60 mass deck Flashcards
(272 cards)
1
Q
TGT will be indicated on the Power Pod when?
A
TGT > 793° Dif erence of 75° or more Engine Out (Ng < 55%)
2
Q
When does NG appear on the power pod?
A
When NG exceeds 100% less than 55%/engine out, dif erence of 5%
3
Q
What are the primary functions of the overspeed drain valve?
A
Hot start prevention, Overspeed protection, Purges fuel, Sends fuel to 12 injectors
4
Q
The ____________ provides added protection from heat-seeking weapons’ systems by mixing hot exhaust with rotor downwash
A
UES
5
Q
What drives LRUs on accessory gearbox?
A
Ng gas generator @variable speed
6
Q
What drives Np governing?
A
DEC, ODV
7
Q
What are the 3 main functions of the DEC
A
TGT limiting, Np governing, Torque matching and load sharing
8
Q
Over servicing is not possible because extra oil will do what?
A
Flow out the filler port
9
Q
The pneumatic start system uses an air turbine engine start motor for?
A
Engine starting
10
Q
Where must the engine oil level be in flights over 6 hrs.?
A
Full mark
11
Q
Oil from the chip detector passes through the oil cooler and is cooled by?
A
Transferring heat from the oil to fuel
12
Q
How is the gas generator turbine connected to the accessory gear box?
A
The power takeoff drive assembly
13
Q
The HMU operates what part of the compressor section?
A
Variable guide veins
14
Q
What controls the electrical function of the engine and transmits systems information to the cockpit?
A
DEC (digital electronic control )
15
Q
What is the DEC is powered by?
A
Alternator or aircraft power
16
Q
What section of the engine mechanically drives NR?
A
Np
17
Q
The EDECU will display a torque signal of?
A
25%
18
Q
Is Ng mechanically linked to Np?
A
No
19
Q
What is the connection of Np and Nr?
A
1- way mechanical connection via the freewheeling unit
20
Q
Name the 4 modules of the engine
A
Cold, Hot, Power Turbine, and Accessory Gearbox 21
21
Q
What drives the Accessory Gearbox?
A
Gas Generator (at a variable speed)
22
Q
How many stages are in the compressor section?
A
(5 Axial, 1 Centrifugal)
23
Q
What operational section of the engine drives the rotors?
A
NP (power turbine) (it’s a one way mechanical free-wheeling unit)
24
Q
What are the 2 operational sections of the engine?
A
Ng and Np
25
How does engine oil cooling occur?
Liquid to liquid cooler, oil flow through the scroll vanes
26
What is the service capacity for engine oil?
7 qts
27
Where is the oil drawn from for the emergency oil system?
Sumps A and B
28
How does the oil system overcome high pressure during cold starts?
Oil filter bypass valve, liquid to liquid cooler bypass valve
29
Where does the engine receive its electrical power?
Engine Alternator
30
The engine alternator supplies AC power to what?
The ignition exciter and DEC/EDECU , and NG signal to cockpit
31
When does the DEC go into the 2.5-minute limiting?
When any one engine is below 50%
32
How does the cockpit receive the Ng signal?
From the Ng winding of the alternator
33
If Ng signal is lost, what happens?
Engine Out warning light, audio, and 0% Ng
34
Why does the fuel system operate on negative pressure?
It lessens the potential of fire in the event
the fuel system is damaged
35
What function of the DEC keeps NP at 100%?
NG governing
36
Ng governing is influenced by what input to the HMU?
T2 sensor
37
When will TGT Limiting not work?
Lockout, compressor stall, start up
38
What is variable geometry and how does it work?
HMU controlling airflow in the engine depending upon power demand
39
Is the APU capable of starting both engines simultaneously?
Yes, within certain ambient temperature ranges
40
When will fuel flow be automatically shut off to the engine during the start sequence (Hot start prevention)?
