocytes are shed

A

Dizygotic (fraternal)

269
Q

What kind of twins occur when the zygote splits into two embryos in an early division

A

Monozygotic (identical)

270
Q

Can fertilization occur if > 1 spermatozoon penetrates a single oocyte

A

No

271
Q

2 block to polyspermy

A

Fast
&
Slow

272
Q

What forms when granulosa cells from the follicle partially surround the ovulated secondary oocyte

A

Corona radiata (radiant crown)

273
Q

A thick, clear layer, that also surrounds the oocyte

A

Zona pellucida

274
Q

In what reaction does the penetration of oocyte by the first spermatozoon cause calcium ions to be released from cortical granules in the oocyte

A

Cortical reaction

275
Q

In the cortical reaction, the penetration of the oocyte by the first spermatozoon causes calcium ions to be released from what in the oocyte

A

Cortical granules

276
Q

Two layers that surround occyte

A

Corona radiata

Zona pellucida

277
Q

What is lifted in result of the cortical reaction

A

Zona pellucida

278
Q

Can sperm penetrate the oocyte membrane when contact between Zona pellucida and oocyte is lost

A

No

279
Q

Where do sperm undergo capacitation

A

Uterine tubes

280
Q
  • flagella beat more vigorously
  • plasma membrane of spermatozoa prepared to fuse with plasma membrane of secondary oocyte
    ~ cholesterol, glycoproteins, and proteins scrubbed off spermatozoon’s membrane
A

Sperm capacitation

281
Q

A two symmetrical, equal cell

A

Two-cell embryo

282
Q

A two symmetrical, equal cell

A

Two-cell embryo

283
Q

5 steps of fertilization to implantation in first week

A
  1. Fertilization (12-34 hrs after ovulation)
  2. Cleavage (30 hrs after fertilization)
  3. Morula (3-4 days)
  4. Blastocyst (4.5-5 days)
  5. Implantation (6 days)
284
Q

When sperm and egg unite it forms a

A

Diploid zygote

And starts our developmental “clock”

285
Q

Stages of embryo in first week of fertilization and implantation

A
  • two-cell
  • four-cell
  • morula
  • blastocyst
286
Q

Occurs within uterine tube within 12-24 hrs after ovulation

A

Fertilization

287
Q

First one is completed about 30 ha after fertilization

A

Cleavage

288
Q

3-4 days after fertilization

A

Morula

289
Q

4.5-5 days after fertilization

A

Blastocyst

290
Q

Occurs about 6 days after fertilization

A

Implantation

291
Q

The point of contact between the blastocyst and the endometrium, under the influence of chemical factors released by the uterus, begins to develop into what

A

Inner cell mass

292
Q
  • blastocyst makes contact with the endometrial wall
  • inner cell mass develops
  • problem: embryo is “foreign” tissue
  • implantation involved evading mother’s defense mechanism
A

Day 6: implantation

293
Q

Three layers that the blastocyst develop

A
  • Trophoblast
  • Inner cell mass -> embryonic disc
  • yolk sac
294
Q
  • upon implantation, the blastocyst divides into three parts

* the endometrial lining becomes the decidua

A

Days 8-12: implantation

295
Q

A folding process that creates three germ layers in the embryo

A

Gastrulation

296
Q

Three germ layers created from gastrulation

A
  1. Ectoderm
  2. Mesoderm
  3. Endoderm
297
Q

Becomes skin and nervous system

A

Ectoderm

298
Q

Becomes connective tissue, muscles, and bones

A

Mesoderm

299
Q

Becomes gut tube

A

Endoderm

300
Q

_________ is necessary for organogenesis to begin

A

Gastrulation

301
Q

Cancer coming from ectoderm

A

Carcinomata

302
Q

Cancer coming from the mesoderm

A

Sarcomata

303
Q

3 things the placenta provides

A
  • food to embryo
  • oxygenated blood to embryo
  • protection for the embryo from invaders with antibodies
304
Q

