Simplified Final Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 layers of the epidermis from deep to superficial?

A
Stratum Basale
Stratum Spinosum
Stratum Granulosum
Stratum Lucidum
Stratum Corneum
(BSGLC)
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2
Q

What type of epithelium is the skin?

A

Stratified Squamous Epithelium

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3
Q

is found in only thick (hairless) skin

A

Stratum Lucidum

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4
Q

Where are keratinocytes made?

A

Stratum Basale

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5
Q

The layer from which all cells are regenerated in the skin

A

Stratum Basale

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6
Q

Sheded flakes of skin are referred to as

A

Squames

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7
Q

What are the four cells found in the epidermis?

A

Keratinocytes
Melanocytes
Langerhans Cells
Merkel Discs

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8
Q

Cells which carry pigment granules that give the skin its color

A

Langerhans Cells

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9
Q

Langerhans cells are a type of _____ cell

A

dendritic

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10
Q

A type of nervous system cell that detects light touch

A

Merkel Disc

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11
Q

Help to waterproof the skin

A

Keratin

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12
Q

What vitamin is synthesized in the skin

A

Vitamin D

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13
Q

is a dense connective layer beneath the epidermis

A

Dermis

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14
Q

The dermis is made up of what few type of cells?

A

Collagen and elastic fibers

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15
Q

about 1/5 of the thickness of the dermis

A

Papillary region

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16
Q

Palms, fingertips, and soles of the feet, the underlying structure of the dermis causes the skin to have fingerprints.

A

Papillary region

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17
Q

about 4/5 of the thickness of the dermis

A

Reticular region

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18
Q

Nerves and blood vessels runs through this layer. Hair roots and glands are present here

A

Reticular region

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19
Q

Stretch marks are referred to as

A

Striae

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20
Q

A bone stem cell and is the precursor to all other cell types

A

Osteogenic cell

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21
Q

Dividing cells. Laying down the components of bone. Bone building cells. Forms bone

A

Osteoblasts

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22
Q

Bone cells. Maintain bone integrity.

A

Osteocytes

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23
Q

Constantly tunnel through bone. Dissolving the bone matrix as they go. Bone chewing. Breaks down bone.

A

Osteoclasts

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24
Q

Inorganic (mineralized) component of bone is primarily

A

Hydroxyapatite (calcium, hydroxyl, and phosphate)

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25
Q

Organic (protein) component of bone is primarily

A

Collagen type 1

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26
Q

When there is too much bone minerals, it becomes brittle and fractures easily

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

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27
Q

If a bone has too much collagen, bones are soft and pliable, as in

A

Rickets (children)

Osteomalacia (adults)

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28
Q

What does PTH do with bone cells?

A

Stimulates osteoclasts

Inhibits osteoblasts

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29
Q

What does Calcitonin (CT) do with bone cells?

A

Stimulates osteoblasts

Inhibits osteclasts

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30
Q

If you have a low blood calcium, what happens to osteoblasts and osteoclasts?

A

Stimulation of osteoclasts

Inhibition of osteoblasts

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31
Q

If you have a high blood calcium, what happens to osteoblasts and osteoclasts?

A

Stimulation of osteoblasts

Inhibition of osteoclasts

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32
Q

If blood calcium is too low, what hormone kicks in?

A

PTH

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33
Q

If blood calcium is too high, what hormone kicks in?

A

Calcitonin

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34
Q

What does PTH do to blood calcium?

A

Raises it

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35
Q

What does Calcitonin do to blood calcium?

A

Lowers it

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36
Q

What does Calcitriol do?

A

Detects low blood calcium in the kidneys and increases absorption in the GI tract

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37
Q

Part of the nasal sinuses. Back of the eye.

A

Ethmoid Bone

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38
Q

A horshoe shaped “floating bone” in the neck

A

Hyoid Bone

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39
Q

Small bone that forms the bridge of the nose.