When TGT reaches 900C, ≤60% Ng, ≤50% Np
41
Explain Hot Start prevention
it's a function of the DEC and ODV that automatically prevents over temp during starts by shutting down the engine
42
What does ODV do?
Its sequences fuel and sends it to the injectors (last stop of fuel, Np overspeed protection (120% +-1), purges fuel on shut down
43
What is the air sce/ht start switch do when on apu?
Uses air from APU to start the main engines
44
What is the air sce/ht start switch do when on eng?
Uses air from the engine to provide cabin heat
45
With one engine operating, what Ng and Nr must be maintained to cross bleed start the other?
90 % and
100%
46
How do you manually disengage the starter?
Pull down on the PCL
47
What controls air fuel mixture?
HMU through fuel scheduling
48
If power is lost to the engine, will the DEC still remain functional?
Yes, it is also supplied from the AC airframe power
49
Which circuit in the DEC is not powered by the alternator?
Hot Start Prevention
50
When is engine Inlet Anti-Icing system available?
4°C and below it must activate, may or may not activate
between 4°-13° C, not available 13°C and above
51
Other than bleed air, what is used to assist in the engine anti ice functions?
Hot engine oil provides a passive anti ice function
52
How is torque affected when anti-ice switch is ON?
You can lose up to 20% torque available, additional 5% with heater on
53
. How do you recognize a compressor stall?
Loud popping/banging accompanied by rapid increase in TGT and fluctuations in NG, Q, NP
54
Describe the fuel flow:
Pump, Fuel filter, HMU, Liquid to liquid cooler, ODV, nozzles
55
Describe the load demand system
Provides mechanical input directly from the collective output of the flight control mixer to the engine HMU to reduce transient engine and NR droop
56
Where is the pedal adjust handle located?
On the side of the instrument panel.
57
Which cockpit control has a telescoping (extend/retract) feature
Co-pilot's collective
58
Outputs from cockpit controls are carried by mechanical linkage through the pilot assist servos to the ____________________
( MMU)
59
On which panel can you find both the TAIL SERVO and BACKUP HYD PUMP switches?
MISC SWITCH panel
60
The MMU is designed to reduce _____________
Inherent Control Coupling
61
Name the four mechanical mixes provided by the MMU
Collective to Pitch/Roll/Yaw, and Yaw to Pitch
62
Describe Collective to Pitch
MMU put fwd input into rotor disc to prevent nose-high attitude
63
Collective to roll
MMU makes left rotor disc input to compensate for translating tendency
64
Collective to Yaw
MMU inputs left pedal to compensate for torque ef ect
65
Yaw to pitch
As collective and A/S increase, T/R pitch decreases and visa versa.
66
The SERVO OFF switch has an ___ _____ to prevent both servo stages from being turned offCollective/Airspeed to Yaw
Electrical interlock
67
With a leak, it takes how many seconds to lose both systems?
11-13 seconds
68
Servos are the only thing that can______?
Jam or Hardover
69
How does the MMU minimize inherent control coupling?
By combining, summing, and coupling collective, pitch, roll and yaw inputs.
70
What is the only trim actuator that receives hydraulic power from the number 2 hydraulic system
pitch control
71
Why is Collective/Airspeed to Yaw mixing completely phased out when the airspeed is above 100 kts?
Due to the ef iciency of the tail rotor and cambered fin.
72
Moving the SERVO OFF switch from NORM to 1st STG or 2nd STG will
Turn of that stage of primary servos
73
What is the reason for the depressurization valve to only connect to the Backup Pump?
To reduce output pressure of the pump upon startup of the electric motor.
74
The No. 1 hydraulic system supplies hydraulic fluid through its transfer module to what servos?
The first stage primary servos and first stage tail rotor servo.
75
HYD LEAK TEST switch allows testing of the ____.
LDI
76
What HYD pump is the depressurization valve connected to?
Backup HYD Pump
77
The RSVR 1/2/Backup LOW caution illuminates when?
When there is 60% fluid remaining in the
reservoir (leak in the system).
