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1)373$3@9 > Part 91 General OPS & Flight Rules MOS 2020 > Flashcards

Part 91 General OPS & Flight Rules MOS 2020 Flashcards

1
Q

NVFR Alternate minima

A

Ceiling 1500’

Vis 8000m

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2
Q

VFR alternate minima

A

Ceiling 1000’

Vis 3000m

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3
Q

IFR alternate minima

A

AD with IAP = as published

AD with IAP but no or provisional TAF = alternate required

AD without IAP = final route LSALT + 500’, vis 8000m

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4
Q

VMC Class G

A

Below 10,000ft = 1000ft vert, 1500m hori + 5000m vis

By day only

At or below higher of 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft AGL = clr of cld, in sight of gnd/water + 5000m vis

Below 700ft AGL = clr cld + 800m vis

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5
Q

Special VFR

A

By day only

Clr of cld
Vis not less than 800m

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6
Q

VFR flight can be conducted:

A

a. in VMC
b. when at/blw 2000ft AGL, can nav visually
c. sub sonic
d. IAW ENR 1.4 speed limits

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7
Q

Visual approach by day requirements

A

within 30nm of AD, and

  1. clear of cloud
  2. In sight of gnd/water
  3. Vis 5000m, helicopter VMC, or AD in sight
  4. Maintaining the abv,
    - maintain min VFR altitude till circling area, or for helicopters
    - maintain helicopter VMC till HLS
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8
Q

Visual approach requirements by ngt

A
  • clr of cloud
  • in sight of gnd or water
  • vis 5000m, and
  • est within circling area
  • within 5nm of AD, on centreline, not below papi (7mm if ILS)
  • within 10nm of AD, est not below ILS GP and azimuth less that full scale
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9
Q

The met forecasts required prior to flight to a dest with IAP are

A

a. TAF for dest AD + TAF for alt AD if req’d, and
b. a flight forecast or GAF, and
c. a wind and temp forecast

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10
Q

The met forecasts req’d prior to flight to an AD without IAP are

A

Planned destination - TAF or GAF only

Planned alternate - TAF

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11
Q

A VFR flight at night, operating under AWK, must not be conducted unless the forecast indicates …

A

…the flight can be conducted in VMC, at/abv 1000’ abv obstacles within 10nm either side of track.

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12
Q

What is TAF validity for a flight?

A

AD and alt AD TAF valid for planned ETA -30mins / +60mins

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13
Q

Requirements to fly IFR at night to an AD without IAP

A

a. alt fuel carried
b. able to nav to AD and Alt using area nav or radio nav
c. No descent below LSALT until:

1- positive fix within 3nm of AD
2- AD lighting in sight
3- maintain VMC through out descent
4- remain within 3nm at all times blw LSALT

d. PIC aware of all obs within 3nm of AD, and maintains obs clr as specified for circling 300ft

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14
Q

On approach to an AD, descent below LSALT/ MSA is only to occur when..

A

a. c/o visual approach
b. DME/GPS arrival
c. ATC clearance
d. cross over IAF or facility

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15
Q

Visual circling within no-circling areas is prohibited by..

A

.. day less than VMC or at night

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16
Q

What is the basic assumption of a circling approach after initial visual contact?

A

That the rwy environment ( threshold, approach lights or identifiable markings with rwy) are kept in sight when circling at MDA

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17
Q

During visual circling, descent below MDA can occur when the pilot..

A

a. maintains AC within circling area
b. maintains vis along intended flight path not less than specified on chart
c. maintains vis contact with landing rwy environment
d. by day or night while complying with a/b/c, intercept a position on downwind, base or final from which a continuous descent can be made, maintaining normal RoD and OBS clearances, until aligned with landing rwy
e. by day only while complying with a/b/c, maintains visual contact with obs along intended flight path, not less than performance cat, until aligned with landing rwy

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18
Q

Minimum obstacle clearance requirements per category are..

A

Cat A + B = 300’

Cat C + D = 400’

Cat E = 500’

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19
Q

Circling area radii are..

A

Cat A = 1.68nm = 3,111m

Cat B = 2.66nm = 4,926m

Cat C = 4.20nm = 7,778m

Cat D = 5.28nm = 9,779m

Cat E = 6.94nm = 12,853m

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20
Q

Descent below straight-in MDA or below DA can only occur when..

