Lab Exam #1 Flashcards

1
Q

small motor units

A

fine muscle control

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2
Q

large motor units

A

high force

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3
Q

location of cell body of motor neuron

A

spinal cord

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4
Q

why do fast twitch motor units transport signal faster than slow twitch

A

because of thick myelinated axon

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5
Q

fast twitch motor neurons

A

large cell bodies
thick myelinated axon
require higher level of neural stimulation to depolarize
used during max. efforts

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6
Q

slow twitch motor neurons

A

smaller cell bodies
thinner less myelinated axons
require lower level of neural stimulatiion to depolarize
get first recruited

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7
Q

amplitute of a EMG

A

increases the higher the force is

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8
Q

what occurs before neural fatigue

A

local muscle fatigue

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9
Q

motor units recruited at a slow speed of motion

A

slow- and fast twitch

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10
Q

who will generate greater force at slow speed of motion; sprinter or endurance, why?

A

a sprinter will generate greater force, since he has more FT motor units - those have higher actin-myosin binding sites

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11
Q

what happens to force generated when speed increases

A

force decreases since less ST motor units get recruited as speed increases

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12
Q

endurance vs. sprinter force generation as speed increases

A

endurance athlete will produce less force since he has more ST motor units
sprinter will experience a smaller decrease in force production since he has more FT motor units

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13
Q

what is the speed a muscle can contract is usually based on

A

thickness of axon myelination

intramascular stores of myosin ATPase

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14
Q

between an endurance athlete and a sprinter who can generate greater force over time when fatigue occurs

A

endurance, since he has a higher ST muscle contribution

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15
Q

how do ST motor units generate greater force over time when fatigue occurs

A

greater capillarization

higher intramuscular concentration of myoglobin, mitochondria and oxidative enzymes

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16
Q

what is the max tension a muscle can generate based on

A

amount of actin and myosin binding

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17
Q

when we increase speed of a movement, which muscle types stop working first

A

ST motor units

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18
Q

formular for work (kgm)

A

force (kg) x distance (meters)

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19
Q

what does anaerobic power measure or reflect

A

the development of phosphagen metabolism

highest work performed in the first 5 sec

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20
Q

what does Anaerobic capacity meausre or reflect

A

the development of phospagen anaerobic glycolytic metabolism

total work performed in first 30 sec.

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21
Q

what does the fatigue index measure or reflect

A

oxidative capacity of a muscle

percent decline in work completed (first 5 sec. and compared to last 5 sec.)

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22
Q

high fatigue index

A

low oxidative capacity of muscle tissue

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23
Q

low fatigue index

A

high oxidative capacity of muscle tissue

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24
Q

what does body weight determine

A

optimal pedalin resistance

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25
Q

calculation for resistance in anaerobic test

A

0.075 kp x body weight in kg (adjust to nearest 25)

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26
Q

calculation for anaerobic power

A

([revolutions at 5 sec of test] - [revolutions at 0 sec of test]) x workload x 6 = KGM/5sec

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27
Q

calculation of anaerobic capacity

A

([revolutions at 30 sec of test] - [revolutions at 0 sec of test]) x workload x 6 = KGM/30sec

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28
Q

calculation of fatigue index

A
  1. ([revolutions at 5 sec of test] - [revolutions at 0 sec of test]) x workload x 6 = KGM/first5sec
  2. ([revolutions at 30 sec of test] - [revolutions at 25 sec of test]) x workload x 6 = KGM/last5sec
      1. / 1. = percent per power (for percent x 100)
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29
Q

Body weight conversion into kg

A

lb/2.2

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30
Q

Calculation of Oxygen uptake rate (VO2) in L/min - conversion

A

VO2 ml/min / 1000

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31
Q

Oxygen uptake rate

A

VO2

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32
Q

Carbon dioxide production rate

A

VCO2

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33
Q

Calculation of carbon dioxide production rate in L/min - conversion

A

VCO2 ml/min / 1000

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34
Q

Respiratory exchange ratio

A

RER or R

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35
Q

Calculation of RER or R

A

VCO2 (L/min) / VO2 (L/min)

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36
Q

Calculation of kcal expended per minute

A

kcal/min = (kcal/liter of VO2) x VO2 L/min

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37
Q

Kcal used per 60 min

A

kcal/min x 60 min

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38
Q

Calculation of VO2 in ml/kg/min

A

(VO2 in L/min x 1000) / BW kg

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39
Q

Calculation of metabolic equivalence (METS)

A

(VO2 in ml/kg/min) / 3.5 ml/kg/min

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40
Q

1 resting metabolic equivalent (1MET)

A

3.5 ml/kg/min of VO2

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41
Q

What does the resting metabolic equivalent indicate

A

oxygen needed to maintain

body functions at rest

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42
Q

what does METS indicate

A

the rate a person works more compared to their resting metabolic rate

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43
Q

what is a better predictor of performance in athletes where body is supported during performance

