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Skel Radd B > Mid > Flashcards

Mid Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the most sensitive means of detecting a vascular necrosis of bone

A

MRI

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2
Q

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head affecting males between the ages of three and 12 is termed “blank” disease

A

Legg-calve-perthes

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3
Q

Osteonecrosis of the lunate bone is termed “blank” disease

A

Keinboch’s

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4
Q

I see on the grossest of the calcaneal apophysis is termed “blank” disease

A

Sever’s

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5
Q

The most common location for osteochondritis desiccans cans is the “blank” of the knee

A

Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle

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6
Q

What is the most common etiological agent for childhood and adulthood suppurative osteomyelitis

A

Staphylococcus

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7
Q

What is the most common method of spreading infections

A

Hematogenous

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8
Q

Necrotic bone separated by viable bone by granulation tissue defines a/an “blank”

A

Sequestrum

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9
Q

What is the most common periosteal response that is associated with osteomyelitis

A

Laminated

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10
Q

What pattern of bone distraction is not associated with osteomyelitis

A

Geographic

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11
Q

A Brodie’s abscess needs to be differentiated from which of the following bone tumors

A

Osteoid osteoma

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12
Q

90% of the cases of Paget’s disease are asymptomatic a diagnosis and I discovered incidentally true or false

A

True

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13
Q

Which of the following lab test is most helpful in determining if a patient has Paget’s disease

A

Urine hydroxyproline

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14
Q

Hey fluffy blastic change in the schedule in a patient with Paget’s disease is called “blank”

A

Cotton wool skull

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15
Q

Which of the following is not considered a stage of Paget’s disease

A

Dormant

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16
Q

Females are more commonly affected by Paget’s disease true or false

A

False

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17
Q

Where is the most common location for secondary osteoarthritis in the entire skeletal system

A

First metacarpal carpal articulation

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18
Q

What is the target tissue in patients with secondary asked you arthritis that results in a decrease in the articular space

A

Cartilage

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19
Q

Another name for some council reactive sclerosis is “blank”

A

Eburnation

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20
Q

Which of the following is not a component of intervertebral osteochondrosis

A

Spondylophytes

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21
Q

What is the most common spinal location for the generative anterolisthesis

A

L4-5

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22
Q

In a patient with the generative joint disease of the hip the compartment that is initially and most likely decrease is the “blank” compartment

A

Superior

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23
Q

The most common joint for large synovial cyst to occur is the “blank” joint

A

Hip

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24
Q

Osteophyte formation about the AC joint can create impingement on the available space for the “blank” tendon (impingement syndrome)

A

Supraspinatus

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25
Q

Heberdens nodes are associated with the “blank” inter-phalangeal joints of the hand

A

Distal

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26
Q

Degenerative joint disease usually results in a “blank” decrease in the joint space

A

non-uniform

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27
Q

20 to 50% of patients with diffuse Idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis may also have which of the following disorders

A

Diabetes mellitus

28
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding D I SH

A

Zygapophyseal joint anchylosis is usually present

29
Q

Ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament is most commonly found in the “blank” region of the spine

A

Cervical

30
Q

All of the following statements are true osteitis Condensans illi except “blank”

A

Is associated with an infectious process

31
Q

The HLA-B27 antigen (human leukocyte antigen) is highest with which of the following seronegative arthropathies

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

32
Q

Up to 18% of patients with ulcerated colitis or Crohn’s disease will develop “blank”

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

33
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding ankylosing spondylitis

A

More changes are seen on the Sacral side of the anterior SI joint because it has dinner cartilage

34
Q

Mouseketeer erosions are associated with “blank” arthropathy

A

Psoriatic

35
Q

Gulls wings are associated with “blank” arthropathy

A

Primary osteoarthritis

36
Q

The term lovers heels applies to which of the following arthropathies

A

Reactive arthritis

37
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with all the following except

A

Osteophytes

38
Q

The most common cause for protrusio acetabuli is “blank”

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

39
Q

The radiographic sign term overhanging edge is associated with which of the following

A

Gouty arthritis

40
Q

Deposition of calcium in the highland cartilage and perhaps the meniscus of the knee joint is termed “blank”

A

CPPD

41
Q

Choose which type of neuropathic arthropathy that may appear as though the phone has been surgically amputated or resected

A

Atrophic type

42
Q

Which of the following could produce a very dense solid periosteal reaction

A

Osteoid osteoma

43
Q

Moth eaten osteolysis is characterized by

A

A wide zone of transition

44
Q

Which of the following is distinguished by age of occurance

A

EWings sarcoma 1st-3rd

45
Q

Which one of following are hand deformities associated with RA?

A

Ulnar deviation
Boutonnière deformity
Mallet finger

46
Q

Pagers disease may result in all of the following malignancies, however, the most likely would be?

A

Osteosarcoma

47
Q

Secondary chondrosarcoma arises in a pre-existing cartilaginous lesion with endochondroma and Being the most common associated condition

A

Osteosarcoma

48
Q

The benign cartilaginous tumor is also teferred to as exostosis

A

Osteochondroma

49
Q

Which lesions are asymptomatic?

A

Osteoma

Osteochondroma

50
Q

Acetabular protrusion

A

Osteomalacia

RA

51
Q

What are the most common ones to be affected by skeletal metastasis?

A

Spine and pelvis

52
Q

Although chord Omar are rare the most common spinal location is

A

C2

53
Q

This benign tumor has a great predilection for epiphysis and apophysis

A

Chondroblastoma

54
Q

An infection that mimics osteoid osteoma with pain worse at night and relief by analgesics is

A

Brodie’s abscess

55
Q

Treatment for an accessible lesion of osteosarcoma before metastasis is?

A

Amputation

56
Q

Solitary enchondroma

A

50% have stippled or punctuate calcifications

57
Q

What primary malignant bone tumore may present with symptomatology of an infection?

A

Ewings

58
Q

Most important radio graphic feature of skeletal metastasis

A

Axial skeleton predilection

59
Q

Quasi … osteoclast by britts

A

Giant cell

60
Q

Gardeners syndrome

A

Faulty dentition

61
Q

Which could result from a malignant degeneration of enchondroma?

A

Central chondrosarcoma

62
Q

An oval shaped painful eccentric geographic radiolucent lesion producing slight cortical expansion in the tibia is consistent with

A

Chondromyxoid fibroma

63
Q

A benign bone tumor arising from residual islands of cartilage left in the metaphysics as the physics grows away describes which of the followi g

A

Enchondroma

64
Q

58% of osteosarcoma occur at the

A

Knee

65
Q

Primary bone malignancy produces neoplastic osteoid

A

Osteosarcoma

66
Q

Osteosarcoma usually metastasizes to the

A

Lungs

Skel Radd B (9 decks)

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