70.6 Flashcards
(189 cards)
1
Q
T/F
The force must be reasonable under the circumstances known to the officer at the time force was used.
A
True, objectively reasonable
2
Q
T/F
Less-lethal force has a zero probability of producing fatalities or permanent injuries.
A
False, does not have
3
Q
Uniformed employees must be guided by two key principles in the understanding and application of the use of force policy:
A
(a) Sound professional judgment.
(b) The use of only that force reasonable for the situation as provided by law and in conformance with departmental policy.
4
Q
When officers are involved in or witness an incident in which they believe excess force may have been used by any peace officer, they (shall/should/may) immediately report the incident to a CHP supervisor and submit a report thoroughly documenting the events.
A
Shall
5
Q
Whenever, in the officer’s opinion, the use of force by any peace officer (CHP or allied agency) is excessive, it (is/is not) the responsibility of the officer to take immediate action appropriate for the circumstances.
This (should/should not) include verbal and/or physical intervention necessary to mitigate the use of excessive force.
A
Is
Should
6
Q
homicide is justifiable when committed by public officers and those acting by their command in their aid and assistance, either:
(1) In obedience to:
A
any judgment of a competent court;
7
Q
homicide is justifiable when committed by public officers and those acting by their command in their aid and assistance, either:
When necessarily committed in overcoming ______ __________ to the execution of some _____ ________, or in the discharge of any other _____ ____.
A
actual resistance
legal process
legal duty;
8
Q
homicide is justifiable when committed by public officers and those acting by their command in their aid and assistance, either:
(3) When necessarily committed in retaking ______ who have been rescued or have escaped, or when necessarily committed in arresting persons charged with a felony, and who are:
A
felons
fleeing from justice or resisting such arrest.
9
Q
In reference justifiable homicide: the word “necessarily” means:
A
that all other means of affecting arrest have been exhausted.
10
Q
When the attack is sudden and danger imminent, an officer may stand and ____ __ ________ even though it may be shown that ______ could have been gained in flight. There is no duty to:
A
slay an attacker
safety
abandon attempts to affect custody.
11
Q
Firearms used by an officer in the course of their employment are considered:
A
defensive weapons
12
Q
Self-defense is based upon the attendant circumstances which are sufficient to ______ ___ ____ of a ___________ ___ ________ ______ and upon the reasonable appearance of ________ _____ of death or serious bodily injury.
A
excite the fear
reasonable and prudent person
imminent peril
13
Q
T/F
Bare fear alone may justify the discharge of a firearm against a human being.
A
False, does not
14
Q
The shooting of an animal should be undertaken:
Supervisor’s approval to destroy the animal (shall/should) be obtained with consideration of the geographical location and the employee’s experience.
A
only as a last resort.
Should
15
Q
In the event of a reportable firearm discharge, the discharge shall be reported to a supervisor as soon as:
A
the situation is stabilized.
16
Q
When making a right side approach, officers (shall/should consider a _________ side approach, rather than passing between the vehicles.
A
Should
Right
17
Q
Once the interior of the violators vehicle no longer needs to be illuminated, the spotlights (shall/should/may) be turned off or:
A
Should
Moved to one side
18
Q
During darkness, the flashlight (shall/should/may) be used to the fullest extent, including tracking:
A
Should
The violators hand movements
19
Q
Both partners (shall/should/may) exit the patrol vehicle on every initial stop/contact.
A
Shall
20
Q
Officers (shall/should/may) not sit in the patrol car during the traffic stop unless:
A
Shall not
Unusual circumstances necessitate doing so for safety
21
Q
The circumstances of a traffic stop may change, so Officers (should/should not) attempt to control the movements of the violator and maintain a:
A
Should
Zone of safety for all
22
Q
If there is sufficient space, FSTs (shall/should/may) be administered on the right side of the patrol vehicle.
A
May
23
Q
The first (time) are crucial in an officer’s contact with the violator.
A
60 seconds
24
Q
Immediately after greeting the violator, the officer (shall/should/may) briefly explain why the enforcement stop was made.
A
Shall
25
After explaining to the violator the reason for being stopped, the officer (shall/should/may) request a driver license.
Should
26
(Do not/Officers may) make an enforcement stop for an obvious violation, then cite for something else.
Do not
27
The officer (shall not/should not) make their decision based on the attitude and/or appearance of the violator.
Should not
28
Officers (shall/shall not/should/should not/may/may not) apologize for taking an appropriate enforcement action.
