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2) Introductory Microbiology COPY > Microbiology of Water > Flashcards

Microbiology of Water Flashcards

1
Q

What does the biological activity of an aquatic ecosystem depend on?

A

The activities of the primary producers

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2
Q

What are the aquatic primary producers?

A
  • Oxygenic photoautotrophs
  • Algae
  • Cyanobactera
  • Phytoplankton
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3
Q

Primary producers serve as a food source for what?

A

Chemoheterotrophs

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4
Q

What are the factors that influence the activities and the number of phytoplankton?

A

o Temperature
o Light received
o Availability of specific limiting nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus

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5
Q

What are the two important limiting nutrients?

A

Nitrogen and phosphorus

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6
Q

In clear water, light will penetrate to a maximum depth of ____ m, which is called the _______

A

300 m

photic zone

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7
Q

Define the photic zone.

A

The zone that receives light, which will be colonized by phototrophic organisms

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8
Q

Where is high turbidity water found? Where is low turbidity water found?

A
  • High turbidity: coastal waters

- Low turbidity: open ocean

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9
Q

What does the depth of the photic zone depend on?

A

The turbidity of the water

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10
Q

Organisms that live in high salinity, ___%, must be _______

A

3

halotolerant

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11
Q

The deep sea, which is deeper than _____ m, is also known as the ________ zone

A

1000

pelagic (open ocean)

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12
Q

The sediments in which zone are not accessible for the photic zone?

A

Deep sea

pelagic

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13
Q

Below 100 m, the temperature is constant at what?

A

2-3oC

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14
Q

Why is primary productivity low in the pelagic zone?

A

Due to the lack of inorganic nutrients (nitrogen, phosphorus, iron) that are required by the phytoplankton

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15
Q

What are the two reasons that explain the lack of inorganic nutrients in the pelagic zone?

A
  • No nutrients from the coast

- Sediments are too deep

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16
Q

Define oligotrophic. Which region is oligotrophic?

A
  • Few nutrients in the region

- Open ocean

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17
Q

The temperatures are cooler and more constant in the ______ than in areas closer to the shore

A

open ocean

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18
Q

What promotes productivity in certain regions of the open ocean?

A

wind and ocean currents cause an upwelling of water from the ocean floor bringing nutrients to the surface

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19
Q

What are ocean deserts?

A

Regions that have very low primary productivity

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20
Q

The levels of what change depending on the season in open oceans?

A
  • Primary productivity

- Chlorophylls

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21
Q

Where does the bulk of primary productivity come from? What are they?

A
  • Prochlorophytes

- Tiny phototrophs that are phylogenetically related to cyanobacteria

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22
Q

What are the 2 general adaptations seen in pelagic microorganisms?

A
  • Reduced size (high surface/volume ratio)

- High affinity transport systems

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23
Q

Trichodesmium is an organism that is found where? What does it contain?

A
  • Open ocean
  • Contains phycobilins
  • Capable of nitrogen fixation
  • Filamentous cyanobacteria
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24
Q

What are the primary producers in coastal water?

A

Algae, cyanobacteria

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25
Q

How is the productivity of coastal water?

A

Productivity is usually higher due to the influx of nutrients from rivers and other polluted water sources

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26
Q

Define eutrophic. Which region is eutrophic?

A
  • Region that is nutrient rich

- Coastal water

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27
Q

What is the limiting nutrient in red tides?

A

Nitrogen

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28
Q

What region can cause red tides?

A
  • Coastal water

- Algal bloom, dinoflagellates

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29
Q

What does a higher level of primary productivity support?

A

A higher concentration of zooplankton and aquatic animals

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30
Q

What is the result of an agricultural runoff?

A

Excess nitrogen and phosphorus

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31
Q

Between 300 and 1000 m, _______ degrade organic matter that falls from the photic zones

A

chemoheterotrophs

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32
Q

Below 1000m, what nutrient is very scarce?

A

Organic carbon

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33
Q

What microorganisms are found in the deep sea?

A

Psychrophilic, barophilic, barotolerant

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34
Q

Hydrothermal vents are a source of what? What do they support?

A
  • Source of heat, nutrients, electron donors, electron acceptors
  • Supports a community of microorganisms, and animals
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35
Q

Tube worms are involved in a symbiotic relationship with what? How?

A
  • Symbiosis with sulfur oxidizing chemautotrophs

- Tube worms trap and transport nutrients to the bacterial symbionts

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36
Q

_______ are isolated systems compared to the ocean

A

Freshwater

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37
Q

Microbial populations in freshwater environments depend on what?

A

availability of nutrients, and the availability of light and oxygen

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38
Q

How is the mixing and aeration in lakes?