A

the absolute measurement of the VO2 max in L/min or ml/min

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44
Q

better predictor of performance in athletes where athletes have to carry their own body weight

A

relative measurement of the VO2 max in L/min or ml/min

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45
Q

methods to measure and monitor heart rate

A

palpation (tasten) of radial or carotid artery (multiply 10 sec by 6 for beats per minute (b/min)
use heart rate monitor – record an ECG

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46
Q

range of normal resting heart rate

A

60 – 100 b/min

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47
Q

resting heart rate greater than 100 b/min

A

trachycardia

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48
Q

resting heart rate less than 60 b/min

A

bradychardia

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49
Q

what is the age predicted max heart rate for land sport

A

220 – age in years

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50
Q

how accurate is the age predicted max heart rate

A

+/- 10 b/min

only for 68% of population

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51
Q

age predicted max heart rate for land-based arm exercise

A

207 – age in years

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52
Q

age predicted max heart rate for water based exercise

A

208 – age in years

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53
Q

effects of training on max heart rate

A

no difference following training, but resting – and submax is lower

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54
Q

blood pressure

A

force that moves blood through the circulatory system

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55
Q

direction of blood flow

A

from location of high blood pressure to low pressure

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56
Q

systolic blood pressure

A

highest pressure

pressure in the arteries during contraction of the ventricle

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57
Q

normal healthy range for systolic pressure

A

100 – 140 mmHg

58
Q

systolic pressure greater than 160 mmHg

A

major coronary heart disease risk factor

59
Q

resting systolic blood pressure between 140 – 160 mmHg

A

mild hypertension

60
Q

what can mild hypertension develop to

A

coronary artery disease

61
Q

what is equivalent to weight control

A

burning of kcal

62
Q

what kind of training help controlling weight

A

high intensity

63
Q

relative contraindication to exercise testing

A

resting symbolic blood pressure greater than 200 mmHG

64
Q

what indicates stopping of an exercise test (systolic blood pressure

A

systolic blood pressure values greater than 250 mmHg
a sudden drop (20 mmHg or more) in systolic blood pressure
failure of systolic blood pressure to increase with increasing workload

65
Q

diastolic blood pressure

A

pressure in arteries during relaxation of the ventricles

66
Q

normal healthy range for diastolic blood pressure

A

60 – 89 mmHg

67
Q

diastolic blood pressure equal or greater than 90 mmHg

A

major coronary heart disease risk factor

68
Q

diastolic indicator to stop exercise test

A

diastolic blood pressure greater than 120 mmHg

69
Q

effects of training on resting blood pressure

A

low and high amount of training – high blood pressure

moderate training – low blood pressure

70
Q

what does and ECG/EKG measure

A

electrical impulses of the heart during various stages if cardiac stimulation

71
Q

what works as the pacemaker of the heart

A

SA node

72
Q

P-wave of ECG/EKG

A

contraction/depolarization of the atria

73
Q

QRS complex on an ECG/EKG

A

electrical activity of ventricular contraction

74
Q

T-wave of an ECG/EKG

A

repolarization of ventricles

75
Q

What else occurs during the QRS complex

A

repolarization of the atria

76
Q

One cardia cycle

A

combination of P-wave, QRS complex and T-wave

77
Q

Positive deflections in a normal ECG/EKG

A

P, R, T

78
Q

Negative deflection in a normal ECG/EKG

A

Q, S

79
Q

6 Limb leads of an ECG

A

3 Bipolar Leads

3 Unipolar leads

80
Q

3 Bipolar leads

A

Lead I – III

81
Q

Site of positive electrode of Lead I and direction of QRS

A
Left Arm (Right Arm negative) 
Positive/negative
82
Q

Site of positive electrode of Lead II and direction of QRS

A
Left Foot (right arm negative)
Positive
83
Q

Site of positive electrode of lead III and direction of QRS

A
Left Foot (left arm negative)
Positive
84
Q

3 unipolar leads

A

augmented voltage right (AVR)
Augmented voltage left (AVL)
Augmented voltage foot (AVF)

85
Q

Site of positive electrode of AVR and direction of QRS

A

right arm

Negative

86
Q

Site of positive electrode of AVL and direction of QRS

A

left arm

negative

87
Q

6 chest leads

A

V1 – V6

88
Q

Site of positive electrode of V1 and direction of QRS

A

right sternal border, 4th intercostal space

Negative

89
Q

Site of positive electrode of V2 and direction of QRS

A

left sternal border, 4th intercostal space

Negative

90
Q

Site of positive electrode of V3 and direction of QRS

A

Equally spaced between V2 and V4

Negative or positive

91
Q

Site of positive electrode of V4 and direction of QRS

A

midclavicular line, 5th intercostal space

Positive

92
Q

Site of positive electrode of V5 and direction of QRS

A

anterior axillary line, 5th intercostal space

Positive

93
Q

Site of positive electrode of V6 and direction of QRS

A

midaxillary line, 5th intercostal space

Positive

94
Q

Difference between V5 and other chest leads

A

V5 picks up 80% or more of all cardiac abnormalities

95
Q

When does the QRS deflects negative

A

when the heart polarizes away from the electrode

Leads AVR, AVL, V1 and V2

96
Q

Positive QRS deflection

A

when depolarization wave of heart move towards positive electrode
Leads II, III, AVF, V4, V5, and V6