A

Nasal Bone

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40
Q

Forming the roof of the mouth

A

Palatine Bone

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41
Q

Complex shape in the center of the skull, butterfly shaped bone

A

Sphenoid

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42
Q

A bone between the ethmoid, maxilla and palatine bone

A

Vomer

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43
Q

The largest part of a vertebra is the

A

Body

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44
Q

A joint between two adjacent bodies is filled with a disk of fibrocartilage

A

Intervertebral Disc

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45
Q

Extend laterally on the vertebrae

A

Transverse processes

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46
Q

Connects the transverse process to the vertebral body

A

Pedicle

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47
Q

Is a projection which protrudes posteriorly on a vertebrae

A

Spinous process

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48
Q

Joins a transverse process to the spinous process

A

Laminae

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49
Q

The first cervical vertebrae is called the

A

Atlas

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50
Q

The second cervical vertebrae is called the

A

Axis

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51
Q

Nod or bump located on C2.

A

Dens

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52
Q

What is unique about a cervical vertebrae?

A

Bifid

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53
Q

C7 is referred to as

A

Vertebra prominens

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54
Q

Made up of 5 fused vertebrae

A

Sacrum

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55
Q

Made up of 3-4 fused vertebrae

A

Coccyx

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56
Q

What are ribs 1-7 referred to as?

A

True ribs. This is because they directly connect c the sternum.

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57
Q

Ribs 8-10 are referred to as?

A

False ribs. This is because they use rib 7 to articulate c the sternum.

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58
Q

Ribs 11-12 are referred to as

A

Floating ribs.

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59
Q

What two bones form the pectoral girdle?

A

Clavicle

Scapula

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60
Q

Three bones that make up the pelvis.

A

Ilium
Ischium
Pubis

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61
Q

Two halves of the pelvis join where?

A

Pubic Symphysis

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62
Q

Socket for the head of the femur is called

A

Acetabulum

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63
Q

Largest bone in the body

A

Femur

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64
Q

Kneecap

A

Patella

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65
Q

Ankle Bones

A

Tarsals

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66
Q

Big toe is referred to as

A

Halux

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67
Q

Knuckle on bone

A

Condyle

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68
Q

On top of a condyle

A

Epicondyle

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69
Q

Window

A

Foramen

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70
Q

Ditch

A

Fossa

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71
Q

Projection

A

Process

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72
Q

Like process, but pointed.

A

Spine

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73
Q

Pulley

A

Trochlea

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74
Q

Little potato

A

Tubercle

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75
Q

Potato-like bump

A

Tuberosity

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76
Q

Point of contact between the nervous system and the muscular system

A

Neuromuscular Junction

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77
Q

Motor neurons release what neurotransmitters?

A

ACh

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78
Q

Last neuron in the motor neuron is called

A

Alpha motor neuron

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79
Q

Breaks apart ACh molecule at its ester linkage

A

Acetylcholinesterase

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80
Q

Help action potential penetrate deep into the muscle fibers

A

Transverse tubules (T tubules)

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81
Q

Two sarcoplasmic reticulum and a T tubule make up a

A

Triad

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82
Q

The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases what?

A

Calcium Ions

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83
Q

Calcium binds to what in muscle cells?

A

Troponin

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84
Q

Troponin does what once calcium is present?

A

Moves tropomyosin for action and myosin to attach

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85
Q

Sensory nerves are also called

A

Afferent nerves

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86
Q

Motor nerves are also called

A

Efferent nerves

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87
Q

Energy is converted to the nervous system through the process called

A

Transduction

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88
Q

Comprises those which are not under conscious control. a.k.a. don’t involve the cerebral cortex

A

Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)

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89
Q

Begins in the cerebral cortex and passes through the spinal cord. For skeletal and voluntary muscle.

A

Somatic Nervous System

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90
Q

Nerve cells are called.

A

Neurons

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91
Q

Glial cells are called

A

Glia

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92
Q

What are the four types of glial cells?

