Blood Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

a decrease in the amount of hemoglobin per RBC

A

microcytic, hypochromic anemia

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2
Q

decrease in the number of mature, circulating RBCs

A

megaloblastic (macrocytic), hyperchromic anemia

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3
Q

loss of RBCs (hemorrhage) or decrease in hematopoietic growth factors, esp erythropoietin

A

normocytic anemia

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4
Q

ferrous sulfate, gluconate, fumarate, iron dextran treat?

A

microcytic anemia

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5
Q

iron antidote?

A

deferoxamine

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6
Q

folic acid, leucovorin, cyanocobalamin, hydroxycobalamin treat?

A

macrocytic anemia

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7
Q

epoetin alfa (EPO) treats?

A

normocytic anemia

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8
Q

iron deficiency –> loss of hemosiderin granules in bone marrow –> serum _____ decreases –>serum iron decreases

A

ferritin

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9
Q

best indicator of iron deficiency is elevation of _________

A

total iron binding capacity of transferrin

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10
Q
  • essential for normal synthesis of DNA and normal mitosis of proliferating cells
  • conversion to cofactors required for purine and pyrimidine synthesis
A

folic acid

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11
Q

conversion of homocysteine to methionine requires folate as methyl donor with _____ as cofactor

A

B12

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12
Q
  • given during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects (spina bifida)
  • -hyperhomocystinuria possible risk factor for coronary heart disease
  • low methionine levels in deficiency
A

folate deficiency

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13
Q
  • essential for normal synthesis of DNA and for maintenance of myelin throughout nervous system
  • required to convert dietary form of folate
  • required to convert methylmalonyl coA to succinyl coA
  • required to convert homocysteine to methionine
A

vitamin B12

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14
Q

absorption of vitamin B12 requires ______, a glycoprotein synthesized by parietal cells of stomach

A

intrinsic factor

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15
Q

IF binds B12, and complex absorbed in the ______

A

ileum

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16
Q
  • usually given parenterally
  • does not cause antibody response to complex
  • preferred for long term use
A

cyanocobalamin

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17
Q
  • highly protein bound and remains in circulation longer
  • some patients produce antibodies
  • treatment for cyanide poisoning
A

hydroxycobalamin

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18
Q

-megaloblastic anemia due to B12 deficiency resulting from lack of production of intrinsic factor by the parietal cells of the gastric mucosa, accompanied by achlorhydria

A

pernicious anemia

19
Q
  • glycoprotein that stimulates red cell production

- treatment of anemia patients with chronic renal failure and in cancer patients

A

epoeitn alpha (erythropoietin)

20
Q
  • recombinant granulocytic macrophage colony stimulating factor
  • promotes myeloid recovery in patients with non hodgkins, ALL, Hodgkin’s undergoing bone marrow transplant
  • promotes myeloid recovery after standard dose chemo
  • treats drug induced bone marrow toxicity or neutropenia assoc’d with AIDS
  • AE incidence and severity
A

sargramostim (GM-CSF)

21
Q
  • recombinant colony stimulating factor

- for chemo related neutropenia, promotion of myeloid recovery in patients undergoing bone marrow transplantation

A

filgrastim (G-CSF)

22
Q

promotes megakaryopoiesis, increasing peripheral platelets

A

oprelvekin

23
Q

clopidegrel, ticlodipine, prasugrel, ticagrelor, cangrelor mehanism of action?

A

ADP antagonists

24
Q

abciximab, tirofiban is a platelet receptor ________ inhibitor

A

GP2b3a

25
Q

inhibit blood coagulation in vitro

A

calcium chelators

26
Q

accelerates action of antithrombin III to neutralize thrombin and other coagulation factors

A

heparins

27
Q

-rudins and -gat drugs

A

direct thrombin (IIa) inhibitors

28
Q

-xaban drugs

A

direct Xa inhibitors

29
Q

coumarin derivatives interfere with the hepatic synthesis of functional _______ clotting factors

A

vitamin K dependent

30
Q

enoxaparin, dalteparin, tinzaparin, nadroparin are ______ heparins

A

low molecular weight

31
Q

________ for use in patients who are taking the anticoagulant dabigatran during emergency situations when there is a need to reverse the blood thinning effects

A

praxbind (idarucizumab)

32
Q

rivaroxaban, apixaban, edoxaban class?

A

direct Xa inhibitors

33
Q

vitamin K epoxide reductase inhibitor?

A

warfarin

34
Q
  • PTT monitoring not required
  • does not increase vascular permeability
  • minimal endothelial cell/protein binding
  • dose independent clearance
  • 3-6 hours elimination half life
A

LMWH

35
Q

warfarin has _____ volume of distribution (albumin space), long half life 36 hrs, and metabolized by CYP450

A

low

36
Q

amiodarone, cimetidine, disulfiram, fluconazole, metronidazole, phenylbutazone, sulfinpyrazone, TMP-SMX and erythromycin ________ warfarin metabolism, requiring a ______ dose

A

inhibits

decreased

37
Q

barbiturates, carbamazepine, primidone, rifampin, St johns wort, cholestyramine _______ warfarin metabolism, requiring ______ dose

A

induces

increased

38
Q

monitor heparin with _______, monitor warfarin with ______

A

PTT

PT (INR)

39
Q

treatment of heparin overdose?

A

protamine sulfate

40
Q

treatment of warfarin overdose?

A

vit K, FFP

41
Q

urokinase, alteplase, reteplase, tenecteplase?

A

fibrinolytic drugs

42
Q

fibrinolytics work by lysing thrombi by catalyzing formation of ______ from its precursor zymogen

A

plasmin

43
Q

fibrinolytic inhibitor?

A

aminocaproic acid