78
If a tail rotor cable breaks, what caution and/or advisory would appear?
T/R QUAD FAIL caution
79
The No. 2 hyd. system supplies pressure through the transfer mod to what servos?
The second stage
primary servos and the pilot-assist servos.
80
Appearance of the BOOST SERVO OFF caution indicates what?
Loss of hydraulic pressure to the
collective and/or yaw boost servo.
81
What is the purpose of the APU Accumulator?
Provide a hydraulic charge to the APU start motor.
82
In flight, the backup pump mode automatically sets to?
The AUTO mode even if the switch is in the OFF or
ON position.
83
What does the backup pump supply pressure to?
No. 1 and/or No. 2 hydraulic systems, 2nd stage tail rotor servo and APU accumulator.
84
Name the trim actuators
Yaw, roll, collective and pitch
85
What FCC drives the trim actuators?
IMAGE
FCC #2
86
What five lights illuminate when the backup hydraulic pump is on?
RES 1 LOW
HYD PUMP 1
T/R SERVO 1
HYD PUMP 2
APU ACCUM LOW
87
hat are the two central components of the AFCS?
FCC's
88
What does the AFCS do?
It enhances the stability and handling qualities of the helicopter and provides autopilot functions.
89
What FCC sends signals to the trim actuator?
FCC 2
90
What are the five basic subsystems of AFCS?
Stabilator, Stability Augmentation System (SAS), Trim, Flight path stabilization (FPS), Flight director (FD)
91
What are the additional features of AFCS?
Heading hold, Pitch and roll hover augmentation/gust alleviation, Turn coordination, Fault detection and annunciations
92
What are SAS actuators used for?
Used to enhance aircraft short term dynamic stability
93
What axis' does SAS work in?
pitch, roll, yaw
94
When does SAS 1 and 2 enhance turn coordination?
When the FCC compute data at airspeeds above 50 kts
95
What provides long term inputs by trimming the flight controls to the position required to maintain selected flight attitude?
Outer loop—collective, pitch, roll and yaw (Trim)/FPS
96
What are the five basic subsystems that comprise AFCS?
Stabilator, Trim, SAS, FPS, and Coupled FD.
97
What type of Stability is Static associated with, Short or Long Term?
Long Term
98
What will the FCC's do if A/S signal is lost?
Shut of
99
What is the control authority of the outer loop trim?
100% (10% per second)
100
Is heading hold an inner or outer loop function?
It is an outer loop, because it operates through the yaw trim actuator
101
What is required for proper operation of the FPS?
SAS/BOOST, TRIM and SAS1 and/or SAS 2 functions have been selected on the AUTO FLIGHT CONTROL panel
102
When is the heading hold reengaged following a turn when what following conditions are maintained for 2 seconds?
Roll attitude is within 2 degrees of wing level and yaw rate is less than 2 degrees per second
103
When will a heading hold be captured in a hover?
When yaw rate reaches zero, not when pedal switches are engaged
104
What are the four signals used by the FCC's to position the Stabilator?
Collective position sensor
Lateral accelerometer
Airspeed
Pitch
105
Describe the Stabilator
A variable angle of incidence airfoil that enhances handling qualities in the pitch
axis in forward flight
106
What are the stabilator function?
● Streamlines - compensates for rotor downwash
● Collective coupling - minimize pitch excursions due to collective inputs
● Angle of Incidence - Angle of Incidence decreases as airspeed increases
● Lateral Sideslip - Sideslip to pitch coupling to reduce susceptibility to gusts
● Pitch Rate - pitch rate feedback to dampen pitch excursions
● Air data computer - Connected to pitot static system
107
Where does the Stabilator derive its pitch information?
The EGIs.
108
What employs rate damping to improve helicopter stability, 10% control authority, fast in response, and can operate without causing movement of the flight controls?
Inner loop (SAS—pitch, roll and yaw
109
What are the two cautions and one advisory associated with the Stabilator?