Should not
29
Officers (are/are not) encouraged to let an upset violator talk and vent.
Are, to allow a safety valve for the violators
30
Officers (may/may not) enter into a discussion as to whether or not the citation can be adjudicated by mail.
May not
31
While on duty, officers (shall/shall/may) have their departmentally-issued ID card in their immediate possession, in accordance with Highway Patrol Manual:
Shall
73.5
32
On-duty officers receiving requests to view photographic ID (shall/should/may) comply by displaying the front (photograph) side of their departmentally-issued ID card, unless:
Should
doing so would reasonably jeopardize officer and/or public safety.
33
The three exceptions to the requirement to present ID upon the request of the public are:
Under cover/investigative roles
Officers deployed to civil disturbances
If doing so would jeapordize officer safety
34
The officer (shall/should/may) make notes on the reverse side of the green copy.
Shall
35
The purpose of the pursuit policy is four fold:
To ensure CHP is in compliance with the law and POST
To inform officers of their legal limitations and obligations
To promote driving practices which enhance public safety and minimize exposure to the officer
To promote the operating efficiency of patrol equipment, reduce operational costs, and conserve fleet resources
36
This section states that all vehicles driven within the State of California, including government owned vehicles, are subject to Division 11-Rules of the Road
21052 VC
37
This section outlines conditions which, when met, exempt the driver of an AEV from obeying certain sections of the CVC known generally as the "Rules of the Road
21055 VC
38
Officers operating an authorized emergency vehicle are exempt from the rules of the road while:
(1) In response to an emergency call.
(2) engaged in rescue operations.
(3) In the immediate pursuit of an actual or suspected violator of the law.
(4) In response to, but not returning from, a fire alarm.
39
21056 VC states:
That 21055 VC does not relieve the driver of a vehicle from the duty to drive with due regard for the safety of all persons using the highway, nor protect him from the consequences of an arbitrary exercise of the privileges granted in that section."
40
California Vehicle Code Sections 17001 and 17002 state that:
the state is liable for the death of a person, or injury to a person, or damage to property proximately caused by a negligent or wrongful act or omission in the operation of any motor vehicle by an employee of a public entity when the employee is acting within the scope of their employment.
41
Section 17004 states:
A public employee is not liable for civil damages on account of personal injury to or death of any person or damage to property resulting from the operation of an AEV in the line of duty.
42
Section 17004.7 VC states:
This section allows a public agency employing peace officers, such as the CHP, to invoke vehicle pursuit immunity if it has a written pursuit policy that both meets 12 minimum standards, and requires regular and periodic training
43
VC Section 21057:
California Vehicle Code Section 21057 expressly prohibits every officer from using a siren or driving at an illegal speed when serving as an escort, except when it is furnished for the preservation of life or expediting military movements during a national emergency
44
This section requires every state, county, and city law enforcement agency to record and report all _______ _______ ____ to the CHP. This data shall be submitted to the CHP within (time frame) of the pursuit.
vehicle pursuit data
30 days
45
The purpose of the red light and siren is to:
Speed above the posted speed is (often/seldom) necessary and/or justified
minimize traffic delay.
Seldom necessary or justified
46
California Vehicle Code Sections 25268 and 25269 restrict the display of warning lights to:
"extreme hazard" and "unusual traffic hazard" conditions.
47
Unless a greater hazard would result, a pursuit (shall not/should not) be undertaken if the subject(s) can be identified to the point where later apprehension can be accomplished
Should not
48
If the driver of a vehicle fails to stop as required, officers:
continue following until the violator:
Or until:
Or until the circumstances:
Or until the pursuit is:
are authorized to
voluntarily stops
relieved from the pursuit
warrant legal intervention
voluntarily discontinued.
49
An event involving one or more law enforcement officers attempting to apprehend a:
of the law in a motor vehicle while the driver is using evasive tactics, such as high speed driving, driving off a highway, turning suddenly, or driving in a legal manner, but failing to:
suspected or actual violator
50
It is the duty of the driver of an AEV to exercise that amount of care which, under all the circumstances, would not impose upon others an:
unreasonable risk of harm
51
Officers and supervisors (shall/should/may), at all times, utilize sound professional judgment when balancing the factors associated with vehicular pursuits
Shall
52
T/F
When emergency calls are based upon information received by the officer from a source other than dispatch, they must have sufficient information to justify the conclusion that an emergency situation exists which requires immediate police attention for the protection of persons or property.