A

a. vis ref can be maintained
b. met conditions equal/exceed published approach minima

c . AC is continuously in a position from which a landing in the touchdown zone can be achieved using normal RoD and manoeuvres

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21
Q

A missed approach must be executed if..

A

a. During final segment, AC is outside navigation tolerances for the aid in use
b. during app and below MSA, aid becomes suspect or fails
c. not visual at or before the MAPt or DA
d. Can not land off rwy approach, unless weather conditions allow for a circling approach
e. visual reference is lost whilst circling

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22
Q

Define “visual reference” for rwy and circling approaches.

A

Rwy approach - vis not less than specified

Circling approach - clear of cloud, in sight of ground/water and vis not less than specified

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23
Q

State the missed approach obs clr

A

100ft if missed approach commenced from MAPt or DA at 2.5% gradient (RoC = 2. 5 X 70gs = 175fpm)

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24
Q

Expectations when conducting a missed approach whilst circling.

A

Initiate a climb and turn towards the landing rwy and aerodrome IOT intercept the missed approach track

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25
Q

When does a loss of RAIM or RAIM warning result in a MAP?

A

Any time after IAF

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26
Q

Can you use GPS guidance if a RAIM warning ceases after a missed approach is initiated?

A

Yes, otherwise use DR to effect missed approach procedure

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27
Q

What are the CAT A handling speeds?

A

Vat = <91

IAF = 90-150 (max 110 for reversals)

FAF = 70-100

Circling = 100

Missed approach = 110

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28
Q

Describe reversal procedures

A

45/180 = track outbound for published time, then turn away 45deg for 1 min from start of turn, reverse turn through 180 deg and intercept inbound track

80/260 = track outbound for published time. Turn away 80 deg then turn immediately opposite direction to intercept

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29
Q

Define “established”

A

Less than half scale deflection for the ILS, VOR and GNSS,

within +/- 5deg of required NDB bearing, or

within +/- 2nm of DME arc.

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30
Q

Procedures are based on what bank angle?

SID?

A

25deg or rate one

whichever is less

SID = 15deg

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31
Q

Name the four categories of approach procedures

A

PA - Precison approach (ILS)

APV - App procedure with Vertical guidance

NPA with - Non precision app with dist measuring (VOR/DME, LOC/DME, GNSS)

NPA without - non precision without dist measuring (NDB and VOR)

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32
Q

An aircraft may commence the approach without entering a hold (assuming no height need to be lost) if:

A

a. Received ATC clearance
b. completed: reversal, DME arc, or within 30deg of the app’s first track
c. GNSS: within capture region for an initial app waypoint, or receiving ATC vectors

Note: can request a ‘direct to’ intermediate fix (IF) provided the subs track change within 45deg

33
Q

The standard holding direction and timing is

A

Right

1 min (wind adjusted)

34
Q

When does outbound timing commence during a hold?

A

Abeam the fix or on attaining the outbound heading, whichever comes later

35
Q

Describe a sector 1 entry

A

Sector 1 - Parallel entry

Over fix, fly 15secs (20s if head wind) then turn to parallel track outbound allowing for drift.

Time starts over or abeam fix, whichever’s later

Continue until time or DME distance

Turn in to intercept inbound track

36
Q

Describe sector 2 entry

A

Sector 2 - Tear drop

Over fix, turn onto the holding side to make good a 30deg offset of the inbound track

Fly out IAW time specified, up to 1:30mins or DME limit

Turn in to intercept inbound track

37
Q

Describe sector 3 entry

A

Sector 3 - direct entry

Turn into the published holding pattern

Times start abeam, or on completion of the turn if the abeam post can’t be determined

38
Q

Define the takeoff minima for the B412

A

Cloud base 500’
Vis 800m

Vyse = best RoC IAS when OEI = 45kts
Vmin IMC = 60kts

39
Q

If you use the IFR takeoff minima to get airborne, you must ensure that the take-off must be conducted

A

a. IAW published IFR departure or when not avail, that terrain clr is assured
b. If OEI in IMC, terrain clr is assured to MDA/LSALT, or

If you plan to land back at departure AD, met must be at/abv the app/ldg minima.

