Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

TACTICS > CHAPTER 6 - ASSAULT LANDING ZONE OPERATIONS > Flashcards

CHAPTER 6 - ASSAULT LANDING ZONE OPERATIONS Flashcards

1
Q

What is considered a “standard operating strip”?

A

5,000 ft x 60 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define an ALZ

A

natural, semi-prepared, or prefabricated strip with surface, slope, dimensions, load-bearing capacity, and clearance from obstructions

sufficient to allow suitably-trained crews to takeoff/land in good weather conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What AF pub can be used to find ALZ info?

A

AFI 13-217, Drop Zone and Landing Zone Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What 3 categories are airfields generally divided into?

A
  1. high-strength
  2. marginal strength
  3. substandard
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define High-Strength Airfield

A

paved runways either Rigid (concrete) or Flexible (asphalt) with a subgrade code indicating strength of soil bearing the runway environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define Marginal Strength Airfield

A

temporary airfields with minimally surfaced or unsurfaced runways such as dirt, grass, gravel, coral, etc

surface/soil strength evaluated in terms of California Bearing Ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is CBR?

A

California Bearing Ratio

lower numerical values indicate lower subgrade strength - surfacing material is considered to be ineffective and only the subgrade soil is considered in defining the airfield strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the minimum soil strength required for operation on marginal strength airfields?

When should particular consideration be given to operations? (what value?)

A

CBR value of 3

CBR of 6 or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What can adverse soil characteristics result in?

A

poor braking, unpredictable rutting or other surface deterioration, airframe damage from thrown dirt/gravel, engine FOD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What constitutes a “pass”?

A

1 landing plus 1 takeoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The number of passes is predicated on what?

A

aircraft weight and CBR

based on recommended tire pressures corresponding to 39% tire deflection for marginal strength airfields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

To prevent excessive tire damage what should you do?

A

do not exceed 39% tire deflection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

To minimize a/c and engine maintenance on marginal strength/substandard what are some things you can do?

A
  1. inflate/deflate MLG tires to recommended psi
  2. empty external fuel tanks
  3. do not exceed 10 kts while taxiing
  4. minimize braking if porpoising occurs
  5. minimize nose gear loads by using elevator during landing rollout and takeoff / load a/c to mid or aft CG
  6. minimize use of reverse
  7. shut off FS and cargo AC to prevent clogging of heat exchanger unit
  8. limit gross weight to 164K
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define Substandard Airfields

A

may be either paved or unpaved and have unusually rough, undulating, pitted, or rutted runways

visible ruts

most likely not considered for normal/routine operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Operational feasibility on unsurfaced airfields depend on what?

A

soil type, soil moisture content, and operational frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What do Ground Flotation charts do?

A

permit matching the loads that the aircraft imposes on an airfield to the strength capability of the airfield

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Ground flotation characteristics are correlated for the following 5 methods of evaluating runway strength:

A
  1. Footprint Loading (pressure) - same as tire inflation pressure
  2. Unit Construction Index (UCI) - determine characteristics of comparative a/c, seldom used
  3. Equivalent Single-Wheel Load (ESWL) - determined from geometry of multiple wheeled landing gears, number and size of tires, a/c weight. Where data are given in terms of ESWL, UCI & LCN values can be calculated
  4. Load Classification Number (LCN) - when this is used (primarily outside US), data shown on ground flotation charts can be used to estimate the capability of a/c to operate from given airfield
  5. CBR - represent required surface hardness for operation of a/c in terms of weight and number of passes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which fields can be evaluated in terms of CBR?

A

only unpaved surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

To compute minimum runway required

unless otherwise specified, compute landing distance or ground roll with what?

A

4 engines in reverse and full brakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Minimum Runway Required

land with training crew

A

3,000 ft

or

ground roll + 1000 ft

whichever is greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Minimum Runway Required

takeoff with training crew

A

3,000 ft

or

ground run + 1,000 ft

or

AMFLMETO + 500 ft

whichever is greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Minimum Runway Required

land with sustainment training/operational crew

A

Ground roll + 500 ft w/ 4 engine reverse and full brakes

No wind, 150% tailwinds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Minimum Runway Required

takeoff with sustainment training/operational crew

A

Ground run + 500 ft

or

AMFLEMTO, whichever is greater

No wind, 150% tailwinds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What don’t we use MFLMETO?

