exam 2- lecture 3 Flashcards

1
Q

when is TB no longer infective?

A

2-3 weeks if pt. compliance

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2
Q

what are the stages of dental infections?

A

stage 1: aerobes
stage 2: mixed infection of aerobes and anarobes
stage 3: anaerobic

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3
Q

what is the most common fungal infection and what is it treated with?

A

candidiasis

nystatin, clortimazole, ketoconazole or flucanazole

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4
Q

these are a large group of endogenous proteins having antiviral, cytotoxic, and immunodulating action

A

Interferons

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5
Q

what are antiretovial agents used in combo called?

A

cocktails

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6
Q

what does ACT drug do?

A

inhibits HIV synthesis and reduces morbidity and mortalitly from AIDS and AIDS related complex (ARC)

toxicity of this is bone marrow suppression

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7
Q

this is the first antifungal effective in treating toenail fungus

A

Itraconazole (Sporanox)

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8
Q

what are the side effects from cephalosporins?

A

low incidence of adverse reactions

GI effects are diarrhea, nausea, vomiting

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9
Q

this is known as chlor am kill em all, broad spectrum, acteriostatic antibiotic

A

chloramphenicol

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10
Q

what do systemic fungal disease include?

A

aspergillosis, blastomycosis, histoplasmosis, and mucormycosis

these are treated with amphotecerin b and miconazole

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11
Q

what is nystatin used for?

A

both treatment and prevention of oral candidiasis.. available in aqueous solution 100,000 units/ml

“swish, swirl, and swallow” rinse 5 ml for 2 minutes 4-5 times daily for 10-14 days

also comes in lozenges

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12
Q

why may antibiotics be ineffective?

A
pt. compliance
wrong antibiotic
poor debridement
resistant organism
concentration of ABC, didnt reach intended site
host defenses inadequate
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13
Q

what is the most common drug to treat aids?

A

AZT

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14
Q

what are some disadvantages of Ketoconazole?

A

in high doses it lowers the serum level of testosterone, in men it can cause gynecomastia and impotence

pregnancy category C, excreted into breast milk

can decrease the effect of oral contraceptive

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15
Q

what should you encourage pts. to do when taking sulfonamides?

A

drink plenty of water

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16
Q

wha tare some tinea infections that affect skin?

A

athletes foot, jock itch and ring worm

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17
Q

what is quinolones indicated for?

A

contraindicated in pregnant women and nursing mother

used for lower resp. tract, skin, bone and joint, and urinary tract infections

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18
Q

with cephalosporin, what designates the width of microbial action?

A

the generation

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19
Q

what does treatment f antituberculosis agents consist of?

A

isonazid (INH), Rifampin and Pyrazinamide

INH+Rifampin every day for 9-12 mths

Pyrazinamide everyday for 2 mths

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20
Q

what type of pts. are fungal infections most likely to occur in?

A

pts. who are immunocompromised

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21
Q

what are the oral chracteristics of acycolovir?

A

most common side effect is headache
treatment of herpes genitals recurrent herpes
usual dose is 200 mg every 4 hrs (5x day for 10 days)
needs to be started as soon as prodromal stage starts

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22
Q

this is effective against candidiasis as well as histoplasmosis and blastomycosis and is used to treat candidiasis

A

Ketoconazole (Nizoral)

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23
Q

how are cephalosporins administered?

A

by mouth, intramuscular or intravaneous

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24
Q

when are hypersensitivity reactions higher?

A

in patients with a history of penicllin allergy

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25
Q

what is the characteristics of generations of cephalosporins?

A

the further down, the broader the spectrum

26
Q

these are “sulfa drugs” and most common side effect is allergic skin reactions

A

sulfonamides

27
Q

this is used to treat candidiasis and one tablet is sued to treat a vaginal yeast infection

A

Fluconazole (Diflucan)

28
Q

to kill the virus, often the hosts cell must be harmed

A

antiviral agents

29
Q

what is a mucocutaneous infection?

A

those affecting primarily the skin or mucosa

30
Q

what interferes with the absoorption of quinolones?

A

antacids/probenicid

31
Q

why is it difficult to treat TB?

