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Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

How many layers is the cortex?

A

6

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2
Q

How many layers is the hippocampus?

A

3

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3
Q

What part of the brain is the last part of myelinate?

A

subcortical white matter

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4
Q

What parts of the brain are myelinated at birth?

A

brainstem, posterior limb of the internal capsule

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5
Q

The sinuses form in what order?

A

maxillary, ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal

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6
Q

What goes through the foramen ovale?

A

V3, accessory meningeal artery

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7
Q

Foramen rotundum?

A

V2

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8
Q

SUperior orbital fissure?

A

CN 3, 4, V1, 6

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9
Q

Inferior orbital fissure?

A

CN V2

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10
Q

Foramen spinosum?

A

middle meningeal artery

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11
Q

Jugular foramen pars nervosa?

A

CN 9

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12
Q

Jugular foramen pars vascularis?

A

CN 10, CN 11

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13
Q

What is the tympanic branch of the CN9?

A

Jacobsons nerve

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14
Q

What is the auricular branch of CN 10?

A

arnolds nerve

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15
Q

What goes through the cavernous sinus?

A

CN3, 4, V1, V2, CN 6 carotid

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16
Q

What are the branches of the external carotid?

A

Some Adminstrative assistants like fucking over poor medical students.

superior thyroid
ascending parhyngeal
lingual
facial occipital
posterior auricular
maxillary
superficial temporal
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17
Q

Its origin is at the dural ring?

A

C6-opthalmic=supraclinoid

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18
Q

What is the most common vascular variant?

A

fetal origin of the PCA

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19
Q

What is the orientation of the PCOM to CN3 in fetal PCA?

A

superior lateral to CN 3 instead of superior medial

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20
Q

What is an aberrant carotid artery?

A

enlarged inferior tympanic artery anastomosis with an enlarged caroticotympanic artery

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21
Q

What does the vein of trolard connect?

A

superficial middle vein to superior sagittal sinus

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22
Q

What does the vein of labbe connect?

A

superficial middle vein and the transverse sinus

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23
Q

CN3 palsy think what kind of aneurysm?

A

PCOM

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24
Q

CN 6 palsy think what ?

A

increased ICP

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25
Q

What does intracranial hypotension look like?

A

distention of dural sinuses, prominence of the intracranial vessels and engorgment of intracranial vessels, engorgement pituitary

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26
Q

idiopathic intracranial hypertension pseudotumor cerebri

A

slit like ventricles, pituitary shrinks, venous sinuses compressed

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27
Q

upward bowing of the corpus callosum

A

normal pressure hydrocephalus

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28
Q

What nerve gets compressed in descending transtentorial herniation?

A

CN3

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29
Q

What is kernohans notch?

A

midbrain on tentorium leads to ipsilateral hemiparesis

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30
Q

spinning top=

A

ascending transtentorial herniation

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31
Q

What does osmotic demyelination look like?

A

T2 bright in ncetral pons

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32
Q

contrast enhancement of the mamillary bodies=

A

wernickes

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33
Q

Flair signal in bilateral thalamus and periaqueductal gray=

A

wernickes

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34
Q

carbon moxide poisoning on ct and mri?

A

hypodense, T2 bright GP

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35
Q

marchiafava bignami?

A

swelling/t2 bright corpus callosum

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36
Q

sandwhich sign=

A

marchiafava bignami

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37
Q

Methanoal poisoning on MRI

A

optic nerve atrophy, hemorrhagic putaminal and subcortical white matter necrosis

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38
Q

mineralizing microangiopathy=

A

post chemo in kids

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39
Q

What is disseminated necrotizing leukoencephalopathy??

A

severe white matter changes, demonstrating ring enhancement

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40
Q

hippocampal atrophy=

A

alzheimers

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41
Q

dementia with lewy bodies on pet brain?

A

decreased uptake in lateral occipital cortex with sparing of the mid posterior cingulate gyrus (cingulate island sign)

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42
Q

what is binswanger disease?

A

subcortical leukoencephalopathy, sparing subcortical u fibers

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43
Q

picks dementia on fdg pet

A

low in frontal lobes

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44
Q

periventricular calcifications=

A

CMV

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45
Q

CMV has highest association with what?

A

polymicrogyria

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46
Q

Appearance of toxo?

A

BG calcs and hydrocephalus

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47
Q

neonatal HSV in brain?

A

thrombus with hemorrhagic infarction

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48
Q

Neonatal HIV=

A

frontal atrophy

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49
Q

What is the most common opportunistic infection in patients with AIDS?