A

does not provide adequate safety margins for engine loss below Vmca

takeoffs with field length between AMFLMETO and MFLEMETO require approval by the appropriate authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How wide should taxiways be?

A

for single-direction operations they should be no less than 40 ft but should be made 60 ft wide to increase ease in turning off the runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What should the dimensions of a parking apron be?

A

no less than 150 ft long and 150 ft wide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How far do overruns extend?

A

300 ft outward from the arrival and departure ends of the runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which Marine Corps beacon is compatible with the C-130?

A

PPN-19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the primary use of the IR-Cooled Descent?

A

remain in a sanctuary altitude as long as possible and then descend through threat engagement altitudes with a reduced IR and aural signature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the Random High Approach designed to do?

A

fly outside the effective range of small arms and descend within the protected airspace of the Base Defense Zone (BDZ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why should you use the Random Low or Shallow Approaches?

A

used to counter the threat of enemy aircraft, ADA, or certain types of SAMs

least effective in countering a small arms threat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the 5 random low approaches?

A 
Straight-In
Teardrop
Abeam
Spiral
Downwind
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Advantages of random low approaches

A

reduced exposure time to ADA and SAMs

minimized overflight time of unsecured areas surrounding the airfield

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Disadvantages of random low approaches

A

places aircraft in small arms envelope
closer to the ground
requires more aircrew proficiency and experience
navigation and ALZ acquisition more difficult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the parameters for a good final?

A

200-300 AGL

0.5 NM (no less than 0.25)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The LM will call Brown Out 3 times. Where is the dust each time he says it?

A
  • when dust cloud obscures trailing edge of horizontal stabilizer
  • obscures the leading edge of horizontal stabilizer
  • obscures paratroop door windows
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Define Takeoff Factor

A

combines the parameters of field pressure altitude and runway temperature

based on normal bleed air condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Define Refusal Speed

A

based on runway available

max speed to which aircraft can accelerate with engines at takeoff power and then stop within the remainder of the runway available with 2 engines in reverse, 1 engine in ground idle, 1 prop fx’d and max anti-skid braking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What should you do if refusal speed is greater than the brake energy limit speed?

A

set refusal speed equal to brake energy limit speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Define Critical Field Length

A

total runway distance required to accelerate on all engines to CEF speed, experience an engine failure, then continue the takeoff or stop within the same distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Define Critical Engine Failure Speed

A

speed to which aircraft can accelerate, lose an engine, and then either continue the takeoff with the remaining engines or stop in the same runway distance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Define Brake Energy Limit Speed

A

max speed at which anti-skid braking can be applied without exceeding the energy absorption limit of the brake system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Define Minimum Field Length for MAX Effort Takeoff

A

length of runway required to accelerate to CEF, experience an engine failure, and stop or continue acceleration to max effort takeoff speed within the remaining runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Define max effort takeoff speed

A

1.05 Vmu4, 4-engine minimum unstick speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is Vmu4

A

4-engine minimum liftoff speed with aircraft at maximum pitch attitude on the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is Vmu3

A

3-engine minimum liftoff speed with aircraft at maximum pitch attitude on the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Define 3 engine minimum liftoff speed

A

1.05 Vmu3, 3-engine minimum unstick speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Define Minimum Field Length for ADJUSTED Max Effort Takeoff

A

distance required to accelerate on all engines to CEF, experience an engine failure, then in the same distance either stop or accelerate to liftoff at or above Vmca and the 3-engine minimum liftoff speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

On an AMFLMETO takeoff, what should you do if an engine fails after refusal speed?

A

accelerate to rotation speed and rotate toward the target pitch attitude

once airborne, adjust pitch attitude to accelerate to obstacle clearance speed while maintaining a climb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When should acceleration check time be made?

A

between brake release and either 60, 70, 80, 90, 100, 110, or 120 kts

use the highest of these speeds which will not exceed refusal -10 (rounded to the nearest 10 kts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What tolerance is applied to acceleration check time?