A

Poor mixing and aeration

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39
Q

How is the mixing and aeration in rivers?

A

Good mixing and aeration

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40
Q

Differentiate oligotrophic and eutrophic lakes.

A

Oligotrophic: phosphorus and nitrogen are limiting
Eutrophic: nutrient-rich

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41
Q

How are the levels of primary production and availability of organic matter in oligotrophic lakes? Is the water clear?

A
  • Primary production: low
  • Availability of organic matter: low
  • Clear water
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42
Q

Is organic matter degraded in oligotrophic lakes?

A

Yes, organic matter is degraded completely

43
Q

Oligotrophic lakes are (aerobic/anaerobic), and the oxygen is ________

A

aerobic

saturated

44
Q

How are the levels of primary production and availability of organic matter in eutrophic lakes? Is the water clear?

A
  • Primary production: high
  • Availability of organic matter: high
  • Sediments, poor light penetration
45
Q

In eutrophic lakes, there is a rapid growth of ________, which decreases ________, and creates _________ zones

A

chemoheterotrophs
oxygen
anaerobic

46
Q

Are there health risks in oligotrophic or eutrophic lakes?

A

Eutrophic

47
Q

The bottom sediments of eutrophic lakes are (aerobic/anaerobic) and contain organic matter, which supports the growth of what?

A
  • anaerobic

- denitrifiers, methanogens, and sulfate reducers (H2S)

48
Q

_____________ uses H2S as an electron donor and produces sulfate, which is used by __________

A

Anaerobic photosynthesis

sulfate reducers

49
Q

What is the consequence of excessive production of H2S and organic acids from fermentation?

A

Gives water a bad odor

50
Q

What kills fish and other aerobic organisms in eutrophic lakes?

A

The lack of oxygen and/or presence of H2S

51
Q

When does stratification arise in lakes?

A

Summer (and winter)

52
Q

Describe the upper and bottom layers of summer stratification.

A
  • Surface: warm - epilimnion

- Bottom: cold - hypolimnion

53
Q

Describe the epilimnion.

A
  • Top
  • Warm
  • Less dense
  • Aerobic
54
Q

Describe the hypolimnion.

A
  • Bottom
  • Cold
  • More dense
  • Anaerobic
55
Q

The epilimnion and the hypolimnion are separated by what?

A
  • Thermocline

- Zone of rapid change

56
Q

When do the layers of lakes mix?

A

Spring and fall only

57
Q

What ensures that organic matter, within limits, is degraded effectively?

A
  • Good mixing and aeration

- Consequence: no fermentation or H2S production

58
Q

Define pollution.

A

Deliberate discharge of effluents into a waterway, which is a major source of sewage

59
Q

What is sewage rich in?

A

Organic matter

60
Q

Which organisms oxidize organic matter? How?

A
  • Aerobic and facultative

- Using the dissolved oxygen

61
Q

Water tends to be (aerobic/anaerobic)

A

anaerobic

62
Q

What does the biochemical oxygen demand measure? Is it high or low in polluted areas?

A
  • The extent of pollution by organic matter

- High in polluted areas

63
Q

Define a biofilm.

A

Microbial cells embedded inside an extracellular matrix

64
Q

What is the extracellular matrix of biofilms made of?

A

Proteins, polysaccharides, DNA

65
Q

Which cells are more resistant to stresses than free-living cells?

A

Cells inside a biofilm

66
Q

What is the problem with biofilm?

A

It can colonize everything in a water system

67
Q

Where do most water-borne pathogens grow?

A

Inside the intestinal tract, and transmission is mediated by fecal contamination of water supplies

68
Q

What are the two sources of infection of water-borne pathogens?

A

Potable water: drinking and food preparation

Recreational water: swimming

69
Q

What does Salmonella typhi cause?

A

typhoid fever in humans, systematic infection, healthy carriers

70
Q

What does Vibrio cholera cause?

A

cholera, severe diarrhea (enterotoxin)

71
Q

What does Shigella spp. cause?

A

shigelliosis; bacterial dysentery (bloody diarrhea, inflammation of the intestinal mucosa)

72
Q

What does Salmonella spp. cause?

A

salmonellosis, gastroenteritis

73
Q

What is the most common cause of gastro in Canada?

A

Campylobacter spp.

74
Q

What do enteroviruses cause?

A

Poliovirus, norovirus, rotavirus (children)

75
Q

What does Entamoeba histolytica cause?

A

Amoebic dysentery

76
Q

What does Giardia lamblia cause?