A

toxo

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50
Q

What is the most common fungal infection in AIDS?

A

cryptococcus

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51
Q

HIV encephalitis in what CD4 count?

A

<200

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52
Q

HIV encephalitis appearance?

A

symmetric increased flair in deep white matter, spares subcortical u fibers, T1 normal

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53
Q

PML at what CD4?

A

less than 50

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54
Q

PML appearance

A

T1 hypointense, T2 hyperintense, asymmetric with involvement of the subcortical u fibers

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55
Q

Ring enhancing lesion with lots of edema=

A

toxo

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56
Q

edema in temporal lobe=

A

herpes

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57
Q

What is limbi encephalitis?

A

paraneoplastic syndrome similar to hsv

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58
Q

what does west nile look like in the brain

A

t2 bright BG and thalamus with RD

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59
Q

What are the three ways CJD may be shown?

A

pulvinar sign, restricted cortical gyriform signal. series of CT/MR showing rapid atrophy

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60
Q

what is the pulvinar sign?

A

RD in dorsal medial thalamus

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61
Q

What ist he pulvinar sign

A

RD in dorsal medial thalamus

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62
Q

What are the four stages of neurocysticercosis

A

vesicular, colloidal, granular, nodular

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63
Q

What are the two low grade tumors that enhance?

A

ganglioglioma and pilocytic astrocytoma

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64
Q

Mnemonic for bleeding mets?

A

MRCT: melanoma, rena, carcinoid, choriocarcinoma, thyroid

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65
Q

Two tumors found in NF1

A

optic glioma, astrocytoma

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66
Q

NF2 tumors

A

MSME, mutiple schwannomas, meningiomas, ependymomas

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67
Q

Tumors in tuberous sclerosis

A

subependymal tubers, IV giant cell astrocytomas

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68
Q

Mnemonic for cortically based tumors

A

PDOG

PXA,
DNET
oligodendroglioma
ganglioglioma

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69
Q

calcified frontal lobe tumor with cortical expansion

A

oligodendroglioma

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70
Q

temporal lobe mass that is cystic/solid with focal calcifications

A

ganglioglioma

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71
Q

DNET

A

bubbly temporal lobe lesion

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72
Q

PXA

A

cyst with nodule in temporal lobe- can have dural tail

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73
Q

5 tumors that arise from the ventricular wall and septum pellucidum

A

ependymoma, medulloblastoma, SEGA, subependymoma, central neurocytoma

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74
Q

3 choroid plexus tumors

A

papilloma, carcinoma, xanthogranuloma

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75
Q

tooth pastetumor

A

ependymoma

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76
Q

where does ependymoma originate from

A

floor of fourth ventricle

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77
Q

Where does medullobastoma arise from?

A

vermis/floor of fourth ventricle

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78
Q

What posterior fossa tumor can be hyperdense?

A

medulloblastoma

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79
Q

What two syndromes are medulloblastomas associated with?

A

Turcos, Basal Cell nevus

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80
Q

What is gorlin syndrome

A

medulloblastoma, dural calcs, basal cell skin CA, odontogenic cysts

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81
Q

enhancing partially calfied lesion at foramen of monroe over 5mm

A

SEGA

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82
Q

SEGA a/w ?

A

AML

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83
Q

Subependymoma found where?

A

foramen of monro and 4th ventricle in adult

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84
Q

swiss cheese lesion=

A

central neurocytoma

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85
Q

Choroid plexus lesion in kid is hwere?

A

4th ventricle

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86
Q

In adult?

A

lateral ventricle/trigone

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87
Q

Choroid plexus carcinoma a/w?

A

li fraumeni

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88
Q

round well circumscribed mass in anterior 3rd ventricle

A

colloid cyst

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89
Q

Where is an intraventricular meningioma most commonly?

A

trigone of lateral ventricles

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90
Q

Meningioma takes up what radiotracer?

A

octreotide and Tc MDP

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91
Q

Schwannoma or meningioma invade iac?

A

schwannoma

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92
Q

What is the most common location for a dermoid cyst?

A

suprasellar cistern

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93
Q

infratentorial cyst with nodule

A

JPA

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94
Q

diffuse brain stem glioma

A

pons, t2 bright with flattening of 4th ventrcile

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95
Q

hemangioblastoma?

A

cyst with nodule in adult in cerebellum

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96
Q

hemangioblastoma a/w?