A

Astrocytes (astroglia)
Oligodendrocytes (Oligodendroglia)
Microglia
Ependymal cells

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93
Q

All atoms want to move from high to low concentration

A

Concentration forces

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94
Q

Positive ions want to move where there are excess negative charges and vice versa

A

Electrical forces

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95
Q

Concentration (diffusional) forces pushes K+…

A

Out of the cell

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96
Q

Electrical forces push K+…

A

Into the cell

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97
Q

Concentration (diffusional) forces push Na+…

A

Into the cell

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98
Q

Electrical forces push Na+…

A

Into the cell

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99
Q

Depolarization occurs when

A

Sodium channels open

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100
Q

Repolarization occurs when

A

Potassium channels open

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101
Q

Open up all voltage gated sodium channels. The tipping point is called..

A

Treshold

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102
Q

During the time that sodium channels are inactivated and potassium channels are open, nothing can change the state of these cells.

A

Refractory Period

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103
Q

When firing an action potential is impossible, we call this

A

Absolute refractory period

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104
Q

When its difficult to fire an action potential, because all of the channels have reset we call this

A

Relative refractory period

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105
Q

What are the sequence of events at the synapse?

A
  1. Action potential arrives
  2. Ca++ enters terminal
  3. Ca++ interacts with synaptic vesicles
  4. Neurotransmitter released from vesicles
  5. Receptor protein undergoes a change
  6. Ion flow results in a Post synaptic potential
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106
Q

When a cell becomes more negative

A

Inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)

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107
Q

When a cell becomes more positive

A

Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)

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108
Q

Where a chemical signal acts on receptors on the same cell that release the chemical signal. Cells signal themselves.

A

Autocrine signaling

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109
Q

Where a chemical signal travels a short distance to neighboring cells in the same organ. Cells signaling neighbors

A

Paracrine signaling

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110
Q

Where a hormone is release to act on receptors on a distant organ. Cells signaling distant targets.

A

Endocrine signaling

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111
Q

Have channels that open and close in response to outside chemical signals

A

Ionotropic Receptors

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112
Q

Proteins that change the internal biochemistry of the cell in response to outside chemical signals

A

Metabotropic receptors

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113
Q

Tapering portion at the end of the spinal cord

A

Filum terminale

114
Q

Part of spinal cord that processes sensory information

A

Posterior (dorsal) horn

115
Q

Part of spinal cord that contains cell bodies of neurons

A

Anterior (ventral) horn

116
Q

Three layers that cover brain

A

Meninges

117
Q

Name the meninges from superficial to deep

A

Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
Pia mater

118
Q

Large hole at bottom of skull

A

Foramen Magnum

119
Q

Spinal cord ends in a bundle of nerves called

A

Cauda Equina (horses tail)

120
Q

White matter predominates at what spinal level?

A

Cervical

121
Q

Gray matter predominate at what spinal level?

A

Sacral

122
Q

Contains cell bodies of sensory neurons

A

Dorsal root ganglion

123
Q

Fight of flight system

A

Sympathetic Nervous System

124
Q

Describe sympathetic ganglionic fibers

A

Short preganglionic

Long postganglionic

125
Q

Where are sympathetic ganglia located on the spinal cord?

A

Thoracic and lumbar regions

126
Q

What neurotransmitter is released on the postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system

A

Norepinephrine

127
Q

Rest and digest system

A

Parasympathetic Nervous System

128
Q

Describe parasympathetic ganglionic fibers

A

Long preganglionic

Short postganglionic

129
Q

Effectors for the ANS

A

Smooth muscle
Cardiac muscle
Glands

130
Q

Effectors for somatic NS

A

Skeletal muscle

131
Q

Neurotransmitter for ANS (Sympathetic)

A

Norepinephrine receptors

132
Q

Neurotransmitter for ANS (Parasympathetic)

A

Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

133
Q

Neurotransmitter for somatic NS

A

Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

134
Q

Shaped like the letter C located beneath white matter of cerebral cortex

A

Lateral ventricle

135
Q

Slit-like opening between the two eggs of the thalamus

A

Third ventricle

136
Q

Between the brainstem and cerebellum

A

Fourth ventricle

137
Q

Connects the third and fourth ventricle

A

Cerebral Aqueduct

138
Q

KNOW CRANIAL NERVES.

