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Rad > Interventional > Flashcards

Interventional Flashcards

1
Q

how many inches equal 1mm

A

0.039

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2
Q

what are microwire sizes 2

A

0.018, 0.014

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3
Q

how many french = 1mm

A

3 french

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4
Q

diameter in mm =

A

French/3

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5
Q

french size is external or interal of a catheter?

A

external

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6
Q

sheath size given by which diameter?

A

inner diameter

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7
Q

how to predict size of skin hole?

A

add 2 French to sheath to calculate outer diameter

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8
Q

1 french - how many mm?

A

0.3mm

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9
Q

wire diameters given in?

A

inches

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10
Q

wire lengths given in?

A

centimeters

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11
Q

18G needle will accept what inch guidewire

A

0.038

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12
Q

19G needle will accept what inch guidewire

A

0.035

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13
Q

21G needle accepts what inch guidewire

A

0.018

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14
Q

Standard wire length?

A

180cm

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15
Q

Long wire length?

A

260cm

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16
Q

bentson used for what?

A

thrombus lysing

floppy

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17
Q

lunderquist used for what?

A

aortic stent grafting

Stiff!

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18
Q

end hole catheter used in what type of injection?

A

hand only

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19
Q

catheter needed for acute angle? 2

A

berenstein or headhunter

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20
Q

catheter needed for angle of 60-120?

A

RDC or cobra

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21
Q

catheter needed for obtuse angle?

A

recurved catheter.

sidewinder or sos omni

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22
Q

rate 1-2ml/sec for 4-10ml volume

A

bronchial artery

intercostal artery

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23
Q

rate 4-8ml/sec for 8-15 ml volume

A 
carotid
SC
renal 
femoral 
IMA (higher vol 15-30)
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24
Q

rate 5-7ml.sec for 30-40 volume

A

celiac

sma

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25
Q

rate 20-30 ml/sec for 30-40 ml volume

A

aorta
aortic arch
ivc
pulmonary artery

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26
Q

each french gives what ml for flow rate? (with 3F as baseline)

A

8ml/s

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27
Q

4F rate

A

16 ml/s

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28
Q

5F rate

A

24ml/s

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29
Q

What is a contraindication for translumbar aortic puncture?

A

supraceliac aortic aneurysm

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30
Q

what is typical access level for translumbar aortic puncture?

A

high: T12 endplate
low: L3

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31
Q

Order of preference for venous access:

A

RIJ>LIJ>REJ>LEJ

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32
Q

thrombin dose

A

0.5-0.1ml (500-1000 units)

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33
Q

Self expandable stents are good for what?

A

superifical locations

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34
Q

balloon expandable stents are good for what?

A

precise deployment

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35
Q

aortic balloon size

A

10-15 mm

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36
Q

common iliac balloon size

A

8mm

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37
Q

external iliac balloon size

A

7mm

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38
Q

CFA, Prox CFA balloon size

A

6mm

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39
Q

distal SFA balloon size

A

5mm

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40
Q

Indications for EVAR

A

AAA over 5cm

AAA growing >0.5cm in 6 months

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41
Q

landing zone requirements for EVAR

A

10mm long
<3.2cm wide
<60 degree of toruousity

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42
Q

iliac angulation > what angle may difficult device deployment?

A

over 90

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43
Q

iliac artery diameter less than what makes for difficult device deployment

A

less than 7mm

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44
Q

What is a crawford type 4 aneurysm?

A

12th intercostal space to iliac bifurcation with involvement of renal superior mesenteric and celiac arteries

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45
Q

type 1 endoleak

A

leak at top or bottom of graft

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46
Q

type 2 endoleak

A

filling of sac by feeder arery

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47
Q

type 3 endoleak

A

defect/fracture in graft

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48
Q

type 4 endoleak

A

porosity of graft

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49
Q

type 5 endoleak

A

endotension

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50
Q

varicocele tx

A

coils

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51
Q

uterine fibroid embo tx

A

pva or microspheres 500-1000 micrometers

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52
Q

generic trauma tx

A

gel foam

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53
Q

diffuse splenic trauma tx

A

amplatzer prox to short gastric arteries

54
Q

pulmonary avm tx

A

coil

55
Q

hemoptysis tx

A

pva particles >325 micrometer

56
Q

hypervascular spinal tumor tx

A

onyx

57
Q

total renal embo

A

absolute ethanol

58
Q

partial renal embo

A

glue

59
Q

segmental renal artery aneurysm

A

coils

60
Q

main renal artery aneurysm

A

covered stent

61
Q

peripartum hemorrhage

A

gel foam

62
Q

uppper GI blee

A

egd first then coils

63
Q

lower gi bleed

A

microcoils

64
Q

large vessel permanent

A

coils

amplatz

65
Q

large vessel temporary

A

gelfoam

autologous clot

66
Q

small vessel permanent 4

A

particles
liquid sclerosants
thrombin
ethiodol

67
Q

small vessel temporary

A

microspheres

gelfoam powder

68
Q

medial ankle ulcer cause

A

venous stasis

69
Q

dorsum foot ulcer cause

A

ischemic/infected ulcer

70
Q

plantar foot ulcer cause

A

neurotrophic ulcer

71
Q

what type of filter can be placed in smaller veins?

