Principle of Screening and Immunization Flashcards

1
Q

define screening

A
  • identification of unrecognized disease, disease precursors, or susceptibility to disease in persons without evidence of disease by rapidly applied tests, examinations or other procedures
  • focuses on healthy populations, looks for asymptomatic disease
  • positive or suspicious findings are referred for follow-up diagnostic tests and treatment
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2
Q

give examples of screening tests

A
  • questions
  • clinical examinations
  • laboratory tests
  • genetic tests
  • radiographic exam
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3
Q

describe the intrinsic properties of a screening test

A
  • reliability (reproducibility)
    • extent to which repeated measurements get similar results
  • validity (accuracy)
    • ability of test to detect who has the disease and who does not
    • usually judged against another test of greater known accuracy (“gold standard”)
    • measured by sensitivity, specificity, predictive value of positive or negative test
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4
Q

describe the function of the US Preventive Services Task Force

A
  • independent panel of private-sector experts in primary care and prevention
  • conducts rigorous, impartial assessments of the scientific evidence of effectiveness of clinical preventive services, including screening, counseling and preventive medications
  • recommendations are the “gold standard”
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5
Q

describe evidence-based medicine and recommendations

A
  • the conscientious, explicit, and judicious use of current best evidence in making decisions about the care of individual patients
  • the practice of evidence-based medicine means integrating individual clinical expertise with the best available external clinical evidence from systematic research
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6
Q

name 4 things evidence-based recommendations require

A
  1. test or procedure is medically effective in reducing morbidity or mortality
  2. medical benefits must outweigh the risks
  3. cost of test or procedure must be reasonable
  4. recommended actions must be practical and feasible
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7
Q

list the selected recommended screening tests (USPSTF)

A
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8
Q

describe smallpox (vaccine-preventable)

A
  • variola major (more common) and minor forms
  • mostly droplet spread
  • incubation period ~12-14 days, then 2-4 day prodrome, then rash begins
  • rash becoming blisters, all same stage
  • ~30% case-fatality rate for variola major
  • only communicable disease eradicated by human efforts
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9
Q

name other vaccine-preventable rash illnesses

A
  • chickenpox/varicella
  • measles
  • rubella/German measles
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10
Q

name other vaccine-preventable childhood illnesses

A
  • mumps (MMR)
  • diphtheria (DTaP)
  • pertussis/whooping cough (DTaP)
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11
Q

name vaccine-preventable neuromuscular diseases

A
  • poliomyelitis (IPV)
  • tetanus (DTaP)
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12
Q

describe passive immunity

A
  • protection conferred to a susceptible host by transfer of immunity products from another person or animal
  • temporary protection that wanes with time
  • examples:
    • maternal antibodies across placenta or in milk
    • immune globulin
    • hyper-immune globulin
    • antitoxins
    • anti-venoms
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13
Q

describe active immunity

A
  • protection produced by the person’s own immune system (in response to non-self antigen)
  • usually long-lasting (permanent)
  • basic premise of immunization:
    • immunity and immunologic memory similar to natural infxn but without the disease
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14
Q

describe live attenuated vaccines

A
  • vaccine in which live “wild” virus is weakened (attenuated) through chemical or physical processes in order to process an immune response without causing clinical disease
  • must replicate in the host to be effective
  • immune response similar to natural infxn, and stronger than inactivated vaccines
  • induce both humoral and CMI
  • usually requires fewer doses*
    • *except those administered orally
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15
Q

describe issues with live attenuated vaccines

A
  • fragile–must be stored and handled carefully (for most, need to maintain cold chain)
  • severe reactions possible, particularly in immunocompromised individuals
  • interference from circulating antibody (e.g. measles vaccine and maternal antibodies)
  • rarely, can convert back to virulent strain (e.g. OPV-associated polio)
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16
Q

describe inactivated vaccines

A
  • inactivated by heat or chemicals
  • cannot replicate or revert
  • generally not as effective as live vaccines
  • less interference from circulating antibody than live vaccines
  • fewer side effects (usually localized, if any)
  • generally require 3-5 doses
  • immune response mostly humoral
  • antibody titer may diminish with time, requiring boosters
17
Q

describe combination vaccine, conjugate vaccine and adjuvant

A
  • combination vaccine: combination of 2 or more vaccines (e.g. diphtheria/tetanus/pertussis)
  • conjugate vaccine: vaccine in which a polysaccharide antigen is chemically joined with a protein molecule to improve the immunogenicity of the polysaccharide
  • adjuvant: substance that is used in a vaccine to improve the immune response so that less vaccine is needed to produce a non-specific stimulator of the immune response
18
Q

describe a polysaccharide vaccine

A
  • not consistently immunogenic in children < 2 yrs of age
  • no booster response
  • antibody with less functional activity
  • immunogenicity improved by conjugation to a protein
19
Q

describe the schedule of vaccination in children

A
20
Q

describe recommended vaccinations in adolescents

A
21
Q

describe recommended vaccinations in adults

A