STAB MANUAL MODE, STAB
UNLOCKED, STAB DEGRADED
110
. Basic autopilot functions are provided by?
Trim/FPS
111
The ______________ caution indicates the majority of AFCS has shut down.
AFCS FAIL
112
What does the SAS DEGRADED advisory mean?
The SAS pitch, roll, or yaw channel has disengaged
113
What does the STAB DEGRADED advisory mean?
The stabilator is in a limited auto mode
114
To attempt to clear AFCS fault indications, the pilot can_________.
Press the illuminated CPTR 1 and/or
CPTR 2 button
115
The collective trim beeper can be used below 50 KIAS to ________?
Change the aircraft heading
116
The inner loop or SAS provides how much control authority?
5% per or 10% total
117
The outer loop or Trim/FPS provides how much control authority?
100%
118
What are the five basic subsystems that comprise AFCS?
Stabilator, Trim, SAS, FPS, and Coupled FD.
119
.Dynamic stability is provided by?
SAS
120
The ______________ caution indicates the majority of AFCS has shut down.
AFCS FAIL
121
What does the SAS DEGRADED advisory mean?
The SAS pitch, roll, or yaw channel has disengaged.
122
What are the main rotor subsystems?
m/r blades, hub, flight controls, bifilar vibration absorber
123
Conical Elastomeric bearings permit what movements
Flap, lead, lag
124
Cylindrical Elastomeric bearings permit what movements?
Provides the pitch change axis
125
Main module chip detector has a _____ time delay to allow fuzz burn to work?
30 seconds
126
The ________ accessory module has a low oil pressure switch and chip detector.
Left
127
Main XSMSN oil capacity?
7 GALLONS
128
Each accessory module has a mounting flange for the installation and drive of the:
Main ac generator and Main hydraulic pump.
129
The main transmission is made up of ____ modules.
Five (Two input modules, the main module, and two accessory modules)
130
Where is the Low Oil Pressure switch located?
Left accessory module
131
The main transmission may run at cruise flight for _______ with loss of all oil?
30 minutes
132
The ac generators on the accessory modules also receive oil for what?
Cooling
133
The oil temperature sensor is also the chip detector located where?
Main module, intermediate module, tail rotor module
134
What range should oil pressure remain steady in to ensure any fluctuations occur they remain in the acceptable range?
45 to 60 psi
135
What is used to cool the main transmission oil?
Oil cooler fan and the radiator
136
What caution appears if a chip detector fails the PBIT during power up?
CHIP IBIT FAIL
137
The Oil Filter has ___ stages
Two
138
Does deactivation of the fuzz burn-off feature disable detection and cautions?
No
139
. The fuzz burn-off feature is deactivated when oil temperature reaches ___°C.
140
140
Does the engine have fuzz burn capability?
no
141
When inspecting the flexible couplings, check for _______, _____, and _____.
Buckling, Cracks, and Security.
142
The intermediate gear box may run at cruise flight for ___ minutes, with loss of all oil.
30
143
The tail rotor provides approximately _____ lift
2 ½% total aircraft lift
144
If both tail rotor control cables fail, a centering spring will position the tail rotor servo linkage to provide ____˚ of pitch.
10.5 ˚
145
The tail rotor head and blades are installed on the right side of the tail pylon, canted __° upward. 20˚ 25. One advantage of the wide chord blades is _________________.
Better maneuverability
146
Each arm of the hub assembly is pre-lagged and pre-coned __° to reduce the torque bending movement from the head and reduce vibrations
7
147
Pitch control rod bearings are elastomeric and should be inspected for _____/_____ on preflight.
Damage/Cracks
148
The three control inputs connecting the primary servos to the main rotor swashplate are the _______, ___, and _______ control rods
Forward, Aft, and Lateral
149
The rotor brake system is designed to hold the main and tail rotor system during engine starting, with both
engines at IDLE and to stop the rotors in approximately ___-___ seconds with 150-180 psi applied at 40% NR during engine shutdown.