  • Know mnemonic
  • Know whether they are sensory or motor
  • Be able to label them on a diagram.
A

:)

139
Q

Refer to the neuron that makes the final contact between the nervous system and effector organ

A

Lower motor neuron

140
Q

All other neurons in the brain and spinal cord that influence movement but do not make direct contact with a skeletal muscle fiber

A

Upper motor neuron

141
Q

Parts of the nervous system that receive information from the external and internal environment

A

Sensory system

142
Q

Process through which the environmental energy is transformed into nervous system energy

A

Transduction

143
Q

Receive their stimuli from the external environment. Light particle/waves. 5 senses.

A

Exteroreceptors

144
Q

Receive their energy from the internal environment. Oxygen levels, glucose, and CO2 levels (pH)

A

Interoreceptors

145
Q

Receptors that integrate information about the state of stretch of skin, muscles, and tendons with information about gravity positions.

A

Proprioceptors

146
Q

Detect movement such as pressure of clothing on skin.

A

Mechanoreceptors

147
Q

Detect temperatures between 44F and 122F

A

Thermoreceptors

148
Q

Detect harmful or damaging stimuli. Damaged cells. Free nerve endings in skin.

A

Nociceptors.

149
Q

Detect photons (particles/waves of light energy)

A

Photoreceptors

150
Q

Detect chemicals in the internal or external environment. Taste and smell.

A

Chemoreceptors

151
Q

In the Hypothalamus. Detect levels of sodium in the blood and respond by secreting chemicals that regulate water retention or loss.

A

Osmoreceptors

152
Q

An area of skin that is innervated by a single spinal nerve root

A

Dermatomes

153
Q

Where are olfactory receptors found?

A

Superior surface of the nasal sinus

154
Q

Small molecules carried by air that are dissolved in the mucus layer that covers the olfactory epithelium

A

Odorants

155
Q

Covers most of the tongues surface. Non-taste structures that give the tongue rough texture.

A

Filiform Papillae

156
Q

Papillae that look like little mushrooms.

A

Fungiform Papillae

157
Q

Leaf-shaped papillae found along the lateral surface of the posterior tongue.

A

Foliate Papillae

158
Q

Form a V-shaped row along the posterior tongue.

A

Vallate (circumvallate) papillae

159
Q

Head tilt, which is called linear acceleration.

A

Static equilibrium

160
Q

Head rotation or head movement. Called angular acceleration.

A

Dynamic equilibrium

161
Q

Connection between nervous and endocrine system

A

Hypothalamus

162
Q

Anterior lobe of pituitary is called the

A

Adenohypophysis

163
Q

Posterior lobe of the pituitary is called the

A

Neurohypophysis

164
Q

Insufficient production or secretion of ADH is what type of Diabetes Insipidus?

A

Neurogenic (hypothalamus)

165
Q

Diminished renal response to the ADH that is produced is what type of diabetes inspidus?

A

Nephrogenic (kidneys)

166
Q

What does PTH do to blood calcium, magnesium and calcitriol levels?

A

Increases them

167
Q

What does PTH do to blood phosphate levels?

A

Decreases them

168
Q

Usually caused by benign tumors of the cells in the medulla

A

Pheochromocytoma

169
Q

What does glucagon do to blood sugar?

A

Raises it

170
Q

What does insulin do to blood sugar?

A

Lowers it

171
Q

Two main components of blood

A

Formed Elements

Plasma

172
Q

What are the formed elements of blood?

A

RBC’s
WBC’s
Platelets

173
Q

Why are RBC’s a biconcave disc?

A

High surface-to-volume ratio

Reverse-deformity

174
Q

O2 carrying molecule of the red blood cell

A

Hemoglobin

175
Q

Part of hematopoiesis. Specifically relating to the production of red blood cells.

A

Erythropoiesis

176
Q

Immature red blood cell.

A

Reticulocyte

177
Q

O2 deficiency in the blood

A

Hypoxemia

178
Q

Decrease in normal number of red blood cells

A

Anemia

179
Q

Term for white blood cell

A

Leukocyte

180
Q

What are the granular leukocytes?

A

Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils

181
Q

What are the agranular leukocytes?

A

Monocytes

Lymphocytes

182
Q

Overall process by which bleeding is stopped

A

Hemostasis

183
Q

What are the three mechanisms of hemostasis?