97
Q

Sound related to blood pressure

A

korotkoff sound

98
Q

Phase I of the Korotkoff sound

A

first appearance of tapping, gradually increases

99
Q

Phase II of Korotkoff sound

A

murmur, squishing quality is heard

100
Q

Phase III of Korotkoff sound

A

sounds are crisper and increase in intensity

101
Q

Phase IV of Korotkoff sound

A

sound is very loud, soft blowing quality

102
Q

Phase V of Korotkoff sound

A

sounds disappear

103
Q

Systolic pressure determination

A

point at which initial tapping sound is heard (Phase I)

104
Q

Diastolic pressure determination

A

onset of muffling (phase IV) – preferred for exam

Disappearance of sound = intra-arterial diastolic pressure (Phase V)

105
Q

Normal regular rhythm of an ECG

A

tight or narrow QRD with spike at the top

P-wave precedes and T-wave follows QRS complex

106
Q

Premature ventricular contraction

A

to early and high R – wave

No P- and T – wave

107
Q

Multifocal

A

no P – and T- wave

Every cardiac cycle looks completely different, very serious

108
Q

Ischemia

A

inverted T-wave

109
Q

ventricular flutter

A

nice smooth wave
no QRS
fires at 200-300/min

110
Q

ventricular fibrillation

A

flutter turns into ventricular asytole - no cardiac activity

111
Q

what does ventricular fibrillation require

A

cardio-pulmonary resuscitation and defibrillation

112
Q

size principle

A

motor units with smaller cell body are recruited first, following by units with larger cell bodies (FT)

113
Q

electromyogram (EMG)

A

recording of electrical events of muscle contraction

114
Q

two recordings of an EMG

A
  1. raw recording of amlitude and frequency

2. combination of amplitude and frequency - steepness of the slope

115
Q

amplitude of an EMG

A

represents recruited motor units

116
Q

frequency of EMG

A

represents more frequent firing of motor units

117
Q

types of ST motor units

A

SO - slow twitch oxidative motor units “aerobic”

118
Q

types of FT motor units

A

FOG - Fast-twitch oxidative glycholytic motor units

FG - Fast-twitch glycholytic motor units “anaerobic”

119
Q

Site of positive electrode of AVF and direction of QRS

A

left foot

positive

120
Q

oxygen defict

A

beginning of exercise
VO2 is below necessary to supply all ATP
anaerobic energy systems provide additional ATP until steady state is reached

121
Q

steady state exercise

A

oxygen supplied to working muscle = oxygen demanded

VO2 +/- 2 ml/kg/min -> normal

122
Q

oxygen dept / EPOC

A

amount of oxygen consumed during recovering from exercise above oridinary consumed
payback of oxygen defict

123
Q

two phases of oxygen debt

A

lactactic phase

alactacid phase

124
Q

alactacid phase of oxygen debt

A

first 1 - 2 min

replenishment (Nachschub) of phosphagen

125
Q

lactacid phase of oxygen debt

A

follows alactacid phase

removal of lactate by oxidation

126
Q

3 reasons why oxygen debt is greater than oxygen deficit

A

increase oxygen demand for 2 phases and to meet oxygen transport demands
dissipation (Verteilung) of heat from muscle to skin
hormones thyroxine and catecholamines release during exercise -> they lead to an increase oxygen demand

127
Q

increase in frequency of EMG recordings

A

increase in firing rate of motor units

128
Q

what is local muscle fatigue based on

A

phosphagen metabolism and lactic acid

129
Q

what is neural muscle fatigue based on

A

neurotransmitter (AcH)

130
Q

relationship between force and cross section area

A

force is proportional to cross sectional area

131
Q

Isokinetic strength

A

max. overload throughout an entire workload

force greater then resistance

132
Q

isokinetic stress response

A

single effort

133
Q

physiological attributes of anaerobic indices from anaerobic tests

A

anaerobic power
anaerobic capacity
fatigue index

134
Q

relation between anerobic work indices and athletic abilities

A

sprinter higher results in all 3 indices -> more FT motor units

135
Q

effects of body weight/composition on anaerobic work indices

A

BW has no effect, but body composition - more fat will lead to lower results

136
Q

pacemaker rate of SA node

A

75 - 80 BPM

137
Q

pacemaker rate of AV node

A

60 BPM

138
Q

pacemaker rate of ventrivles

A

30 - 40 BPM

139
Q

ST-Elevation

A

fresh myocardial infarction
small inverted T-wave
elevated S-wave

140
Q

Q-wave infarction

A

wide, deep Q-wave (1/3 of QRS complex)

stay with person forever