12-18
150
Operating an engine against the gust lock __ _______ on rotor brake equipped helicopters.
Is prohibited
151
What is the purpose of spring cylinders?
Maintain tension on operating cables of T/R Quadrant
152
he rotor brake solenoid locks the ______________ in the ground idle position through a locking arm linked to the solenoid.
EPCLs
153
Where does emergency power come from?
A generator driven by the APU
154
0Where does DC power come from
2 converters
155
What voltage do the converters output?
28 volts
156
Where does converter output go?
No 1 and 2 DC primary buses
157
What provides secondary or emergency power?
2 slab batteries
158
Where does power from the slabs go?
Battery utility bus (bub), battery bus, DC essential bus
159
How many phases do the generators have?
3 phases
160
How many priorities of power are there and what are they?
1st - Main Gens, 2nd- APU Gen, 3rd - External power receptacle
161
How are main generators cooled?
Oil cooled
162
How is the APU generator cooled?
Air cooled
163
How many generators are required for blade de-ice?
2
164
Voltage regulation - Regulates voltage to
115/200 VAC.
165
Over voltage:
When the generator output voltage rises above limits generator is disabled and disconnected from the system
166
Under voltage
85-89% NR
167
Current limiting
When excessive current demands are placed on the generator it is disabled and disconnected from the system
168
Under Frequency
93-95% NR (ground operation only, disabled by WOW switch)
169
Feeder Fault
When current transformers sense a short circuit in the feeder lines between the generators and the junction boxes the generator is disabled and disconnected from the system
170
Converter takes _____________ and makes ___________
Each system is capable of supplying _______________
3 phase 115 VAC , 28 VDC
total aircraft power
171
What are the basics of the batteries 1&2?
24 VDC SLAB, 5 amp/hr, 15 min uninterrupted emergency power
172
What controls the fuel system?
Controlled by the Digital Electronic Sequence Unit (DESU)
173
What the most common method of refueling?
Pressure will transfer over and is MOST COMMON
METHOD (55 PSI 300 GPM)
174
Internal check valves are used for what?
-way direction and keeps system primed
175
What are the pilot controlled fuel systems?
submerged boost, prime boost, and CEFS
176
What 3 inputs affect fuel flow to the HMU?
PAS, LDS, DEC (torque motor)
177
What is the fuel flow?(in order of flow)
Engine driven boost pump, fuel press sensor, fuel filter, HMU, liquid to liquid cooler, ODV, Main fuel manifold (12 injectors)
178
Which fuel cell feeds the APU?
Number 1 fuel cell
179
Three methods to refuel the aircraft
gravity (one cell at a time), pressure (55 PSI at 300 GPM both cells
simultaneously) and closed circuit (15 PSI at 110 GPM similar to pressure but with NATO fitting)
180
Which fuels may be used?
JP-8, JP-5 and JP-4
181
Which fuel lines are self-sealing and which ones are not?
Engine lines are self-sealing but APU/CEFS are
steel braided and not self-sealing
182
Which fuel pump is energized when the button is pressed?
Prime boost pump
183
Which fuel pumps are pilot controlled?
Submerged boost, prime boost and CEFS
184
When refueling, what mechanism stops incoming fuel?
High level shutof (similar to toilet bowl)
185
Pressure refuel/defuel valves are closed by high/low level shutoff valves when?
Fuel level is at the high or
low level, respectively
186
Which component produces a signal for the amount of fuel in the cells?
Fuel Quantity probe
187
In the fuel cells, what keeps the fuel lines primed?
One-way check valves
188
Also in the fuel cells, what component allows for expansion of fuel in cold temperatures?
Pressure relief valve
189
Fuel cells have a ballistic tolerance up to?
7.62
190
What are the abort criteria?
No rise in TGT
No rise in oil pressure
No NP within 45secs
Eng starter On caution disappears before reaching 52% NG
TGT reaches 851 C before idle is attained (above 63% NG)
191
What powers the submerged boost pump?