A
  1. Vascular Spasm
  2. Platelet Plug Formation
  3. Coagulation (clotting)
184
Q

What is innate immunity?

A

Non-adaptive. Born with it. Barriers (skin, fever, etc)

185
Q

What is adaptive immunity?

A

Adaptive. Specific. Acquired or learned with it. (T, B lymphocytes, etc)

186
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of inflammation?

A
Redness
Pain
Heat
Swelling
Possible loss of function
187
Q

A substance that is recognized as foreign reacts with product of the immune system is a/an

A

Antigen

188
Q

Where are T lymphocytes produced?

A

Thymus

189
Q

Where are B lymphocytes produced?

A

Bone Marrow

190
Q

T-Helper cells are also referred to as

A

CD4 cells

191
Q

T-Cytotoxic cells are also referred to as

A

CD8 cells

192
Q

Activated to become plasma cells and produce antibodies. B lymphocytes.

A

Antibody-mediated Immunity

193
Q

Activated directly against abnormal cells, such as cancer cells or even tissue

A

Cell mediated Immunity

194
Q

IgG are what type of antibodies?

A

Long term

195
Q

lgM are what type of antibodies?

A

First-response

196
Q

lgA are what type of antibodies?

A

Secretions

197
Q

IgE are what type of antibodies?

A

over abundance, allergies

198
Q

The sequence of events and outcomes of the immune response with an initial exposure to an antigen

A

Primary immune response

199
Q

Relates to second of subsequent exposures

A

Secondary response

200
Q

Receives deoxygenated blood from body

A

Right atrium

201
Q

Receives oxygenated blood from lungs

A

Left atrium

202
Q

Pumps to lungs

A

Right ventricle

203
Q

Pumps to body

A

Left Ventricle

204
Q

Valves between atrium and ventricle

A

AV valves (atrioventricular)

205
Q

Valve between right atrium and right ventricle

A

Tricuspid AV valve

206
Q

Valve between left atrium and left ventricle

A

Bicuspid AV valve (Mitral)

207
Q

When the tricuspid is open what other valve is open?

A

Bicuspid

208
Q

When the aortic semilunar valve is open what other valve is open?

A

Pulmonary semilunar (open/close in pairs)

209
Q

What opens for the autorhythmicity cells to become closer to threshold?

A

Na+ Channels open

210
Q

Open making the membrane potential more and more positive

A

Ca+ channels

211
Q

Second half of action potential when the membrane potential becomes more negative (repolarization)

A

K+ channels

212
Q

atrial depolarization

A

P wave

213
Q

atrial “kick” fits ventricles

A

P-Q interval

214
Q

Ventricles depolarize.

Atria repolarize.

A

QRS complex

215
Q

Blood flows out, ventricles empty

A

S-T segment

216
Q

Ventricular repolarization

A

T wave

217
Q

Number of cardiac cycles per minute

A

heart rate

218
Q

Ventricles fill to about 120ml

A

End-diastolic volume (EDV)

219
Q

The amount remaining in ventricles after contraction

A

End-systolic volume (ESV)

220
Q

Volume decreased by amount pumped out.

A

Stroke volume

221
Q

Stroke volume equals

A

EDV-ESV

222
Q

Stroke volume output divided by end-diastolic volume

A

ejection fracture

223
Q

Quantity of blood pumped into aorta each minute

A

Cardiac output

224
Q

CO =

A

SV x HR

225
Q

The mass movement of air into and out of the lungs

A

Pulmonary ventilation

226
Q

Movement of air into the lungs

A

Inspiration

227
Q

Movement of air out of the lungs

A

Expiration

228
Q

States as pressure goes up volume goes down and vice versa

A

Boyle’s law

229
Q

Volume of air inspired or expired during normal quiet breathing

A

Tidal Volume (Tv) ~500 ml

230
Q

All of the air that you can breathe in from the top of tidal volume

A

Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)

231
Q

All of the air that you can breathe out from the bottom of tidal volume during a forced exhalation

A

Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)

232
Q

Air still present in lung tissue after thoracic cavity has been opened

A

Residual Volume (RV)

