Infectious Disease Qs Flashcards

1
Q

Necessary adjunctive Therapy for bacterial meningitis?

A

Steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

CD4 count necessary to develop Primary CNS lymphoma?

A

<50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ethambutol side effect?

A

retrobulbar neuritis manifesting as decreased green-red color discrimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

TB drug that can cause gout?

A

Pyrazinamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Continuation treatment for TB after initial 2 month, 4 drug treatment? When should the continuation length increase?

A

4 months of isoniazid and rifampin

If not given pyrazimnamide;
OR sputum cultures are still positive OR drug resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Patients with late (terminal) complement component deficiencies (C5, C6, C7, C8, C9) may present with?

A

recurrent, invasive meningococcal or gonococcal infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) involves which cell lines? Lab findings? Types of infections?

A

B- and T-cell abnormalities;

hypogammaglobulinemia.

Bacterial infections, often of the sinus tract and lungs, are common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Selective IgA deficiency presents as?

A

sinopulmonary infections or gastrointestinal involvement with inflammatory bowel disease, sprue-like illness, or celiac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Classical complement pathway (C1, C4, C2) deficiencies are associated with?

A

Rheumatologic disorders (SLE, vasculitis, scleroderma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Patients suspected of having brain abscess from a likely odontogenic source should begin empiric antibiotic therapy wit?

A

intravenous penicillin and metronidazole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Uncomplicated cutaneous anthrax should be treated with?

A

ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, or doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

UTI drug to avoid in last 30 days of pregnancy? Why?

UTI in pregnanct patients the last 30 days should be treated with?

A

Nitrofurantoin; higher rates of neonatal jaundice;

Amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does West Nile Neuroinvasive disease present?

A

Fever, headache, and focal limb weakness following outdoor activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When are transplant patients at highest risk for CMV?

A

in the first few months after transplantation when (immunosuppression is typically highest, and patients who have just finished prophylaxis against cytomegalovirus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

disseminated zoster infection - contact precautions?

A

Airborne and contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who gets prophylactic antibiotics to reduce the risk of travelers diarrhea?

A

IBD, immunosuppressive illnesses, or chronic diseases that could become more severe or be exacerbated by dehydration

17
Q

When is an active TB patient considered non-contagious?

A

adequate tuberculosis treatment for at least 2 weeks, demonstrate improvement of symptoms, and have three consecutive negative sputum smears

18
Q

Disseminated candidemia - treatment?

A

echinocandins such as caspofungin, anidulafungin, and micafungin

19
Q

Disseminated fungal infections that manifest as skin lesions?

A

blastomycosis and coccidiomycosis

20
Q

Hep A ppx for travel given to? What exactly is given?

A

any person planning travel to developing parts of South Asia, Africa, and South and Central America

Hepatitis A virus vaccine AND if leaving within 2 weeks: a dose of intramuscular immune globulin

21
Q

Posttransplant lymphoproliferative disease is caused by? presents when? Lab suggestive? Confirm with/? Management?

A

EBV; 1 year after transplant;

EBV PCR; biopsy

Reduce immunosupression and maybe chemo/rituximab

22
Q

When to give antibiotic ppx for a dog bite? what is the med/duration?

A
  1. immunosuppressed (including those with asplenia or significant liver disease);
  2. have moderate to severe wounds (particularly on the face or hand);
  3. have wounds near a joint or bone;
  4. or have wounds associated with significant crush injury or edema.

3- to 5-day with amoxicillin-clavulanate

23
Q

Sacral infection that may cause episodes if aseptic meningitis?

A

HSV

24
Q

live-attenuated influenza vaccine given by nasal mist is approved only for?

A

age 2 to 49 years

25
Q

Med can inhibit tubular secretion of creatinine but does not actually affect glomerular filtration rate? Drug treats?

A

Cobicistat (pharmacokinetic enhancer.for HIV)

26
Q

Smallpox presentation?

Pt contagious until?

A

begins as small red dots on the pharyngeal and buccal mucosa

spread in centripetal fashion to the hands and face, followed by the arms, legs, and feet.

from macules to papules to vesicles and pustules before crusting over.

Patients remain contagious until all crusts are shed.

27
Q

Lyme arthritis is excluded if

A

symptoms have been present for longer than 1 month and Western blot IgG result is negative

28
Q

Treatment for selective IgA deficiency?

A

no treatment

29
Q

Autoimmune that causes psychiatric symptoms, seizures, autonomic instability, and choreoathetoid movements? Associated with?

A

anti-NMDAR receptor encephalitis; Ovarian teratomas

30
Q

Treatment for disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex infection in patients with HIV/AIDS whose CD4 cell counts are less than 50/µL?

A

clarithromycin, ethambutol, and rifabutin

31
Q

Immunocompromised patients, particularly those with liver disease are at increased risk for this infection?

A

Vibrio vulnificus

32
Q

Empiric therapy for Patients admitted to the hospital with community-acquired pneumonia thought be caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

antipseudomonal β-lactam, an aminoglycoside, and a respiratory fluoroquinolone,

33
Q

Likely CXR finding in a patient with Staphylococcus aureus postinfluenza community-acquired pneumonia?

A

Cavitary lesions

34
Q

Chikungunya v dengue? (Main v 3 other)?

A

severe joint pain and stiffness.

Other distinguishing features include

  • high fever, which often recurs after a brief afebrile period (“saddle-back fever”);
  • more significant polyarticular and migratory joint pains involving the small joints of the hands, wrists, and ankles; and
  • much less thrombocytopenia.
35
Q

Treatment for PID?

A

cefoxitin or cefotetan plus doxycycline.