No.1 and No. 2 AC PRI BUS
192
When does the FUEL LOW caution appear?
Approx. 172 lbs
193
When does the fuel pressure sensor activate the FUEL 1 or FUEL 2 PRESS LOW caution?
When fuel pressure is less than -9 psi
194
The APU uses approx. how many pounds per hour?
120 lbs
195
What prevents an excessive fuel leak if a fuel line breaks loose?
Fuel breakaway valve
196
Approximately how many gallons of fuel remain after pressure defueling?
3.5 gallons
197
What kind of pressure does the engine-driven boost pump use to pump fuel?
Negative pressure
198
What prevents the fuel cells from collapsing due to negative pressure from the engine driven boost pump?
Y-shaped vent tube
199
Where do the no.1 and no.2 submerged boost pumps receive their power?
No.1 and no.2 AC primary busses respectively
200
What section of the aircraft are the fuel cells in?
Transition
201
The engine driven fuel boost pumps are driven by?
The Ng section of the engine
202
What is a bus
a grouping of circuit breakers with the same source of power
203
What are the primary sources of ac power
No 1 and No 2 main AC generators
204
How is the electrical system redundant
t has duplicate systems and components that can power the system individually
205
What component has built in safeties and controls the generators
the GCU
206
How do main generators differ from the APU generator
Main liquid cooled, APU air cooled with limits
207
What changes 115 VAc to 26 VAC and for what
the auto transformers, for the stabilator position indicator
208
What is the order of power priority
Main generators, APU generator, external power
209
What are the limits of the apu generator?
210
What advisory appears if one or both auto transformers fail
AC REF BUS DEGRADED
211
What are the differences in aircraft reaction from one to two auto transformer fails
Check condition of stabilator indications
212
GEN 1 FAIL or GEN 2 FAIL Caution Appears
No output from main generators
213
GEN 1 BRG FAIL means? How long must the caution stay on
Generator main bearing is failing, aux in use, 10 hour limit. Must stay on 1 minte
214
AC REF BUS DEGRADED means
215
What can be done for a GEN 1/2 FAIL
Take gen switch to off/reset, then back on to reset GCU
216
Primary sources of DC power?
No 1 and 2 converter
217
Are the converters redundant?
Yes, one can supply the entire DC system
218
If both converters fail, which busses would be lost
No 1 and 2 PRI DC busses
219
CONV 1/2 FAIL means
No output from the converter
220
DC ESS BUS 1/2 OFF means
DC essential bus has no power
221
Can the converters be reset?
No, they are hardwired to the AC. The either work or dont
222
What pilot action would make CONV 1/2 FAIL appear
Turning off the same side battery of a failed converter
223
Should BATT LOW CHARGE appear in flight?
No, they should be charging
224
Prior to turning on APU Gen what do we do
Clear TACAN and Stabilator
225
If a circuit breaker is popped during the breaker check, what do we do
Push it in, check to see if it pops again when power is applied
226
PRIST is added to the fuel for what
Anti icing
Biocide - anti bacteria life shit
227
Which lines are not self sealing
APU and CEFS
228
engine driven Boost pump draws with what kind of pressure
If not enough pressure, what caution
negative pressure
FUEL X PRESS LOW
229
Fuel selector valves
Connect to fuel selector levers with cables
230
What does the yellow low fuel quantity indication represent? When does the fuel low line come on?
200 lbs
172lbs
231
Engine driven boost pumps are driven by
Ng
232
Once fuel filter clogs, what caution comes on
FUEL BYPASS
233
FUEL BYPASS EP
Land ASAP
234
Fuel low 1/2 EP
Pressure in the lines is low
Land as soon as practicable
235
three times you do a fuel sample
First flight of day
after cold refuel
suspected contamination
236
how deep is the fuel cell
4 feet
237
how long does the fuel probe need to be
5 feet
238
how many hours of settling time for a fuel sample
1 hour per foot (4)
239
SAS inoperative airspeed limits:
(1) One SAS inoperative - 170 KIAS.