Placenta =

A

1/2 embryonic tissue

1/2 maternal tissue

305
Q

Embryonic tissue formed loops of blood vessels

A

Chorionic villi

306
Q

Circular “wall” around the entire embryonic project area

A

Chorion

307
Q

One of the most common abnormalities detected by chorionic villus biopsy

A

Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)

308
Q

What does development of extraembryonic membrane begin with

A

Lacunae (open spaces)

309
Q

When can chorionic villus sampling(biopsy) be done

A

As early as 8 weeks

310
Q

Researchers estimate 50% of spontaneous abortions are from what

A

Nondisjuction syndromes (like Down syndrome)

311
Q

Trisomy 21 or other chromosomal abnormalities result from what

A

Nondisjunction

312
Q

Failure to separate chromosomes

A

Nondisjunction

313
Q

In meiosis, all four chromatids of 21 are supposed to arrive where

A

In different gametes

314
Q

How heavy is the placenta by the time of birth

A

500g

315
Q

Oxygenated blood flowing from mother to child flows through what

A

Umbilical vein

316
Q

Blood flow through structure of placenta

A
  1. Maternal circulation
  2. Maternal endometrial arteriole
  3. Fetal blood vessels is chorionic villi
  4. Umbilical vein
  5. Embryo
  6. Umbilical artery
  7. Fetal blood vessels in chorionic villi
  8. Maternal endometrial Venule

(more mothers fight until embryo unties father & mother)

317
Q

What’s the tissue of the mother that form around the embryo

A

Decidua

318
Q

When does embryonic folding organogenesis begin

A

Days 20-28

319
Q

A prominent feature of the dorsal surface of the Embryo, forming a distinct groove

A

Neural folds

320
Q

The fetal brain form from what

A

Neural tube

321
Q

Substances which cause birth defects can strongly influence development

A

Teratogens

322
Q

The time when systems are sensitive

A

Critical period

323
Q

Rubella, cytomegalovirus, toxoplasma, radiation, and some other chemicals are examples of what

A

Teratogens

324
Q

A fertilization to 8 weeks

A

Embryonic period

325
Q

9 weeks to birth

A

Fetal period

326
Q

Which period is there growth and development of fetus, but most involved the organs carrying out a development plan set out during the embryonic period

A

Fetal period

327
Q

Normal gestation is

A

40 wks

328
Q

Four hormones released by placenta

A
  • human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
  • relaxin
  • human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS)
  • corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
329
Q
  • maintains corpus luteum
  • corpus luteum continues to secrete progesterone, estrogens
  • basis for home pregnancy testing
A

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

330
Q
  • increases flexibility of pubic symphysis and AIDS in cervical dilation
A

Relaxin

331
Q
  • alters maternal metabolism
A

Human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS)

332
Q
  • control timing of birth

- ⬆️ secretion of cortisol

A

Corticotropin-releasing hormon (CRH)

333
Q

Spike of hCG is earliest

A

Peak between 8-10 wks

334
Q

Physiological changes of pregnancy in cardiovascular system (7)

A
  • ⬆️ blood flow to placenta
  • ⬆️ stroke volume
  • ⬆️ cardiac output
  • heart rate
  • blood volume
  • compression of inferior vena cava = edema in legs and varicose veins
  • compression of renal artery = renal hypertension
335
Q

Physiological changes of pregnancy in respiratory system (5)

A
  • ⬆️ tidal volume
  • ⬆️ ventilation
  • ⬆️ total oxygen consumption
  • ⬇️ expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
  • dyspnea possible
336
Q

Physiological changes of pregnancy in GI system

A
  • ⬆️ appetite

* ⬇️ bowel motility

337
Q

Physiological changes of pregnancy in Urinary system

A
  • pressure on urinary bladder

* ⬆️ Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)

338
Q

Three stages of labor

A

Dilation
Expulsion
Placental

339
Q
  • onset of labor to dilation of cervix
  • about 6-12 hrs
  • regular contractions
  • usually rupturing of amniotic sac (breaking water)
  • ends with complex dilation of cervix
A