True
53
Upon being notified of the pursuit, the supervisor (shall/should/may) immediately notify the communications center they are joining or monitoring the pursuit and:
Shall
accepting supervisory responsibility.
54
Once the supervisor becomes aware of the pursuit, they shall:
and conduct an:
take an active role in the pursuit
ongoing evaluation of the incident.
55
Supervisors are also responsible for ensuring the pursuit is conducted in accordance with the provisions of this chapter, including (4):
No more than the necessary number of units are involved.
Request for aircraft has been made.
The appropriate radio channel is being utilized.
Affected allied agencies have been notified.
56
The supervisor must also balance the known or reasonably suspected offense, and the apparent:
against the:
need for immediate capture
risks to peace officers, innocent motorists, and others to protect the public.
57
Supervisors are responsible for proceeding to the:
if at all practicable, to provide guidance and supervision, and to gather:
termination point
information for the pursuit report.
58
Whenever aircraft are available (according to information provided by dispatch) the supervisor, OIC, or primary pursuit unit (shall/should/may) request air support to a pursuit in progress.
Shall
59
If departmental or allied agency aircraft are involved in a pursuit, personnel shall:
when conditions permit, allowing air crews to monitor the pursued vehicle to a location where units can be directed to affect an arrest on the driver of the pursued vehicle
strongly consider terminating their active involvement in the pursuit
60
The involved flight crew (shall/should/may) advise the pursuing units and/or supervisor whether or not videotaping of the pursuit is occurring. At the conclusion of the pursuit, the involved aircraft (shall/should/may) notify the supervisor of the availability of the video footage.
Should
Shall
61
The involved flight crew, as soon as possible, (shall/should/may) advise the primary unit and supervisor of the number of law enforcement units involved in the pursuit.
should
62
Unless:
a pursuit (shall/should/may) not be undertaken if the subject(s) can be identified to the point where later apprehension can be accomplished.
a greater hazard would result,
Should not
63
When a pursuit extends into another CHP Area or allied agency's jurisdiction, the responsible supervisor, or the primary unit if a supervisor is not available, (shall/should/may) determine if the other Area or allied agency should assume the pursuit.
Shall
64
If the pursuit is assumed by another CHP Area or allied agency, the initiating officer and the participating supervisor (shall/should/may) proceed, at legal speeds, to the termination point, if within a reasonable distance, to provide guidance and information required for the arrest.
Should
65
When discontinuing a pursuit, the supervisor or primary pursuit unit (shall/should/may) make radio contact with the officer(s) involved and ensure that the officer(s) acknowledge the order to discontinue the pursuit.
Shall
66
A supervisor’s permission (shall/should/may) be obtained prior to initiating legal intervention.
Should
67
Legal intervention on a pursued vehicle (shall/should/may) be undertaken only under the following circumstances:
When there is reason to believe:
AND
When the apparent risk of harm to:
is so great as to:
the continuation of the pursuit would place others in imminent danger of great bodily harm or death,
innocent bystanders or peace officers
outweigh the apparent risk of harm involved in making the forcible stop.
68
Ramming should not occur when either the pursued vehicle or the pursuing vehicle is traveling in excess of (#) miles per hour (mph).
35
69
The supervisor (shall/should/may) ensure any vehicle used in a pursuit or performance driving is placed out-of-service if the vehicle experienced any level of reduced brake efficiency or damage during the high-performance driving
Shall
70
At the conclusion of the pursuit, the supervisor, when appropriate, should conduct an:
with the officer(s) involved in the pursuit
incident debriefing
71
A supervisor shall evaluate all pursuits and complete a:
when the incident meets the definition of:
The entry into PRS shall be completed within:
of the pursuit.
CHP 187 Pursuit Report
a pursuit.
ten calendar days
72
Pursuit planning and coordination with allied agencies (shall/should/may) be undertaken in each Area.
Shall
73
Once the rear of the subject vehicle has been moved over (#) degrees from the original path of travel, loss of control of the subject vehicle is irreversible
25
74
The greatest danger of damage to the departmental vehicle and consequent injury to the officer during the execution of the PIT maneuver is from:
loss of control of the departmental vehicle after the maneuver is executed
75
The best method of pacing is to:
allow the violator to pull away.
76
The Area commander (should/should not/may/may not) direct the use of selected freeway on-ramps to observe and deploy radar/lidar enforcement by uniformed employees.