(2) Two SAS inoperative - 150 KIAS.
(3) Two SAS inoperative in IMC - 140 KIAS.
240
HYD PUMP 1 fail EP
TAIL SERVO BACKUP, then NORMAL
Land Practicable
241
HYD PUMP 2 FAIL EP
Press FAILURE RESET CPTR 1 and or 2
Land practicable
242
HYD PUMP 1 and 2 FAIL EP
Land as soon as possible
243
HYD PUMP 2, Backup pump advisory does not appear EP
-Adjust to comfortable airspeed
-Backup HYD PUMP on
(If BU PUMP advisory appears)
-FCC reset, land prac
(IF BU PUMP advi doesnt appear)
-FPS, SAS/BOOST off
-land ASAP
244
PRI SERVO 1 FAIL or PRI SERVO 2 FAIL Caution Appears
SERVO OFF switch - check centered
If centered, move servo off to malfunctioning servo #
Land ASAP
245
RSVR 1 LOW and HYD PUMP 1 Cautions Appear With BACK UP PUMP ON Advisory Appearing
-Land as soon as practicable
If BACKUP RSVR LOW caution also appears
-SERVO OFF switch - 1ST STG
If PRI SERVO 2 FAIL appears,
-Land ASAP
246
RSVR 2 LOW and HYD PUMP 2 FAIL Cautions Appear With BACK UP PUMP ON Advisory Appearing
- FCC 1 and 2 RESET if illuminated
- Land as soon as practicable
If back up RSVR low appears
- SERVO OFF 2nd STG
If PRI SERVO 1 fail appears,
LAND ASAP
247
RSVR 2 LOW EP
-SAS/BOOST off
- FPS off
- Land as soon as practicable
248
T/R SERVO 1 FAIL Caution Appears and BACK UP PUMP ON Advisory Does Not Appear or T/R SERVO 2 ON Advisory Does Not Appear.
T/R SERVO - BACKUP
BACKUP HYD PUMP - ON
Land as soon as practicable
249
PSI During depressurization valve for backup pump?
Normal PSI?
No more than 700PSI
3000 PSI
250
Airspeed for run on during T/R Quad fail?
25 to 145 knots
251
Bank angle limit for a PRI SERVO FAIL
30 degrees
252
Flight director uses which axes
Pitch, roll, collective trim
253
FPS uses which axes
Pitch, roll, yaw
254
Does flight director or FPS hold heading
FPS holds heading, FD does NOT
255
SEF
EST SE AIRSPEED
JETTISON
LAND ASAP
256
DEC LOW SIDE FAILURE
SE airspeed establish
PCL to Lockout
Land practicable
257
DEC High side
SE airspeed
PCL retard
Practicable
(If engine does not respond)
SE emergency shutdown
258
NP Oscillations
SE airspeed
259
Comp stall
SE airspeed establish
PCL retard
EMER ENG Shutdown
260
Engine X OIL BYPASS
SE airspeed
PCL retard
Practicable
261
CHIP ENG X
SE airspeed
PCL Retard
EMER ENG shutdown
262
Min max rotor brake operation pressure
450PSI, 690 PSI
263
Power on rotor limits
91-95 trans
95-101 continuous
101-107 trans
264
Power off rotor limits
90-105% norm
105-110 Transient
110 max
265
MAIN TRANS PRESS EP
Land ASAP
if time permits
EMER APU START
266
CHIP L or R INPUT MDL
SE airspeed
PCL affected engine IDLE
Land ASAP
267
Any transmission chips
Land ASAP
268
Loss of tail cruise EP
Autorotate
PCLs OFF
269
Loss of tail right rotation
Collective reduce
PCL off 5-10feet above ground
270
T/R quad fail EP
Collective - adjust to determine controllability
271
Main rotor system malfunction EP
Land ASAP
Emerg eng shutdown
Rotor brake
272
Rotor brake advisory in flight
Land ASAP