A

giardiasis (backpacker’s disease/beaver fever), chronic diarrhea, often associated with drinking water in wilderness areas (beavers and muskrats are frequent carriers – source of contamination of streams)

77
Q

What does Cryptosporidium parvum cause? Who is more affected?

A

chronic and acute diarrhea, self-limiting in healthy individuals, major problem in immunocompromised individuals (AIDS), no reliable treatment. Present in 90% sewage samples, 75% river waters and 28% of drinking waters.

78
Q

Pathogenic protozoa, such as _____ and _____ form cysts, which are highly resistant to disinfectants, including chlorine

A

G. lamblia

C. paryvum

79
Q

Which water-borne pathogenic protozoa are not effectively removed by filtration?

A

C. paryvum

80
Q

What do we check for when doing water quality control tests?

A
  • Test the water for organisms that indicate the presence of fecal material
  • If these organisms are present, there is a high chance that the water contains pathogens
81
Q

What are the two indicators that determine whether there is fecal matter?

A
  • Coliforms

- Fecal coliforms

82
Q

Differentiate coliforms and fecal coliforms.

A

Coliforms: fermentation of lactose at 35oC

Fecal coliforms: intestines of warm-blooded animals, test at 45oC

83
Q

Does the absence of fecal coliforms ensure good quality of water?

A

No, since cysts are more resistant than fecal coliforms

84
Q

What are the three aims of water treatment?

A

o Remove pathogens and improve clarity of water
o Remove compounds that give bad smell or taste
o Soften the water

85
Q

What are the four steps in water treatment?

A

1) Sedimentation
2) Flocculation Treatment (Chemical Coagulation)
3) Filtration
4) Disinfection

86
Q

What happens in sedimentation?

A
  • Water is left to stand in a reservoir (sedimentation basin)
  • Allows large particles (sands) to settle
87
Q

What happens in flocculation treatment?

A
  • A flocculating chemical (coagulant) is added; they will agglutinate with other particles and form large particles, which will sediment
  • As the flocs (flaky precipitates) form, they trap fine particles (clay, bacteria, viruses, protist)
88
Q

What happens in filtration?

A
  • The water is filtered through sand to remove remaining particles, even more bacteria and any remaining G. lamblia cysts
89
Q

What happens in chlorination during disinfection?

A
  • Kills remaining organisms

- Neutralizes most of the chemicals that give water a bad smell/taste

90
Q

_____ is more effective than chlorine because it kills _______, but it has a __________

A

Ozone
G. lamblia and C. paryvum
short half-life

91
Q

What are the 2 aims of wastewater (sewage) treatment?

A
  • Reduce BOD (remove/destroy organic matter)

- Destroy pathogens

92
Q

What is the primary treatment of sewage?

A
  • Sedimentation tanks

- Flocculating chemical can be added to produce primary sludge

93
Q

What does primary treatment make? Where is it sent?

A
  • Primary slude

- Can be dried, burned, or sent to secondary treatment

94
Q

What are the two types of secondary treatment for liquid wastewater?

A
  • Trickling filter

- Activated sludge

95
Q

What happens in the trickling filter?

A
  • Liquid from primary treatment is sprayed over a bed of rock or plastic honeycomb
  • Microorganisms form biofilms, coating the surface and oxidize the organic matter present in the sewage
96
Q

What is the goal of secondary treatment of sewage?

A

Digestion of the organic material that is present in wastewater

97
Q

What happens in activated sludge?

A

o Air is blown through the liquid from primary treatment, promoting aerobic respiration
o Slime-forming bacteria (chemoheterorophs) grow and clump together to form flocs (activated sludge) that oxidize the organic matter
o Then, the material passes to a settling tank, sludge is removed for disposal or secondary treatment

98
Q

What happens to primary and secondary sludge? What does it contain?

A
  • Contains cellulose and other organic compounds

- Subjected to microbial digestion under anaerobic conditions

99
Q

What is used to power the treatment plant of sludge?

A

CH4 produced

100
Q

What is the aim of tertiary treatment?

A

Reduces BOD, bacteria, concentrations of nitrogen and phosphorus

101
Q

What does tertiary treatment involve? What can it produce?

A

o Biological treatment (ponds, in which algae will use nitrogen and phosphorus)
o Flocculation, filtration, chlorination/ozonation to produce drinking water

102
Q

What happens in a septic tank?

A
  • The organic material and particles sediment to the bottom of the tank, which separates the liquid from the sediments
  • The liquid will exit the tank, and will be distributed on a leeching field
  • Soils act as a filter and organisms decompose organic matter
  • Care must be taken to prevent contamination of groundwater and nearby waterways
103
Q

________ is a minimal treatment of sewage

A

Septic tanks

2) Introductory Microbiology COPY (24 decks)

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