May
77
T/F
Officers may place the patrol vehicle perpendicular to traffic, so long as there exists sufficient distance from traffic lanes to ensure the safety of the officer and the motoring public.
True
78
Departmental firearms should be displayed in the:
position during high-risk enforcement contacts (Figs. 8-1 through 8-3.)
The shotgun and tactical rifle (will/will not) have a round chambered and the safety (on/off) with the finger (on/off) the trigger.
low-ready
Will
Safety on
Finger off
79
The stopping of a vehicle under circumstances which give the officer reasonable cause to believe that any attempt to stop the vehicle will create an extraordinary safety risk is called:
A high risk stop
80
The major difference between a “high risk stop” and a “felony stop” is that:
officers display their firearms in a “low-ready” position on “high risk.”
81
Once a subject is detained, the officer(s) should then conduct:
to determine if:
an interrogation
a crime has been committed.
82
A felony stop is the stopping of a vehicle when the officer has:
to believe the vehicle contains a felony suspect.
advance knowledge or reasonable cause
83
When backup is not immediately available to assist with a felony stop, all occupants should be with:
clear and concise commands.
removed from the officer’s side of the suspect vehicle, one at a time,
84
The:
position is the preferred location for the first backup unit if traffic and terrain permit
left “V”
85
A minimum of (#) officers (one may be a sergeant) should be used during felony stops.
three
86
Suspects should be placed into the felony prone position, head toward the:
The alternate position is with the suspects head facing:
patrol vehicles.
Away from the patrol vehicles and violators vehicles.
87
For the arrest team version of the felony stop, at least (#) officers should be used in order to safely control, cuff, search and hand off the subjects.
4
88
Occasional, subjects will not exit the vehicle. Remember:
Do not rush the vehicle. Maintain your position of cover. Possible alternatives are:
time is on your side.
(a) Request canine units.
(b) Request special weapons teams from allied agencies.
(c) A planned tactical approach may be used after supervisory approval
89
In regards to radio traffic, "CYMBAL” refers to:
(Color, Year, Model, Body, and License)
90
When a solo motor officer encounters a felony suspect/vehicle, the officer is advised to attempt, by any means possible, to:
avoid a confrontation by retreating, taking an off-ramp, making a U-turn, stopping, etc.
91
Motorcycle positioning for solo motor encountering a felony vehicle, a (#) degree angle (distance) feet from the vehicle would afford the best protection for a kneeling officer
45
50 to 75
92
T/F
If a pursuit resumes after a patrol car/motorcycle felony stop had been initiated, the motorcycle officer should remain in the patrol vehicle and functions as the backup officer, abandoning the motorcycle at the scene.
True. And advise dispatch
93
If the suspect turns out to be an innocent citizen merely caught in a set of incriminating circumstances, a proper explanation should be given and the incident (shall/should/may) be documented utilizing the CHP 268,
Shall
94
Public discussion or display of state-issued ballistic door panel’s effectiveness, ballistic resistance, or area of coverage is:
prohibited
95
The three types of hazards a subject exhibits toward an officer during an enforcement stop are:
Unknown risk
High risk
Felony
96
Unknown risk subjects are encountered during:
Routine enforcement stops and contacts
97
If an enforcement stop develops into a high risk encounter, the supervisor should:
Ensure at least three officers respond.
Respond to the scene if feasible
98
During a hostage situation, the use of firearms should be:
Limited to defensive purposes
99
Should allied agency resources be available for a hostage situation, the CHP supervisor (shall/should/may) relinquish the situation to said agency.
Should
100
Most crimes in progress requires a ______ approach.
Quiet
101
T/F
When the crime in progress is an assault, or there is a request for emergency assistance, a code three response with lights and siren should be utilized.
True
102
The three basic fundamentals for handling a crime in progress are:
Communications
Coordination
Containment/control
103
T/F
Officers on scene of a robbery in progress should immediate confront the suspected robbers to lessen the potential they might use significant force against the victims.