A

3 kt tolerance applied to determine the minimum acceptable speed

52
Q

Define Maximum Effort Takeoff Distance

A

distance required to accelerate from brake release to takeoff speed, liftoff, and climb to a 50 ft height.

53
Q

The normal rotation speed is scheduled to ensure what?

A

that the liftoff speed is greater than the air minimum control speed and the obstacle clearance speed is at least 1.2 times the power off stall speed

54
Q

The adjusted max effort takeoff rotation speed is scheduled to ensure what?

A

that liftoff speed is greater than the air minimum control speed and the 3-engine minimum liftoff speed

55
Q

Define ground minimum control speed

A

minimum airspeed during the takeoff ground run at which, when the critical engine is suddenly made inoperative, it is possible to maintain control of the aircraft using the rudder control alone and takeoff safely using normal piloting skill while maintaining takeoff power on the remaining engine

56
Q

What is the most critical condition for ground minimum control speed?

A

No. 1 engine failed at light gross weight

57
Q

In general, what do the air minimum control speeds mean?

A

speed at which rudder and aileron control inputs can balance the yawing and rolling moments caused by the engine-out condition and aircraft can still maintain a straight course

58
Q

Define Vmca1

A

min speed at which, when the critical engine fails, it is possible to maintain control of aircraft with the engine still inoperative and maintain straight flight with an AOB not to exceed 5 degrees

59
Q

Attempting to maintain wings level with 1 engine out increases Vmca by how much with:

Flaps up

Flaps at 50

A

Flaps up - 23 KIAS

Flaps 50 - 43 KIAS

larger for flaps 50 because power restoration on operating outboard engine scheduled by ATCS has larger effect at lower airspeeds

60
Q

Threshold Speed

100 flaps

A

Vs x 1.32

61
Q

Threshold Speed

50 flaps

A

Vs x 1.28

62
Q

Threshold Speed

0 flaps

A

Vs x 1.28

63
Q

Threshold Speed

Max Effort

A

1.1 Vs + 5.5 KIAS

64
Q

What is the minimum threshold speed for 100 flaps and why?

A

102 KIAS due to engine out control authority considerations

65
Q

What is the minimum touchdown speed for 100 flaps and why?

A

95.5 KIAS due to engine out control authority considerations

66
Q

What is the touchdown speed for 50/100 flaps, normal technique?

A

Threshold -6 kts

67
Q

What is the max effort touchdown speed?

A

Vs x 1.1

68
Q

The forces felt in the rudder pedals are always proportional to what?

A

the airflow on the rudder

69
Q

At medium to high power and slow speed, large rudder deflections can cause sideslip to exceed how many degrees?

A

17 to 21 degrees

70
Q

When the rudder is at extreme angles what can the rudder start to do?

A

float with the airflow

71
Q

How can you recognize rudder force lightning?

What would happen if the pilot continues to push the pedals?

A

when the pedal begins to move more easily, and sideslip continues to increase

the rudder pedal force continues to decrease until the rudder floats toward full deflection by itself (rudder overbalance)

72
Q

What will happen if rudder force lightning is not immediately corrected?

How much altitude could be loss trying to recover?

A

aircraft reaches extreme sideslip and may roll to a high angle of bank

Up to 5,000 ft

73
Q

If rudder overbalance occurs above 150 kts what can occur?

A

rapid roll and yaw rates can develop, causing sever overstress of aircraft components - however, side forces and rudder forces are so high it is difficult to reach overbalance

74
Q

When is rudder overbalance the easiest time to occur?

A

as airspeed is slowed and power is increased

rudder moves more easily to the left than to the right

more easily with gear up than down

75
Q

When is rudder force lighting more likely to occur?

A

during a maximum effort takeoff, after the gear is raised

76
Q

During an approach, when does full rudder input not result in rudder force lightning?

A

at approach speeds with the gear down and at FLT IDLE

rudder inputs for lineup during crosswinds does not present a hazard

77
Q

What can cause the rudder forces and sideslip angles to reach rudder force lightning to decrease?