Dilation stage

340
Q
  • 10 minutes to several hrs

- ends with delivery of the baby

A

Expulsion stage

341
Q
  • 5-30 min
  • ends with expulsion of placenta
  • powerful uterine contractions expel placenta and help control bleeding
A

Placental stage

342
Q

Is labor (parturition) a neg or pos feedback loop

A

Positive

343
Q

Homeostatic control of labor:

Input: stretching of cervix sends sensory info to brain
Processing and output: brain interprets signal, releases OXYTOCIN from POSTERIOR PITUITARY
• oxytocin causes uterus to contract more forcefully
• delivery of baby stops pos feedback loop
• synthetic oxytocin can be used to stimulate this homeostatic loop

A

🙂

344
Q

Is milk let-down reflex a pos or neg feedback loop

A

Positive

345
Q

Suckling

Input: baby sucks nipple
Processing and output: hypothalamus and posterior pituitary
- releases oxytocin which stimulates “Milk let-down reflex”
• cycle continues until baby stops suckling

A

🙂

346
Q

What kind of glands are mammary glands

A

Modified suderiferous (sweat) glands

347
Q

Embedded in adipose tissue of mammary glands is a set of

A

Alveolar glands

348
Q

The alveolar glands in mammary glands are surrounded by

A

Myoepithelial cells

349
Q

Contract in response to oxytocin in mammary glands

A

Myoepithelial cells

350
Q

The nipple is surrounded by a pigmented tissue

A

Areola

351
Q

Structure of breast is maintained by ligaments

A

Suspensory ligaments

352
Q

Lobes separated by adipose tissue have (2)

A

Lobules & alveoli

353
Q

Travel of milk in mammary glands

A
  1. Alveoli
  2. Mammary ducts
  3. Lactiferous sinuses
  4. Lactiferous ducts
  5. Nipple
354
Q

Probability of pregnancy from a single, unprotected act of intercourse

A

2-4%

355
Q

Peak of probability of pregnancy from a single, unprotected act of coitus

A

8% (days 12-14)

356
Q

Lowest probability of pregnancy from a single unprotected act of coitus

A

0% (days 1-2)

357
Q

Ductus deferens is isolated and resected

  • sometimes causes nerve damage
  • may not be reversible
A

Vasectomy

358
Q

Uterine tubes cut and tied off

  • complicated, invasive, expensive surgery
  • not reversible
A

Tubal ligation

359
Q

Only true reliable method of birth control

A

Abstinence

360
Q

2nd best in terms of efficient birth control

A

Surgical methods

  • vasectomy
  • tubal ligation
361
Q

Are female hormonal control methods of birth control highly effective

A

Yes, if used properly

362
Q

Purpose of Intrauterine device (IUD)

A

Prevent implantation of embryo

363
Q

Failure rate of male condom used properly

A

6%

364
Q

Failure rate of an improperly used condom

A

14%

365
Q

What type of birth control? Protection rate(high, middle, low)

  • oral contraceptive
  • non-oral contraceptives
A

Hormonal methods, middle-high

366
Q

What type of birth control? Protection rate(high, middle, low)

• intrauterine devices

A

Intrauterine device, middle

367
Q

What type of birth control? Protection rate(high, middle, low)

• spermicides (alone)

A

Spermicides (alone), middle-low

368
Q

What type of birth control? Protection rate(high, middle, low)

  • male condom
  • vaginal pouch
  • diaphragm
  • cervical cap
A

Barrier methods, low

369
Q

What type of birth control? Protection rate(high, middle, low)

  • rhythm method
  • sympto-thermal method (STM)
A

Periodic abstinence, lower

370
Q

What type of birth control? Protection rate(high, middle, low)

• no method

A

No method, lowest

371
Q

What type of birth control? Protection rate(high, middle, low)

•complete abstinence

A

Complete abstinence, highest

372
Q

What type of birth control? Protection rate(high, middle, low)

  • vasectomy
  • tubal ligation
A

Surgical sterilization, higher

373
Q

What type of birth control? Protection rate(high, middle, low)

• non-incisional sterilization

A

Non-incisional sterilization, high