False, should let the assailants think they are succeeding in order to lessen the possibility of a hostage situation. Once the suspect is away from the victims, initiate felony arrest procedures
104
Burglary in Progress
The first two units arriving on scene are responsible for:
The 3rd and 4th units are responsible for:
Secure the perimeter, coordinate responding units
Forming the search team to search perimeter and find possible entry points
105
The three types of area searches are:
The most desirable for outside searches are:
Large open commercial buildings may be best searched by:
Zone, spiral, strip
The spiral and strip
The strip method
106
The purpose of the freeway procedures policy is:
- Increase assistance to motorist
- Improve the quality of enforcement activity
- Make officer aware of congestion causes and effective techniques for relieving them
- obtain the support of the motoring public in the goal of safe, rapid and economical freeway use
- reduce injuries to officers thru safe work practices
- reduces causes for citizens complaints against officers
107
The three E's of traffic management are:
Enforcement
Engineering
Education
108
T/F
Patrol in or near the left-hand lane to minimize impedance to traffic and increase your availability to the motorist who needs assistance
False, right lane
109
T/F
When difficulties arise in gaining a violator's attention, it may be necessary to pull abreast, preferably on the right side, in order to attract the driver's attention. Also, display the red light at this time
True, but do not display the red light
110
T/F
When a violator stops in the center divider, the officer must make a decision whether to handle the transaction there or request a move to a safer location.
True, weighed between danger of staying in CD or re entering traffic to get to right
111
After the stop has been accomplished, the use of flashing lights and the red and blue emergency lights (shall/should/may) normally be discontinued.
Should
112
Motorcycle officers should develop the habit of mounting and dismounting on the ____ side of the motorcycle.
Motorcycle officers, when on a stop and working in pairs, should park their motorcycles:
rather than:
right
in line
side by side.
113
T/F
Officers should be discouraged from making a multiple vehicle stop.
True
114
During peak traffic periods, enforcement actions should be primarily directed against hazardous accident and congestion-causing violations. Special emphasis should be placed on (5):
(a) Slow-moving vehicles impeding traffic. (b) Unsafe lane changes.
(c) Speed.
(d) Driving under the influence.
(e) Following too close.
115
Traffic breaks run at a higher speed to bring traffic safely into or thru a scene are called what in policy?
Freeway escorts
116
Traffic breaks should be requested by units encountering a need and coordinated through the:
Supervisor
117
All accidents shall be responded to:
Red lights and siren (should/should not) normally be used when responding to an accident.
Immediately
Should not
118
While the law provides some protection for emergency vehicle operations, the real protections lie in:
And
Sound professional judgement
And
Defensive Driving Techniques
119
Sergeant will normally respond to all major incidents and accidents in order to:
Advise and coordinate operations
120
If accident vehicles have been moved to the right shoulder, CHP vehicles and personnel should be moved:
In order to:
In front of the accident vehicles
Create a buffer between traffic and the vehicles and people on scene
121
The officer (shall/should/may) actively direct traffic whenever possible.
Shall
122
All officer in the official discharge of their duties (shall/should/may) cooperate as far as possible with bona fide meme era of the media.
Shall
123
A code 20 notifies dispatch that a ____ _______ ______ exists.
News worthy event
124
T/F
Shoulders and center dividers should be used as lanes whenever it is safe to do so.
True
125
Whenever a center divider cable must be cut, cal trans shall be notified:
As soon as possible
126
Officers _____ have ________ knowledge the person fleeing has committed a violent or forcible felony in order to employ a roadblock.
Shall
Definite
127
A supervisor who permits a roadblock must consider the following 2 factors:
Is the crime or disaster serious enough to warrant the road block
The amount of time that has elapsed since the crime and its discovery.
Is the information reliable, and/or adequate to substantiate the roadblock
128
A roadblock (shall/should/may) remain in effect until apprehension, or the officer reasonably believes:
Should
The suspect ins no longer within the roadblock area
129
Annually, uniformed employees at the rank of:
and below shall participate in an eight-hour Officer Safety Training (OST) day.
As well as the (#) hour Arrest and Control course.
sergeant
4
130
Area commanders shall ensure there are a sufficient number of certified OST instructors, at a ratio of one for every (#) officers in attendance at training.
10
131
The Division OSCs shall conduct ________ audits of Area OST records and training to ensure proficiency, consistency, and adherence to departmental policy.
biannual
132
Areas (shall/should/may) facilitate an OST program that provides realistic training to uniformed members on an ongoing basis.
Shall
133
T/F
Division OST instructors shall only use the training curriculum provided by the Academy, AOST Unit.
True
134
Uniformed employees unable to demonstrate an acceptable level of skill shall be provided refresher training for a period of time not to exceed:
after annual certification is due.