A

empennage anti-ice mode to keep vertical tail free of ice fails and ice builds up on the vertical tail

78
Q

The sideslip angle that generates a SIDE SLIP alert can only be reached with what?

A

symmetric power

With asymmetric power - only the rudder special alert will occur

79
Q

When does the LEFT or RIGHT RUDDER special alerts occur?

A

slightly before or at the sideslip angle where rudder force lightning begins

they occur if the pilot ignores a SIDE SLIP special alert or if no rudder is used during high asymmetric power conditions

80
Q

What sort of pitching moment can accompany the rudder overbalance condition?

A

an obvious nose-up or a subtle nose-down pitching moment

81
Q

If large yaw rates and roll rate are reached during the recovery from an extreme sideslip, how can fuel damage the aircraft?

A

fuel sloshing against the sides of the tank can cause structural damage

probability of damage increases with more fuel in the tank, with higher angles of bank, and higher roll and yaw rates.

82
Q

If extreme sideslip results in an uncontrolled roll of more than 60 degrees AOB, what is required?

A

maintenance is required before the next flight

83
Q

When should hot brakes be suspected?

A

after maximum braking during landing at heavy gross weight

84
Q

When do peak temperatures occur in the brake assembly after a max braking operation?

A

1-5 minutes after

85
Q

When do peak temperatures occur in the wheel and tire assembly after a max braking operation?

A

20-30 minutes after

86
Q

Do not taxi or tow the aircraft for how long after overheated brakes have been cooled?

A

at least 15 minutes

87
Q

Are max effort takeoffs approved with anti-icing fluids?

A

no

88
Q

What should you do to rotation speed if type II/IV anti-icing fluid is used?

A

add 5 KIAS to normal rotation speed with a minimum rotation speed of 100 KIAS

89
Q

What should you do if vertical tail is treated with anti-icing fluid?

A

rotation speed must be equal to refusal speed

if refusal speed is less than rotation speed, takeoff is not permitted

90
Q

What does Runway Condition Reading (RCR) relate to?

A

average braking effectiveness of runway surface to braking capability of aircraft when depth of runway contaminant is LESS than 3mm.

91
Q

What does Runway Surface Condition (RSC) relate to?

A

depth and type of runway covering such as water or slush, reported in tenths of an inch (1 inch = RSC of 10)

affects both the acceleration and stopping performance of aircraft

contaminants GREATER than 3mm.

92
Q

What should you do if Vcef is higher than brake energy limit speed?

A

weight must be reduced

93
Q

What should you do if refusal speed is higher than brake energy limit speed?

A

set refusal speed equal to brake energy limit speed

94
Q

What is the 3 engine minimum liftoff speed based on?

A

aircraft capability with 50% flaps and power effects with 3 engines operating in ground effect

95
Q

Is the Vmcg considered for AMFLMETO speed schedules?

A

no

96
Q

Vmcg conditions:

A
  1. ATCS operating
  2. No. 1 engine failed with prop auto-fx’d
  3. Max takeoff power on other engines
  4. Max Rudder deflection limited by 150 lbs of rudder pedal force
  5. Min takeoff weight
  6. Flaps 50
  7. No NWS required
  8. Max lateral deviation from initial runway track of 30 ft
97
Q

Vmca1 conditions?

A
  1. ATCS operating
  2. No. 1 engine failed with prop auto-fx’d
  3. Max takeoff power on other engines
  4. Max Rudder deflection limited by 150 lbs of rudder pedal force
  5. Min flying weight
  6. Zero rudder trim
  7. Bank angle less or equal to 5 degrees away from failed engine
98
Q

Loss of either hydraulic system results in what increase to Vmca:

Flaps up

Flaps 50

Why?

A

Flaps up - 36 kts (only 1300 lbs of px)

Flaps 50 - 20 kts (3000 lbs of px)

99
Q

What should you do to obtain high boost with the flaps in the retracted position?

A

appropriate circuit breaker is pulled to disengage the flaps from the flap lever and the flap lever is then repositioned to correspond to a flap deflection of higher than 20%

100
Q

Vmca2 conditions?

