Floor management 5 Flashcards

1
Q

how to calculate insulin requirements

A

Sum daily insulin requirement then divide by 2. Half = basal dose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Determining volume status on exam

A

1) assess for peripheral edema
2) mucous membranes
3) orthostatic vitals (confirm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

endocarditis treatment

A
  • Acute endocarditis with native valve: Typically start vancomycin and gentamicin and then tailor based on culture results. Nafcillin is a superior agent to vancomycin if MRSA has been ruled out because it is bactericidal instead of static (vancomycin).
    • Acute endocarditis with prosthetic valve: Typically start vancomycin, gentamicin, and rifampin if within one year of valve replacement and then tailor based on culture data
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

SIADH treatment

A
  • Treat underlying disease/remove offending drug
    • Asymptomatic hyponatremia
    • Fluid restriction alone may be enough (1-1.5L day)
    • If patient requires IVF switch all IVF to NS and consider lasix to keep I = O
    • Liberalize salt in diet
    • Correct hypokalemia if present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

labs to order for new HIV infection

A

1) viral load
2) CD4 count
3) genotype
4) CBC/LFT’s/Chem 7
5) hep serologies
6) RPR
7) Toxo IgG
8) lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what to always do before intubating

A

check COR status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

acute HF treatment

A

Lasix

CPAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

general threshold for fever

A

38.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

indications for intubation

A

1) Can’t protect airway

2) Don’t turn around for oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what to always do before intubating

A

check COR status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

acute HF treatment

A

Lasix

CPAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

general threshold for fever

A

38.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

uncontrolled HTN definition

A

SBP > 220 or DBP >125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

when you should be careful prescribing ibuprofen

A

ARF/ESRD
surgery is planned
GI bleed
anticoagulated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Goals of K, mag, and phos repletion

A
K = 4.0
Mg = 2.0
Phos = 3.0.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how to correct potassium

A

1) Never give more than 10 meq IV per hour as it can cause arrhythmias/death.
2) Give via PO route whenever possible
3) Give by both routes if the K is less than 2.5 and there is a high risk for the hypokalemia causing an arrhythmia or if multiple PVC’s are noted on telemetry.
4) If hypomagnesemia is present as well, this must also be corrected. Low magnesium levels can cause patients to be refractory to potassium repletion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

septic shock definition

A

Systolic blood pressure < 90 mm Hg, mean arterial pressure (MAP) < 65 mm Hg, or decrease of 40 mm Hg in systolic pressure compared with baseline; unresponsive to crystalloid fluid challenge of 20 to 40 mL/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

band formation criterion of SIRS

A

greater than 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

organ dysfunction criteria in severe sepsis

A

Skin: Areas of mottled skin or Cap Refill Test >3sec.
Neurological: New altered mental status.
Haematologic: Platelets < 100,000; INR >1.5; PTT >60 sec
Renal: creatinine > 2.0 mg/dL without prior chronic renal disease; or increase 0.5 mg/dL; acute oliguria urine output <0.5 mL/kg/hr for at least 2 hours despite fluid resuscitation.
Pulmonary: RR > 20, oxygen (O2) saturation < 90% or < 94% with supplement O2, or mechanical ventilation.
GI: Ileus; absent bowel sounds; hyperbilirubinaemia plasma total bilirubin >4 mg/dL.
Cardiovascular: Septic shock.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CRE

A

Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

suspected meningitis management

A

put pt on droplet for 24 hours

22
Q

airborne precautions

A
  • private room, negative pressure and/or HEPA filtration
  • pt needs surgical mask out of room
  • provider must wear N95 when in room
  • for measles or varicella don’t enter room unless known to be immune.
23
Q

pathogens requiring airborne precautions

A

Measles, Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS), Varicella (chickenpox), and Mycobacterium tuberculosis

24
Q

droplet precautions

A
  • wear a mask

- patient must also wear a mask

25
Q

scheduling of non-opioid pain meds

A
  • don’t prescribe PRN, schedule

- you can schedule breakthrough PRN (so patients can anticipate pain)

26
Q

max acetaminophen dose with liver failure

A

3 g’s per day (verify)

27
Q

tachyphylaxis

A

an acute, sudden decrease in response to a drug after its administration,[1] i.e. a rapid and short-term onset of drug tolerance.

28
Q

purpose of continuous tele (indications)

A

AHA guidelines recommend use of CCM in patients with a higher likelihood of developing a life-threatening arrhythmia, including those with an ACS, those experiencing post-cardiac arrest, or those who are critically ill. Medical ward patients who should be monitored include those with acute or subacute congestive heart failure, syncope of unknown etiology, and uncontrolled atrial fibrillation.1

29
Q

patients unlikely to benefit from tele according to AHA guidelines

A

low-risk post-operative patients, patients with rate-controlled atrial fibrillation, and patients undergoing hemodialysis without other indications for monitoring.

30
Q

medical ward pts who need tele

A
  • acute or subacute congestive heart failure, syncope of unknown etiology, and uncontrolled atrial fibrillation.
  • patients with a higher likelihood of developing a life-threatening arrhythmia, including those with an ACS, those experiencing post-cardiac arrest, or those who are critically ill
31
Q

post cath need

A

aspirin + statin

32
Q

implications of PEC

A

stops patient from leaving AMA

33
Q

meds to avoid in seizure patients

A

antipsychotics (lower seizure threshold)

34
Q

elevated BUN differential

A

1) prerenal AKI

2) GI bleed

35
Q

PVR threshold for cathing

A

300

36
Q

DKA management insulin/glucose

A

add glucose after insulin falls below 250 or they will bottom out

37
Q

what to always consider before a fluid bolus

A

if pt has HF

38
Q

how long someone needs to be able to exercise for for an exercise stress test

A

10 minutes

39
Q

when to start thinking ATN with AKI

A

irreversible damage

40
Q

if called to ED for ascites…

A

Consider gut wall edema, use US and differentiate from ascites. DANGEROUS to tap someone that isn’t ascitic.

41
Q

PPX?

A

give heparin vs. lovenox if higher risk of

and for anyone with kidney dysfunction give heparin

42
Q

someone in the ED is described as orthostatic?

A

consider whether they got fluids in the field (if pressures are low/soft, they generally give fluids)

43
Q

DAP for secondary prevention of stroke

A

plavix for 3 months + aspirin

44
Q

tulane/VA protocol for repleting K

A

below 3.5 for everyone, below 4.0 for cardiomyopathy pts

45
Q

AF management

A

calculate CHADS-Vas, manage like afib

46
Q

how to replete K

A

oral KCL 40

47
Q

how to replete mag

A

always IV, don’t give oral

48
Q

lab ordering for diuresis management…

A

don’t order morning after diuretic initiation, creatinine won’t be reflected.

49
Q

trick about COPD exam progression

A

They can get worse wheezing (more musical once airways open up), so it sounds like they’re doing worse when they’re breathing is actually improved.

50
Q

half life of lasix

A

laSIX, 6 hours

51
Q

bicarb elevation differential

A

contraction vs hypercarbia