A

polycythemia

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97
Q

gliomatosis cerebri

A

involves three lobes with blurring of grey white matter differentiation

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98
Q

what is the most common primary cns lymphoma?

A

non hodgkin b cell

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99
Q

rapidly increasing head circumference =

A

DIG large cystic tumor supratentorial

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100
Q

mimics an aggressive meninigoma

A

hemangiopericytoma but invades skull

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101
Q

what is the most common met to the dura?

A

breast CA

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102
Q

which type of craniopharyngioma is calcified?

A

adamantinomatous

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103
Q

machinery oil=

A

adamantinomatous craniopharygioma

104
Q

pineal mass encasing calcs

A

germinoma

105
Q

pineal mass exploding calcs

A

pineocytoma or pineoblastoma

106
Q

What two tumors are seen in turcots?

A

GBM, medulloblastoma

107
Q

Cowdens=

A

lhermitte duclos! breast CA

108
Q

Ossicular dislocation is most common in what temporal bone fracture type?

A

longitudinal

109
Q

Facial nerve damage is most common in what fracture tyope?

A

transverse

110
Q

fusiform aneursyms are associated with what three things?

A

PAN, connective tissue disorder, dysphillis

111
Q

what is a pedicle aneursym

A

found on artery feeding AVM

112
Q

what is a blister aneurysm

A

brad based at a non branch point= supraclinoid ICA

113
Q

what is infubdibular widening

A

origin at PCOM, not greater than 3mm

114
Q

pulsatile tinnitus involving the sigmoid sinus=

A

dural AVF

115
Q

caput medusae or large tree with multipile branches-

A

DVA

116
Q

popcorn, peripheral rim of hemosiderin=

A

cavernoma

117
Q

when does vasospasm occur

A

4-14 days after hemorrhage

118
Q

what is the most common systemic vasculitis to involve the CNS?

A

PAN

119
Q

WM diease greatest of frontal and temporal lobes=

A

CADASIL

120
Q

asymmetric dilation of the occipital horns=

A

colpocephaly

121
Q

if colpocephaly think 2

A

pericallosal lipoma and corpus callosum agenesis

122
Q

steer horn ventricles or vertical ventricles=

A

callsoal dysgenesis/agenesis

123
Q

frog eye appearance=

A

anencephaly

124
Q

iniencephaly=

A

deficit of occiput leading to enlarge foramen magnum, star gazing fetus

125
Q

transversely oriented single lobed cerebellum=

A

rhombencephalosynapsis

126
Q

molar tooth=

A

joubert syndrome

127
Q

joubert a/w?

A

retinal dysplasia

128
Q

joubert + liver fibrosis=

A

COACH syndrome

129
Q

dandy walker=

A

torcuar lambdoid inversion

130
Q

fused at thalami=

A

semi lobar holoprosencephaly

131
Q

single lobar ventricle=

A

alobar no falx

132
Q

meckel gruber syndrome triad

A

holoprosencephaly, multiple renal cyst, polydactyly

133
Q

schizencephaly a/w 3

A

optic nerve hypoplasia, absent septum pellucidum, epilepsy

134
Q

hydrancephaly

A

falx, no mantle

135
Q

brachycephaly + fused fingers=

A

aperts

136
Q

brachycephaly + first arch hypoplasia=

A

crouzon

137
Q

bicoronal/lambdoid fusion=

A

brachycephaly

138
Q

sagital fusion=

A

scaphocephaly

139
Q

u/l coronal fusion=

A

plagiocephaly

140
Q

metopic fusion-

A

trigonocephaly

141
Q

coronal and lambdoid fusion=

A

turricephaly

142
Q

what is bessi?

A

benign enlargment of the subarachnoid space in infancy

143
Q

what is the most common cause of macrocephaly?

A

BESSI

144
Q

what does MELAS look like on spect?

A

increased lactate, decreased NAA

145
Q

canavans on spect?

A

increased NAA

146
Q

ALexandrers on head ct?

A

big head, frontal WHM involvemenbt

147
Q

tigroid=

A

metachromatic

148
Q

adrenoluekodystrophy territory

A

occiput, splenium WM symmetric

149
Q

leigh diseease aka

A

subacute necrotizing encephalomyeloaphty

150
Q

What is the highest normal peak on SPECT?

A

NAA

151
Q

what is a lactacte peak seen in?

A

first hourso f life, infection, high grade necrotic tumor

152
Q

what is myoinositol elevated in?

A

alzheimers, low grade tumors

153
Q

alanine elevation is specific for?