233
Q

The sum of tidal volume and IRV

A

Inspiratory capacity

234
Q

The sum of residual volume and ERV

A

Functional residual capacity

235
Q

Sum of IRV, TV, and ERV

A

Vital capacity

236
Q

Sum of vital capacity and residual volume

A

Total lung capacity

237
Q

Is the exchange of gases between the pulmonary capillaries and the alveoli which contain atmospheric air

A

External respiration

238
Q

Is the exchange of gases between the tissue and the systemic capillaries

A

Internal respiration

239
Q

Excessive ventilation

A

Hyperventilation

240
Q

Decreased ventilation

A

Hypoventilation

241
Q

Quick, shallow breaths

A

Panting

242
Q

Normal respiration

A

Eupnea

243
Q

Increased respiration rate

A

Hyperpnea

244
Q

Temporary halt in respiration

A

Apnea

245
Q

Inside of a tube is called

A

Lumen

246
Q

What are the three parts of the small intestine?

A

Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum

247
Q

Small lymph vessel that carries lipids from the absorptive epithelium

A

Lacteal

248
Q

What do goblet cells secrete?

A

Mucus

249
Q

What do enteroendocrine cells secrete?

A

Secretin
Cholecystokinin
GIP

250
Q

What do paneth cells secrete?

A

Lysozyme and they are capable of phagocytosis

251
Q

Conjugated bilirubin in the feces is

A

Stercobilin

252
Q

Conjugated bilirubin in urine is

A

Urobilinogen

253
Q

Alpha cells secrete

A

Glucagon

254
Q

Beta cells secrete

A

Insulin

255
Q

Delta cells secrete

A

Somatostatin

256
Q

F cells secrete

A

Pancreatic Polypeptide

257
Q

Epsilon cells secrete

A

Ghrelin

258
Q

Primary buffer system of the blood

A

Sodium Bicarbonate

259
Q

A starch digesting enzyme

A

Amylase

260
Q

Enzymes that break proteins into amino acids

A

Trypsin
Chymotrypsin
Etc…

261
Q

A fat digesting enzyme

A

Pancreatic Lipase

262
Q

Enzymes that break down nucleic acids

A

Ribonuclease

Deoxyribonuclease

263
Q

Name the four structure of a nephron

A

Renal corpuscle
Renal tubules
Collecting duct
Papillary duct

264
Q

What is the renal corpuscle comprised of?

A

Glomerulus

Glomerular Capsule

265
Q

What are the renal tubes comprised of?

A

Proximal and distal convoluted tubules

Loop of Henle

266
Q

Reabsorption between renal cells

A

Paracellular reabsorption

267
Q

Reabsorption through the renal tubule cells

A

Transcellular reabsorption

268
Q

Majority of solute and water reabsorption occurs where

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

269
Q

Cells of the proximal convoluted tubules are

A

Cuboidal c microvilli

270
Q

Water follows concentration gradient throughout most of the nephron. 90% of water reabsorption

A

Obligatory reabsorption

271
Q

Regulated by ADH in the renal tubules and collecting ducts. 10% of water reabsorption

A

Facultative reabsorption

272
Q

What is secreted in tubular secretion?

A

H+
K+
NH4+ (ammonium)
Creatinine

273
Q

What percent of fluid is intracellular

A

2/3

274
Q

What percent of fluid is extracellular

A

1/3

275
Q

What is extracellular fluid comprised of?

A

Interstitial fluid

Plasma

276
Q

Molecules that have the ability to bind H+, thus reducing pH of the solution. Do not get rid of H+

A

Buffers

277
Q

Hyperventilation ________ the pH

A

Increases (alkaline)

278
Q

Hypoventilation ________ the pH

A

Decreases (acidic)

279
Q

Accumulation of excess CO2

A

Respiratory acidosis

280
Q

Exhalation of too much CO2

A

Respiratory alkalosis

281
Q

Decrease in plasm HCO3-, diarrhea, renal disfunction all cause

A

Metabolic acidosis

282
Q

Non-respiratory acid loss, excessive HCO3-, vomiting and antacids all cause

A

Metabolic alkalosis