A

pts. with TB often have inadequate defense mechanisms

TB develops resistant strains easily

pt. dont take them like they should

most drugs are not bacteriostatic

32
Q

what does Amantadine do?

A

helps inhibit the uncoating of Influenza A viruses and also has anti parkinson action

33
Q

how is aminoglycosides administered?

A

IM or IV

used to treat aerobic gram negative infections in hospitalized pts.

34
Q

what are examples of aminoglycosides?

A

neomycin
streptomycin
gentamicin
tobramycin

35
Q

what is sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (bactrim, septra) used for?

A
most common used
treat UTI
otitis media in small children
treat chronic bronchitis
used for prophy of pneumocystis pneumonia
36
Q

these are structurally related to penicllins and active against a wide variety of gram positive and gram negative organisms

A

cephalosporins

37
Q

these cant be classififed as antibiotics bc they are not produced by living organisms.. they are antiinfectives or antimicrobials

A

sulfonamides

38
Q

what are the generations cephalosporins are divided into?

A

1st generation-keflex (cephalexin)
2nd generation- Ceclor (Cefaclor); Cefzil (cefprozil)
3rd generation- Vantin (Cefpodoxime proxetil)
4th generation- Lorabid (Loracarbef)

39
Q

this is an OTC cream for topical application to the skin or vaginal canal and indicated for oropharyngeal candidiasis..

A

Clotrimazole (Mycelex)

pregnancy category C

40
Q

this has been shown to reduce both duration and pain of lesions on the lips and face associated with primary adn recurrent herpes simplex

A

Penciclovir

41
Q

these are obligate intracellular organisms that require cooperation from their host cells

A

viruses

42
Q

this is used to treat serious systemic fungal infections and is poorly absorbed in the intestines so it must be administered parenterally

A

Amphotericin B

43
Q

what are the two groups fungal infections can be divided into?

A

mucoutanous

systemic

44
Q

what is the usual dose of Ketoconazole?

A

200-400 mg by mouth every day for 2 weeks

in shampoo to treat dandruff twice weekly

45
Q

what is vancomycin?

A

only IV for systemic effect, and is treatment of pseudomembranous colitis

46
Q

why is chloramphenicol not used much?

A

serious adverse effects such as fatal blood dyscrasias- aplastic anemia and produces bone marroe suppression..

Has no use in dentistry

47
Q

these are the first orally effective agents against pseudomonas species and are well hydrated to prevent crystalluria?

A

quinolones (cipro, floxin)

48
Q

what is the treatment of choice for stage 3 dental infection?

A

incision and drainage

49
Q

This is used to treat herpes simplex type 1/2, varicella - zoster, epstein-barr and cytomegalo virus

A

Acyclovir (Zovariax)

50
Q

these are antibiotics made up of amino sugars in glycosidic linkage

A

aminoglycosides

51
Q

what are the most common uses for interferons?

A
Hepatitis C
Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

use parenterally

52
Q

what are topical uses of Acyclovir?

A

herpes genitals; recurrent HSV1 and 2
produces burning, tingling upon contact
does not prevent the transmission of infection, nor does it prevent recurrence

53
Q

what is stage 2 of dental infection treated with?

A

clindamycin/metrondiazole

54
Q

Interferons are FDA approved are classified as:

A

Aplha, beta and gamma

55
Q

this is an acute abscess an cellulites are primarily gram positive.. drug of choice for this is PEN VK 500 mg every 6 hrs for 5-7 days

A

stage 1 of dental infections.. aerobes

56
Q

what are adverse effects of aminoglycosides?

A

toxic to CN 8, Which can lead to auditory/vestibular distubrances and can loose equilibirum

57
Q

what can quinolones cause?

A

tendonitis or tendon rupture in the achilles tendon..

58
Q

what are some characterisitcs of prosthetic joint prophylaxis of topical ACS?

A

most do not need abc prophylaxis

contact pts. orthopedic surgeon to decide if coverage is needed

59
Q

what are some topical antibitoics?

A

neomycin, polymyxin, and bactitracin

used on scratches

60
Q

what conditions should you most definitely pre med?

A

pts. with renal dialysis shunts

pts. with ventroculoatrial hydrocephalic shunts

61
Q

what is a systemic fungal infection?

A

those affecting the whole body