A

meningiomas

154
Q

glutamine elevated in?

A

hepatic encephalopathy

155
Q

high grade tumor SPECT

A

choline up NAA down, lactate and lipis up

156
Q

low grade tumor SPECT

A

choline naa down, inositol up

157
Q

radiation necrosis spect pattern

A

choldine naa down, lactate up

158
Q

cholesterol granuloma mr characteristics

A

t2 and t1 bright

159
Q

cholesteatoma mr characteristics

A

t1 dark, t2 bright, RD

160
Q

endolymphatic sac tumor on mr

A

t2 bright with enhanvement. flow voids

161
Q

endolymphatic sac tumor a/w

A

VHL

162
Q

absence of what is seen in LVAS?

A

bony modiuls

163
Q

LVAS is most common cause of what?

A

sensorineural hearing loss

164
Q

what does labyrinthis look like on mr

A

chochlea semicircular canals enhancing

165
Q

conductive hearing loss in adult femeale

A

otosclerosis

166
Q

bony resorption anterior to the oval window at teh fissula natefenestrum=

A

fenestral

167
Q

demineralization around choclea=

A

retro fenestral

168
Q

otitic hydrocephalus=

A

venous thrombus affecting resorption of CSF

169
Q

order in which cholestatoma ruins the ear?

A

sctum, ossicles (long process of incus) lateral semicircular canal

170
Q

main bacteria in necrotizing external otitis?

A

pseudomonas

171
Q

what parts do NOT enhance of the facial nerve?

A

cisternal, canalicular, labyrinthine

172
Q

what parts of the facial nerve enhance?

A

tymapnic, mastoid

173
Q

widening of the maxillary ostium=

A

antrochoanal polyp

174
Q

classic location of inverrted papilloma?

A

lateral wall of nasal cavity, middle tubrinate

175
Q

cerebriform pattern on MRI=

A

inverted papilloma

176
Q

what NM is positive in esthesioneuroblastoma

A

octreotide

177
Q

what is the main supply to the posterior

A

sphenopalatine artery branch of internal maxillary

178
Q

sack of marbles=

A

floor of mouth dermoid/epidermoid

179
Q

submandibular duct=

A

whartons

180
Q

periapical cyst/radicular cyst located where

A

apex of non vital tooth

181
Q

dentigerous cyst location where?

A

crown of un erupted tooth

182
Q

multilocular daughter cystic lesion at mandibular ramus or body=

A

keratogenic odontogenic tumor

183
Q

multicystic mandibular lesion with solid components and mandibular expansion

A

adamntioma/ameloblastoma

184
Q

raidodense lesion of jaw with lucent rim

A

odontoma/hamartoma

185
Q

parotid space contains what three things

A

partoid gland CN 7 retro mandibular vein

186
Q

What is the most common major and minor salivary gland tumor?

A

pleomorphic adenoma

187
Q

What does a pleomorphic adenoma look like?

A

t2 bright with low signal rim

188
Q

Superifical vs deep parotid gland?

A

line from lateral posterior belly of the digastric and lateral surface of the mandibular ascending ramus

189
Q

bilateral cystic tumor in male smoker

A

warthins

190
Q

what does warthins tumor take up on nm?

A

pertechnetate

191
Q

What is the most common malignant tumor of the minor salivary glands

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

192
Q

Perineural tumor spread=

A

adenoid cystic carcinoma

193
Q

What patients have a huge risk of parotid lymphoma?

A

Sjogrens

194
Q

honeycombed partoid gland=

A

sjogrens

195
Q

What nerves are in the carotid space?

A

CN 9 10 11

196
Q

What are the three classic carotid space tumors?

A

paragangliom, schwannoma, neurofibroma

197
Q

middle ear floor destroyed=

A

glomus jugulare

198
Q

tumor overlying the cochlear promontory

A

glomus tympanicum

199
Q

what is i nthe masticator space?

A

masticators, mteporalis, medial/lateral ptreygoids, mandibular ramus, inferior alveolar nerve

200
Q

Perineural spread=

A

adenoid cystic and melanoma

201
Q

what are the lateral nodes of rouvier?

A

retropharyngeal nodes

202
Q

What is grisels syndrome?

A

torticollis with anterior disAA join inflammation seen in HN surgery or retropharyngeal abscess

203
Q

anterior displacement of paraphyngreal space=

A

carotid lesion

204
Q

medial displacement=

A

partoid lesion

205
Q

posterior medial displacement

A

masticator space

206
Q

lateral deviation

A

superifical mucosal space

207
Q

What seaparates 1a from 1 b nodes?