A
  1. No. 1 and 2 engines failed. No. 2 prop auto-fx’d and No. 1 prop windmilling
  2. Max takeoff power on other engines
  3. Max Rudder deflection limited by 150 lbs of rudder pedal force
  4. Min flying weight
  5. Flaps 50
  6. Bank angle 5 degrees away from failed engines
  7. Rudder trim required for a 3 degree approach with 3 engines operating
  8. Gear down
101
Q

Attempting to maintain wings level with 2 engines out increases Vmca2 by how much with:

Flaps 50

A

24 KIAS

102
Q

Define takeoff ground run

A

distance required to accelerate from brake release to liftoff

103
Q

Takeoff distances are based on what?

A

Scheduled rotation and obstacle clearance speeds

104
Q

What should you do if an engine failure occurs after rotation speed during a MAX effort takeoff?

A

do not attempt a maximum effort lift-off

reduce pitch attitude and increase airspeed as much as possible, obtaining air minimum control speed

105
Q

When runway length available is equal to AMFLMETO distance, what airspeeds are the same?

A

refusal speed and Vcef

106
Q

What does the CNI-MU NOT do to the rotation speed when you select AMAX in TOLD INIT?

A

does not increase rotation speed to Vmca if it is greater than minimum liftoff speed

107
Q

If you increase the rotation speed during an adjusted max effort takeoff then what else do you need to account for?

A

increase in AMFLMETO

108
Q

IPRA

What 3 points do you need to define?

A

IAF
RPI
MAF

109
Q

IPRA

What should the distance between RPI-FAF be?

A

1-10 NM

110
Q

IPRA

What should the distance between FAF-IF be?

A

5-15 NM

111
Q

Briefly describe 3 different types of Combat Offload Methods

A

Method A - accelerate a/c out from under an unrestrained load. Ramp in ADS position

Method B - offload cargo onto metal drums. Ramp in ADS position

Method C - ramp is lowered to ground. Cargo offloaded directly onto ground using aux ground loading ramps

112
Q

Use Method A to offload which type of cargo?

A

Single, multiple, ramp, or married pallets
airdrop platforms
CDS containers

113
Q

When conducting Method A, how long should the ramp be?

A

at least 500 ft long but 1000 is desired

114
Q

If conducting Method A without ballasts, how heavy can the cargo be?

A

does not exceed 12,000 lbs

115
Q

What if offloading cargo heavier than 12000 lbs using Method A?

A

provided ballast or cargo equal to the difference between 12,000 lbs and the weights of the pallets or platforms (to be offloaded) remains in C-F compartments during offload.

For example: a 17,000 lbs married pallet or airdrop platform requires 5000 lbs of ballast or cargo to remain in C-F compartments during the offload

116
Q

Method A

If CDS has CVR and over 12,000 lbs?

A

offload must be accomplished one side at a time

117
Q

Method A

If CDS is non-CVR, single stick and under 12,000 lbs?

A

single stick may be offloaded

118
Q

Method A

If CDS is non-CVR, total weight of bundles exceeds 12,000 lbs?

A

bundles should be restrained in groups of 4 or less and offloaded one group at a time

119
Q

Use Method B to offload which type of cargo?

A

married pallets that do not fit the category for Method A or for which no ballast is available for married pallets weighing between 12000-15000 lbs.

120
Q

How many drums and types of drums to be used for Method B?

A

4 serviceable 55-gallon drums under each pallet to be offloaded

121
Q

What is the maximum weight for pallets to be off-loaded across the ramp at any one time when using Method B?

A

15000 lbs

122
Q

Should you use Method B for airdrop-rigged platforms?

A

No

prevent binding the platform under the vertical restraint rails

123
Q

Which checklist should you use for Method B?

A

Method C checklist

124
Q

Use Method C to offload which type of cargo?

A

offload single or multiple pallets when other Combat Offload methods are not possible due to their requirements

125
Q

Method C

raise the ramp how high off the ground?
Taxi how far forward?

A

12 inches

88 inches

126
Q

Method C

Pallets are limited to what weight?

What will not be offloaded with this method?

A

8500 lbs

airdrop platforms/CDS

TACTICS (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions