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Medicine > drugs 2 > Flashcards

drugs 2 Flashcards

1
Q

medication for dizziness

A

meclizine

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2
Q

caveat about lasix dosing

A

Don’t dose BID, because you will activate RAAS system

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3
Q

bumex generic name

A

bumetanide

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4
Q

unasyn

A

ampicillin/sulbactam

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5
Q

cresemba

A

prodrug for isavuconazole which is a triazole antifungal agent

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6
Q

kytril

A

granisetron (antiemetic)

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7
Q

how to taper steroids

A
  • no real evidence-based way, some people alternate every other day
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8
Q

potency ratio of lassix from oral to IV

A

IV 2:1 more potent

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9
Q

mscontin

A

long acting morphine

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10
Q

suboxone vs. methadone for opioid detox

A
  • methadone = full agonist, so 100% activity (can start even if narcotics in system, long acting, potential for OD (takes a while to clear))
  • suboxone = partial agonist (40% activity), (will displace oxy on mu receptors, so can precipitate withdrawal). So need to have all opioids out of system. Has enough activity at receptor to not get high, but gives you enough activity. So need to be very clear on it, off of it, in withdrawal, and need to be stable and come to all apts.
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11
Q

suboxone components

A

buprenorphrine + naloxone

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12
Q

norco

A

hydrocodone + acetaminophen

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13
Q

percocet

A

oxycodone + acetaminophen

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14
Q

MAT

A

medication-assisted treatment (suboxone/methadone, etc)

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15
Q

essential components of opioid prescribing

A

always use PDMP
always use stepwise approach:
non-pharmacologic therapies → non-opioids → short course of opioids
dosing: go low and slow
CDC: for acute pain prescribe 3-7 day course
Use immediate-acting rather than long-acting formulations.
Avoid prescribing greater than 90 morphine milligram equivalents (threshold that’s thought to significantly increase OD’ing risk)

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16
Q

Bisphosphonates

A

drugs that prevent the loss of bone density, used to treat osteoporosis and similar diseases.

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17
Q

how to manage nitroglycerin and cialis interaction

A

Don’t take one or the other for 4 hours feedback/oversight system.

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18
Q

carbamazepine trade name

A

tegretol/carbatrol

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19
Q

lacosamide trade name

A

vimpat

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20
Q

long acting morphine is…

A

mscontin

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21
Q

management of patient who’s been exposed to rabies and is re-exposed

A

booster course of rabies vaccine (2 doses)

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22
Q

management of unvaccinated patient who’s been exposed to rabies

A

immune globulin and a full vaccination series (4 doses).

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23
Q

dysentery workup

A

stool culture, immunoassay for Shiga toxin, and fecal leukocyte count.

24
Q

dysentery management

A

empiric ABX

fluids

25
Q

NSTEMI/ACIS management

A

dual antiplatelet therapy, anticoagulation, a beta blocker, and a high-intensity statin.

26
Q

latent TB options

A

Isoniazid & rifapentine weekly for 3 months under direct observation
(not recommended in patients with HIV)
Isoniazid monotherapy for 6-9 months
Rifampin for 4 months

27
Q

HIT management

A

Stop heparin → switch to NOAC (argatroban)

Wait until platelet count recovery to > 150,000/µL, then start warfarin

28
Q

sequelae of acromegaly

A

cardiovascular disease

colon cancer

29
Q

Catheter-related Bloodstream infection management

A

vancomycin plus cefepime (or gentamicin).
IF severe sepsis, hemodynamic instability, pus from the catheter site, evidence of metastatic infection, or symptoms that do not improve within 72 hours of antibiotic administration → remove catheter

30
Q

ecthyma gangrenosum presentation + clinical features

A

rapid evolution of >1 skin lesion from an erythematous macule to a pustule or bullae and then into a nonpainful gangrenous ulcer. Fever and systemic signs of illness are common
- immunocompromised patients with psuedomonas

31
Q

clostridial myonecrosis presentation

A

fever, severe muscle pain, and purple-colored bullae

32
Q

pulmonary edema management in heart failure

A

IV diuresis

If still dyspnic 2/2 pulmonary edema and no response to IV diuretics, consider IV nitroglycerin (assuming pressure good)

33
Q

abx for CF exacerbation

A

methicillin-resistant S aureus coverage (eg, vancomycin) and 2 drugs active against P aeruginosa (eg, cefepime, amikacin).

34
Q

first step in management of splenic rupture leading to hypovolemic shock

A

fluids

35
Q

malaria presentation

A

fevers, headaches, and laboratory findings with thrombocytopenia

36
Q

PCV-13 indication

A

1) age over 65, then you get PCV-13 + PPSV-23

37
Q

pneumovax indications

A

PREVNAR ALONE IF

1) chronic heart, lung, liver disease
2) diabetes, smokers, alcoholics

38
Q

sequential prevnar + pnuemovax patients

A

VERY HIGH RISK

SCD, asplenia, immunocompromised, CKD

39
Q

ACS rule-out section

A 
FIRST, assuming suspected and ongoing anginal pain --> ASA 325
NPO at midnight
Trop q6h x 3  
ECG q6h x 3
Telemetry
Check for history of A1C + TSH + HLD
Hold BB if hypotensive
40
Q

problem with mismanaged scaphoid fractures

A

can result in avascular necrosis and increase the risk of nonunion.

41
Q

c diff management

A

start vanc first 125 mg PO q4h
first recurrence repeat vanc in prolonged pulse/taper course
second recurrence vanc PO followed by rifaximin
IF ileus → give vanc rectally
IF Fulminant disease (eg, hypotension, ileus, toxic megacolon) → IV metronidazole and high-dose oral vancomycin.

42
Q

STEMI diagnosis

A

New ST elevation at the J point in >2 anatomically contiguous leads with the following threshold:
>1 mm (0.1 mV) in all leads except V2 and V3
>1.5 mm in women, >2 mm in men age >40, and >2.5 mm in men age <40 in leads V2 and V3
New left bundle branch block with clinical presentation consistent with acute coronary syndrome

43
Q

lung cancer screening guidelines

A

annual low-dose helical CT scan is recommended for patients age 55-80 who have a >30-pack-year smoking history and are current smokers or quit within the last 15 years.

44
Q

sydenham chorea

A

manifestations of acute rheumatic fever and is the most commonly acquired chorea in children. It is characterized by emotional lability and irregular, rapid jerking movements of the face, hands, and feet.

45
Q

TTP clinical features

A

Hemolytic anemia (↑ LDH, ↓ haptoglobin) with schistocytes + Thrombocytopenia (↑ bleeding time, normal PT/PTT)

46
Q

vicodin

A

Hydrocodone/paracetamol

47
Q

Norco

A

Hydrocodone/paracetamol

48
Q

percocet

A

oxycodone acetaminophen

49
Q

dilaudid

A

hydromorphone

50
Q

potency ranking of opioids

A

dilaudid, oxycodone/hydrocodone, morphine, codeine/tramadol

51
Q

metop tartrate vs succinate

A

succinate is toprol, long acting

52
Q

extrapulmonary manifestations of sarcoid

A

skin (eg, erythema nodosum), eyes (eg, uveitis), joints (eg, acute polyarthritis), nervous system (eg, facial nerve palsy), and reticuloendothelial system (eg, hepatomegaly, lymphadenopathy) commonly occur.

53
Q

ruptured ectopic presentation

A

amenorrhea (missed period), irregular vaginal spotting (embryo can rupture and bleed), acute pelvic pain (can be diffuse since hemoperitoneum occurs), and a positive pregnancy test.

54
Q

stress dose steroid

A

hydrocortisone

55
Q

what fioricet contains

A

barbiturate butalbital, the analgesic and antipyretic acetaminophen

Medicine (71 decks)

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