A

anterior belly of digastric

208
Q

what separates 1 b from 2 a nodes?

A

stylohyoid muscle/posterior submandibular gldn

209
Q

what separates 2a from 2 b nodes

A

spinal acessory nerve

210
Q

what separates 2 from 3

A

lower border of hyoid

211
Q

what separates 3 from 4

A

lower cricoid

212
Q

Fixation of the cords indicates what?

A

T3 tumor

213
Q

focal discontinuity of the globe=

A

coloboma

214
Q

small eye of increased density of the vitreous=

A

PHPV persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous

215
Q

what is coats disease caused by?

A

retinal telangiectasis results in subretinal exudate. NOT calcified.

216
Q

tramtrack calcifications of theoptic nerve

A

optic nerve sheath menigioma

217
Q

orbital pseudotumor painful?

A

now

218
Q

what does orbital pseudotumor involve?

A

lacteral rectus most commonly with sparing of myotendinous insertions

219
Q

IgG4 disease involving the cavernous sinus

A

tool

220
Q

igg4 disease involving the pituitary

A

lymphocytic hypophysitis

221
Q

what is the most common benign congential orbital mass and what doesit look like?

A

dermoid superior lateral from frontozygomatic suture

222
Q

WHat ist he most common extra ocular malignancy in kids?

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

223
Q

Malt lymphoma is a/w?

A

chlamydia psittaci

224
Q

WHat is the most common intra ocular lesion in an adult?

A

melanoma

225
Q

collar button shaped eye tumor=

A

melanmoma

226
Q

Melanoma eye has strong predilection for what kind of met?

A

liver met

227
Q

What is the most common cause of sponatenous orbital hemorrhage?

A

varix

228
Q

Two causes of pulsatile exopthalmos?

A

CCF, NF1 due to sphenoid wing dysplasia

229
Q

What does thyroid orbitopathy affect?

A

only muscle belly, IM SLOw

inferior rectus>medial rectus>lateral rectus>superior oblique

230
Q

Is thyroid orbitopathy painful?

A

NO

231
Q

stop coumadin how long before LP?

A

4-5 days

232
Q

stop lavix how long before LP?

A

7 days

233
Q

hold LMW heparin how long?

A

12 hours

234
Q

Hold heparin how long?

A

2-4 hours

235
Q

WHat is he currarino triad?

A

anterior sacral meningocele, anorectal malformation, sacrococcygeal osseous defect

236
Q

What is the most common spinal vm/avf

A

type 1 dural AVF

237
Q

What is a type 2 avf/avm?

A

intramedullary nidus

238
Q

What is a type three avm/svf

A

juvenile-rare

239
Q

what is a type 4 spinal avm/avf

A

intradural perimedullary near conus

240
Q

What is foix alajouanine syndrome

A

myelopaty a/w dural avf at conus or lower thoracic spine

241
Q

another way t odescfibe H shape vertebrae?

A

widened disc space

242
Q

bilaterally symetric increased t2 dorsal signal of the ord

A

scid or HIV

243
Q

Increased t2 of at least 2/3 of cord

A

TM, NMO, MS iscehmia

244
Q

thickened enhancing onion bulb nerve roots=

A

chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropahty CIDP

245
Q

what are the three intramedullary tumors?

A

astrocytoma, ependymoma, hemangioblastoma

246
Q

what are the four extramedullary intradural tumors?

A

schwannoma meningioma neurofibroma drop mets

247
Q

what are the four extra dural tumors”

A

disc, bone tumors, mets, lymphoma

248
Q

astorcytoma what age group?

A

kids

249
Q

where is astrocytoma located?

A

upper thoracic spine

250
Q

what do astrocytomas look like?

A

t1 dark, t2 bright with rostral or caudal cysts

251
Q

ependymoma kid or adults?what ist he most common primary cord tumor of the lower spinal cord?

A

ependymom

252
Q

myxopapillary ependymoma

A

found in conus/filum with dark cap on T2

253
Q

expanded cord with meningeal varicosities

A

hemangioblastoma

254
Q

what a re the 6 lesions a/w VHL?

A

pheo, CNS hemagnioblastoma, endolymphatic sac tumor, pancreatic cyst, pancreatic islet cell tumor, clear cell RCC

255
Q

what section of cord do meningiomas favor?

A

posterior lateral thoracic spine or anterio cervical spine

Rad (18 decks)

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