If a rtn to AD not possible, fuel and performance allow transit to suitable AD

40
Q

State IFR landing minima at AD’s without IAP

Day

Night

A

Day - IAW vis app requirements

Ngt - VMC from LSALT with 3nm

41
Q

Landing minima for AD’s with NPA’s

A

By day and night - as specified on plate

However - if HIAL installed but U/S, must add 900m to LOC app minima

42
Q

Landing visibility minima for AD’s with PA’s

A

As published except

a. vis 1.5km if HIAL u/s
b. min 1.2km vis required unless;

1- Autopilot coupled or FD in use
2- att and hdg failure systems serviceable
3- High intensity rwy edge lighting avail
4 - App lighting beyond 210m is working

If landing at controlled AD and lighting failure results in double spaced edge lights - vis required = 1.5 x specified vis

43
Q

State QNH sources and factors

A

a. Approved source* = -100ft (if shaded) (because charts with shaded backgrounds have minima calculated using forecast QNH.)
b. TAF = as published
c. Area forecast = +50ft (if shaded)
* (ATC,ATIS,AWIS, CASA met) (15mins)

44
Q

Can the B412 use Special Alt minima?

When are these not available?

A

Yes

Fitted with dual LOC, G/P and VOR receivers, and

One marker receiver + DME

N/A = no METAR/SPECI forecasts or ATC

45
Q

During a PA, the altimeter check indicates an unexplained discrepancy. State actions

A

If on slope but altimeter reads high, add difference to DA.

If on slope but altimeter reads low = good to go

Discrepancy bad = Discontinue the ILS, option to continue with LOC approach.

46
Q

SID wind considerations under vectors vs tracks

A

Vectors = no allowance for wind

Tracks = wind allowance to make good

47
Q

Light signals from tower in flight

Steady green

Steady red

Green flashes

Red flashes

White flashes

A

Steady green = clr to land

Steady red = give way to others, continue circling

Green flashes = rtn for landing

Red flashes = do not land

White flashes = nil sig

48
Q

Light signals from tower on ground

Steady green

Steady red

Green flashes

Red flashes

White flashes

A

Steady green = clr to take-off

Steady red = stop

Green flashes = clr to taxi

Red flashes = taxi clr of active landing area

White flashes = rtn to base

49
Q

Ground signals to aircraft

Dumb bells

Cross

Double cross

A

Dumb bells = stick to hard surfaces

Cross near wind sock = AD u/s

Cross near an area = area marked u/s

Double cross = gliding ops in progress

50
Q

Rated coverages of

NDB

VOR and DME

A

NDB = ERSA

VOR/DME =
Below 5000’ = 60nm
5000 - 10000 = 90nm

51
Q

Tracking requirements for visual approach

Day

Night

A

Track as cleared until

By day, within 5nm

By night, IFR within circling area / VFR within 3nm

Then join cct as directed

52
Q

Standard circuit direction

A

Left

53
Q

IFR taxi report

A

Melb centre

RSCU 51

IFR , MEDIVAC, Bell 412

POB 5

Taxiing pt Lincoln for Adelaide

Rwy 32

54
Q

When must an IFR flight establish itself on track after departing an AD?

A

As soon as practicable but within 5nm

55
Q

What weather conditions cause the requirement to provide for an alternate AD

A

a. Cloud > SCT below alt min
b. Vis < alt min
c. Vis > alt min but forecast includes a probability of vis < alt min
d. Wind > aircraft limits

If TAF3, you can ignore any prob 30’s etc

56
Q

Does a 30min buffer have to be applied to a TAF3?

What about holding fuel required by reduction in vis or Prob30/40 TS?

A

Not within first 3hrs for any

57
Q

When is a Alternate aerodrome required when considering Radio Nav aids operating in IFR AWK category?

What other option exists by day?

A

Alt required unless,

Dest AD has 1x nav aid with IAP and aircraft equipped to use the nav aid, & pilot qualified

By day only,

No alt required if

a. cloud < SCT below LSALT +500’ and
b. Vis not less than 8000m

58
Q

An alternate AD within 1hrs is required when operating under NVFR unless

A

a. Dest has a nav aid

b. Aircraft fitted with GNSS

59
Q

When is an alternate AD required when considering rwy lighting?