30 calendar days
135
T/F
Uniformed employees who fail to meet the required level of certification will not be permitted to return to enforcement duties until proficiency is achieved.
True
136
Prior to Officer Safety training all firearms shall be confirmed clear by:
And:
The officer in charge of the training
And
A sergeant
137
Any deviation from the PMA contained in 70.6 will require:
A justification from the officer as to the reasonableness of the action and the situation confronted.
138
The vulnerable parts of the body, such as the eyes, threat, groin, neck and back (are/are not) preferred areas for personal weapons strikes.
Are
139
Any officer who has reasonable cause to believe that the person being arrested has committed a public offense may:
use reasonable force to effect the arrest, prevent escape, or overcome resistance.
140
Control holds may be used to:
Restrict movement
Restrain volatile subjects
As a prelude to arrest
When required for the safety of the public, the officer or the subject
141
The three basic concepts of an arrest technique are:
Balance,
Awareness
And
Control
142
T/F
The sick, injured or disabled, the elderly, or visibly pregnant may be handcuffed in the front.
True
143
Officers (shall/should/may) carry flex cuffs as a part of the duty equipment.
Shall
144
Flex cuffs may be used:
Multiple arrests when departmental cuffs are not available.
When linking multiple arrestees in a chain
When handcuffs are ineffective in securing an arrestee without aggravating an injury
In conjunction with nylon straps for combative subjects
145
If subjects are flex cuffed in a chain, the flex cuff are applied to the two subjects:
Above the:
Arms, above the elbows
146
Every search must be conducted in a:
manner.
thorough, systematic, and professional
147
When conducting a search, a proper:
technique should always be used. The officer should never:
their hands along the arrestee’s body.
grasp and feel
“pat down” or “slide”
148
T/F
Physical body cavity searches SHALL NOT be conducted by members of this Department. (PC Section 4030 [c] [2].)
True
149
Strip searches and visual body cavity searches are to be conducted under the following circumstances (2):
(a) When necessary to protect the safety of officers, civilians, and other arrestees, as well as safety and related interest of the allied agency prisoner detention and holding facility.
(b) Where a search warrant is necessary in order to secure evidence of criminal activity.
150
A person arrested and held in custody on a misdemeanor or infraction offense, except those involving weapons, controlled substances, or violence, or a minor, except for those minors alleged to have committed felonies or offenses involving weapons, controlled substances, or violence, SHALL NOT be subjected to a strip search or visual body cavity search prior to placement in the general jail population, unless:
a peace officer has determined there is reasonable suspicion, based on specific and articulable facts, to believe that person is concealing a weapon or contraband, and a strip search will result in the discovery of the weapon or contraband. (PC Section 4030 [e].)
151
A strip search or visual body cavity search, or both, (shall not/should not) be conducted without the prior written authorization of the on-duty supervisor.
The authorization shall include the:
and circumstances upon which the reasonable suspicion determination was made by the supervisor
Shall not
specific and articulable facts
152
The CHP _____, Strip Search/Visual Body Cavity Search, Section ___ and Section ___ shall be completed prior to any strip search and/or visual body cavity search being conducted.
202DS
One and two
153
Section Two of the CHP 202DS- Mandatory Supervisory Approval shall contain the following justification (2):
(a) Specific articulable facts and circumstances upon which reasonable suspicion was made by supervisor.
(b) Written justification, date, time, and signature of supervisor PRIOR to any strip search and/or visual body cavity search being conducted.
154
Section Three of the CHP 202DS - Statement of Results shall contain the following information (5):
(a) Date.
(b) Time.
(c) Place of search (location where search was conducted).
(d) Officers present (name, identification number, gender).
(e) Statement of results of search (to include list of contraband items removed from person).
155
T/F
If the local Area SOP contains policy on strip search procedure that are routinely required for local booking facilities, then officers need not obtain written supervisory approval prior to conduct the pre-booking strip search.
False, the SOP shall still contain the requirement
Not to be conducted as a matter of routine booking
156
With one officer and one prisoner, the prisoner (shall/should) be seat-belted in the right front seat.
Shall
157
In the absence of assistance, an officer (shall/should/may/shall not/should not/may not) transport two prisoners.
May: One prisoner may be seated in the right front position, the other in the right rear position
158
No more than (#) person should be transported by one or even 2 officers
2
159
When a passenger or prisoner is left unattended in a departmental vehicle, the ignition key (shall/should/may) be removed from the vehicle’s ignition lock.