A

simon nitinol

72
Q

what type of filter has a superior ned hook for retrieval?

A

gunther tulip

73
Q

filter removal volume of clot that filter can come out

A

less than 1cm cubed

74
Q

less than what flow for graft does fistulogram need to be performed

A

<600 cc/min

75
Q

less than what flow for fistula does fistulogram need to be performed

A

<500cc/min

76
Q

Where is problem usually in grafts?

A

at venous outflow

77
Q

thrill/bruit in graft?

A

thrill at arterial anastomosis

low pitched bruit audible throughout graft

78
Q

where is problem usually in fistulas?

A

venous outflow

79
Q

thrill in fistula?

A

continous thrill at anastomosis

80
Q

fistula pulsatile?

A

central stenosis

81
Q

bruit in fistula?

A

low pitched in outflow vein

82
Q

cold painful fingers during dialysis-

A

steal syndrome

83
Q

what direction do you access grafT?

A

antegrade for venous problems

retrograde for arterial

84
Q

normal pressure difference between the portal vein and IVC

A

3-6mm Hg

85
Q

portal HTN pressure in PV

A

> 10mm Hg or pressure gradient over 5mm Hg

86
Q

absolute contraindication for TIPS?

A

elevated right heart pressure (10-12)

87
Q

what time o stent in tips?

A

covered

88
Q

what do you want gradient to be in tips?

A

less than 12

89
Q

two relative cotraindications for TIPS

A

cavernous transformation of poratl vein

severe ecnphalopathy

90
Q

what is normal flow in tips stent

A

90-190 cm/s

91
Q

what is velocity in narrowed tips segment

A

> 200 cm/s

92
Q

what is low portal vein velocity

A

<30cm/s

93
Q

temporal increase/decrease of what in shunt velocity is abnormal

A

by more than 50 cm/s

94
Q

tips PSG of what needs treatment

A

> 12 mm Hg

95
Q

where is ips stenosis usually?

A

hepatic vein or within TIPS tract

96
Q

what is BRTO for?

A

treat gastric varices

97
Q

What segments does the left hepatic duct drain

A

2 and 4

98
Q

what segments does the right hepatic duct drain

A

6,7, 5, 8

99
Q

what is the most common biliary ariant?

A

right posterior segment brain draining into the left hepatic duct

100
Q

hepatic ducts flow in what direction

A

towards the hilum

101
Q

hepatic vein flows in what direction

A

cranially towards the heart

102
Q

hepatic artery frlows in what direction

A

towards the periphery

103
Q

go through what hepatic segments to perform cholecystostomy

A

5 and 6

104
Q

what is kehr sign

A

prolonged shoulder pain s/p liver biopsy cocerning for bleed

105
Q

what is absolute contraindicated of tace?

A

decompenseated liver failure

106
Q

sterile or chemical cholecsystiis in setting of tace?

A

agent injected into right hepatic artery

107
Q

yttrium 1/2 life

A

64 hours

108
Q

yttrium energy

A

0.93 MeV

109
Q

over what size are tumors debulked and not cured?

A

4 cm

110
Q

what do o uuse to treat angiodysplasia?

A

microcoils or PVA particles

111
Q

PVA particle size in GI bleed?

A

300-500 microns

112
Q

drain size for clear fluid

A

6-8f

113
Q

drain size for thin pus

A

8-10 F

114
Q

drain size for thick pus

A

10-12 F

115
Q

drain size for colelctions with debris

A

12 F+

116
Q

threshold for size of diverticular absess to be drained

A

2cm

117
Q

size indication for renal abscess drain

A

3-5cm

118
Q

where should nephrostomy be done on transplant kidney?

A

anterolateral calyx of the mid to upper pole

119
Q

projection of choice for lookin at the renals?

A

LAO

120
Q

renal aneursym small segmented arteris

A

coils

121
Q

renal aneursym main renal artery tx

A

covered stent

122
Q

RFA of what size lung tumors is perfomred

A

1.5 to 5.2 cm

123
Q

What is the classic catheter used for pulmonary artery angioq

A

grollman catheter preshaped 7 F

124
Q

two relative contraindications of pulmonary angiography

A

elevated right heart pressures over 70 systolic 20 end diastolic; LBBB

125
Q

where does the anterior medullary artery typically arise from?

A

right intercostal bronchial trunk

126
Q

treatment for hemoptysis?

A

particles over 325 micrometers

127
Q

treament for fibroids

A

PVA or embospheres

128
Q

treatment for postpartum hemorrhage?

A

gel foam or glue

129
Q

maxmium dose of lidocaine

A

4-5 mg per kg

130
Q

maximum dose for lido with epi?

A

7mg/kg

Rad (18 decks)

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