A

Alternate required unless;

Portable + responsible person

Electric + Standby power

Electric + portable + responsible person

PAL + standby power + responsible person

60
Q

An AD with PAL can be nominated as an alternate for non-RPT if aircraft equipped with

A

a. Dual VHF

b. Single VHF + HF + 30mins holding fuel

61
Q

To avoid alternate lighting planning requirements, holding fuel can be carried for first light plus xx mins

A

First light plus 10mins

62
Q

CTAF IFR taxi report

A

Traffic Pt Lincoln

RSCU 51

IFR, MEDIVAC, BELL 412

Taxiing Pt Lincoln for adelaide

Rwy 15

Pt Lincoln

63
Q

GNSS distance can be used in lieu of DME for IAP if…

A
  1. The substitute DME reference is contained with GPS database
  2. The substitute reference is annotated on approach chart
64
Q

What is VMC by night in class G

A

Blw 10000’ =

5000m vis, 1000’ vert, 1500m lat

Blw higher of 3000’ AMSL or 1000’ AGL =

5000m vis, clear of cloud and in sight of gnd/water

65
Q

Dist from threshold in meters to

500ft markings

1000ft

1500ft

A

150m

300m

500m

66
Q

Altimeter check for IFR and VFR ops?

A

IFR within 60’ of AD elev using accurate QNH

Within 100’ for VFR

If error between 60 - 75ft, can fly to the next landing area with accurate QNH to re-check. If fails again = u/s

67
Q

Change of flight rules RT

A

Downgrading

Cancel IFR, request VFR ….,

Upgrading

Centre RSCU51, request IFR clearance to xxx at xxxx feet

68
Q

When does Navigation Database expire?

A

1600 UTC on day before expiry.
Garmin switches over at 1600UTC

Ref - AIP GEN 3.1 - 5 para 4.3

69
Q

What are the navigation tolerances relating to ATC reporting requirements

A 
PBN - 1 x RNP value for route being flown
LOC based - full scale
VOR based - half scale
NDB based - +/- 5 deg
DME based - +/- 2 nm
Visual nav - 1nm off track
70
Q

Can you fly with an uncurrent nav database

A

Yes, but day VFR only

Must verify the data using other auth aviation products prior to use

Only upto 72hrs after expiry

Part 91 para 14.07 (7)

71
Q

What is the published visibility minima based on?

A

Visibility measured from MDA or DA to 500ft past approach threshold

72
Q

Integrity monitoring of on board nav systems

ANP = actual nav performance

RAIM =?

FD =? and how many satellites req’d

FDE =? and how many satellites req’d

A

RAIM = Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

a function in GNSS receivers designed to meet TSO 129 / 145 and 196 standards

If RAIM detects ANP is estimated to exceed RNP value, alerts crew and ATC must be notified

FD = Fault Detection / 5 Sats

FDE = Fault Detection and Exclusion / 6 sats

73
Q

What is the required nav performance (RNP) for

Enroute?

Sid and Stars?

And What tracking deviations are permitted?

A

Enroute = RNP 2

Sid star = RNP 1 (reqs RAIM capable equip)

Deviations should be keep to within 1/2 x RNP value,
But a Max of 1 x RNP value permitted

74
Q

State the Priveldges of Instrument rating

A

Authorised to pilot an aircraft under IFR and NVFR

75
Q

Can the B412 be operated under the qualifying multi-engine rotorcraft regs?

What Take off minima apply?

A

It could, but as we don’t operate at CAT A weights, limits and procedures, therefore we do not qualify.

Take-off minima for other rotor craft regs apply.

Cloud ceiling 500ft
Visibility 800m

76
Q

What is GNSS obstacle splay?

A

7nm either side of track

77
Q

What is RNP obstacle splay?

A

5nm either side of ttack

78
Q

How do you calculate RoC required for obstacle gradients?

A

RoC = x.x% x GS

3.3 x 70 = 231fpm
5.7 x 70 = 400fpm*

  • highest in ADL so use it as default
79
Q

Describe the approach capture regions of an GNSS/ RNP initial approach fixes.

A

180 deg capture regions for the two initial fixes either side.
70 deg either side of the initial fix for the straight in fix.

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