Shall
160
A spit sock (shall/should/may) not be used on any subject who may have a head injury which may be exacerbated by its use.
Shall not
161
T/F
An officer shall notify a supervisor as soon as possible when they encounter a situation that requires use of a spit sock.
True
162
In the event a prisoner escapes during transport, officers (shall/should/may) immediately make all reasonable efforts to apprehend the prisoner
Shall
163
T/F
During the course of enforcement duties, an officer need not directly carry a baton, it shall have it immediately available.
False, shall carry PR-24, collapsible, or asp.
If only and asp, shall have the PR readily available
164
T/F
Plain clothed officers may Carry the ASP baton in a pocket or in a shoulder holster device.
False, shall not be carried
165
To carry an asp, an officer must have a minimum of (#) hours of training.
8
166
Of may incapacitate for (time) minutes.
15-45
167
T/F
At their own discretion, officers may carry departmentally issued OC off duty.
True
168
Normally a (time) burst of OC is sufficient to incapacitate a subject.
1 second
169
Of shall not be used at a distance of less than:
Unless:
Or directly at eyes at a distance of less than:
Subjects eyes should be flushed within:
3 feet
Unusual hazard exists
5 feet
30 minutes
170
Tychem protective garment (PPE gear) ensembles are not suitable for use in all situations and environments with all chemical and hazardous materials because:
They are flammable
171
The APR (gas masks) (should/should not) be used in oxygen deprived environments.
Should not be
172
T/F
The APR shall be cleaned after each use using a non-alcohol sanitizing solution or mild detergent with warm water.
True
173
T/F
Ensembles exposed to hazardous materials or WMD need not be decontaminated prior to doffing as it will be disposed of accordingly.
False, must be, to protect wearer from contamination
174
The optimal deployment range for the less-lethal shotgun is (#-#) feet.
five to 60
175
Under normal conditions the preferred targeted areas of a subject should be limited to either the:
regions of the body.
hip, pelvic, or buttock
176
Less-lethal munitions have been proven to be at least (#) percent effective in controlling aggressive, violent subjects
80
177
Areas shall report monthly deployments of the less-lethal shotguns to their respective Divisions by the:
of the following month
tenth day
178
All uniformed employees shall undergo (#) hours of Academy-certified ECD training.
eight
179
Uniformed members of the Department (may/may not) carry a personally-purchased ECD while on duty.
May
180
Dart spread rate: of travel.
Optimum distance:
Maximum effective range:
Minimum effective range:
1-foot (.3m) spread for every 9 feet (2.7m)
7 feet to 15 feet.
25 feet.
0 inches.
181
The preferred target area for an ECD is:
“split the belt line,” one probe above and one probe below the waist.
182
T/F
Simply not listening or responding to the commands of a uniformed employee to submit to arrest should not justify the use of an ECD. The subject must continue to pose an immediate threat to the safety of the uniformed employee(s) and/or others.
True
183
After a departmentally-owned ECD has been discharged, on or off duty, a supervisor shall be notified immediately as soon as:
the situation is stable.
184
A supervisor (shall/should/may) respond. Pictures of the probe sites, drive stun sites, and any other injuries (shall/should/may) be taken.
Should
Shall
185
Records shall be retained for the life of the ECD plus:
ten years.
186
The court specified three primary factors (the Graham Factors) to assist in determining reasonableness. These factors are:
1. Severity of the crime at issue;
2. Whether the suspect poses an immediate threat to the safety of the officers or others; and
3. Whether the suspect is actively resisting arrest or attempting to evade arrest by flight.
187
T/F
flight of a suspect alone would NOT be considered sufficient justification for deployment of the less-lethal shotgun or the ECD.
True
188
While attempting to place the subject under arrest, the subject attempts to flee the scene. While it is relevant, flight alone is not the only factor to be taken into consideration. In addition to flight, officers shall consider (3):
The severity of the crime;
Whether the subject poses an immediate threat to officers or others; and
The totality of circumstances, including the level and type of resistance encountered, surrounding the event and whether the type of force to be deployed and manner in which it is to be applied is objectively reasonable under the circumstances.
189
Commanders shall maintain the following retention files for collision reports:
A) Unsolved hit-and-run fatality collisions:
B) Reports prepared by a Multidisciplinary Accident Investigation Team (MAIT):
C) Hit-and-run collisions with severe injury:
D) All other collisions:
Indefinitely
10 years
Seven years
48 months rotating
