Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Final Med > surgery > Flashcards

surgery Flashcards

1
Q

drugs linked to acute pancreatitis

A

sodium valproate, steroids, thiazides, and azathioprine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

scoring system to diagnosing acute appendicitis

A

Alvarado

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what incision is used for an appendectomy

A

classical giridron incision perpendicular to the imaginary line between the umbilicus and anterior illiac spine and centred over Mc burney’s point
common Lanz incisions 2 cm medial to the ASIS better cosmetic outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what should the surgeon look for while he is doing an appendix

A

Meckels diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the rule of 2s

A 
2% of the population
may contain 2 types of ectopic cells (pancreatic and gastric)
2 ft (within) of the illeocecal valve 
2 inches long 
symptomatic by 2 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

interval appendectomy

A

surgeons remove the appendix after successful conservative treatment to prevent reoccurrence (only 10-35% have reoccurrence)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

relationship between appendectomy and IBD

A

protective against UC

risk of chron’s increased during first few years after procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

sudden onset of pain in the LIF

A

more likely to be either a perforation of a viscus or a haemorrhage
or torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

sharp pain in the LIF

A

heamorrhage, perforation, torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

medications to look out for in the drug history of a women with LIF pain?

A

steroids can mask the symptoms the patient is more deteriorated then she seems
antibiotics = pseudomembranous colitis caused by C. Diff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

hinchey’s classification

A
  1. pericolic or mesenteric abcess
  2. walled off pelvic abcess
  3. generalised purulent peritonitis (5% mortality)
  4. generalised faecal peritonitis (35% mort)
    assessment of peritoneal contamination guide to suitability for primary anastomosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are some red flag signs of constipation?

A

absolute constipation not able to pass flatus
rectal bleeding or tenesmus or intermittant mucous diarrhoea
sig. weight loss, night sweats, or iron def anaemia
past medical history of UC or colonic polyps
severe persistent constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

signs of hypothyroidism

A 
loss of hair 
brittle hair
dry skin
puffy eyes
malar flush
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

where is Vichows node?

A

left supraclavicular fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what electrolyte abnormalities can cause constipation?

A

hypokalaemia and hypercalcaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the markers of colorectal carcinoma?

A

CEA, CA 19-9 CA125

lack specificity
CA125 more specific for ovarian CA
use to monitor and detect relapse in patients with confirmed GI cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the normal MCV value?

A

76-96 fL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the management of a sigmoid volvulus?

A

drip and suck nil by mouth and no tube placed
removal of the obstruction by sigmiodoscope with a long soft flatus tube to untwist and decompress the bowel or surgery if this procedure in unsuccessful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

DUKES CRITERIA

A

A no spread to the muscularis propria
B tumour invading beyond the muscularis propria
C tumour to lymph nodes
D tumour mets to other organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how does the DUKES criteria influence clinical management? A

A

A 90% survival at 5 years
offered surgical removal with associated blood supply adipose tissue and lymph vessels

radiotherapy if the tumour is at the rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

DUKE criteria clinical management B and C

A

30-40% survival at 5 years
surgical removal of tumour plus multi drug adjuvant chemotherapy
if rectal will get radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

DUKE criteria D clinical management

A 
5-10% survival 
largely palliative 
resection of the tumour and larger mets 
chemotherapy 
stenting of the tumour 
and palliative radiotherapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the indication for TURP?

A

transurethral resection of the prostate is undertaken after the patient has a trial without catheter and fails to urinate with the alpha blocker and 5 alpha redactase
OPD with other TWOC can’t urinate then a TURP is indicated
OR if the creatinine was raised on presentation would go straight to TURP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How do you differentiate between a direct and an indirect hernia surgically?

A

Direct hernias have their origin medial to the deep inferior artery
indirect hernias have their origin lateral to the deep inferior artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How would you manage a indirect reducible inguinal hernia?

A

elective surgical repair.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what has the highest risk of strangulation femoral or inguinal hernias?

A

femoral because their is a smaller opening to get through.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is your differential for a groin lump inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle?

A

Either a femoral hernia or a staphena varix

28
Q

how do you manage a direct hernia?

A

They are less likely to strangulate so you can treat conservatively
lifestyle like losing weight

surgical repair.

29
Q

causes of inguinal lymphadenopathy - infective systemic

A

HIV

Tuberculous

30
Q

causes of inguinal lymphadenopathy local infectious

A

non specific lymphadenopathy from the groin or lower limb infection or sexually transmitted disease.

31
Q

causes of lymphadenopathy neoplastic systemic

A

lymphoma

leukemia

32
Q

neoplastic local causes of lymphadenopthy

A

mets from primary limb external genitalia or perianal region

33
Q

what are the contents of the inguinal canal?

A 
Fascia: 
1. external spermatic fascia 
2. cremasteric fascia
3. internal spermatic cord fascia 
arteries:
gonadal artery 
cremasteric 
artery of the vas
veins: testicular vein, cremasteric vein, vein of vas 
nerves: ilioinguinal nerve 
sympathetic supply from t10 and t11
genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve 
three other things: 
vas deferens
lymphatic 
patient processes vaginalis
34
Q

what are the boundaries of the Hesselback’s triangle

A

medially is the rectus sheath
inferiorly is the inguinal ligament
superiorly is the deep inferior artery

35
Q

what is the significance of hesselbach’s triangle?

A

If the inguinal hernia arises from the triangle than it is direct if it arises lateral to the triangle it is indirect

36
Q

What are the countries of the inguinal canal?

A

ant: skin superficial fascia, external oblique aponeurosis and internal oblique for the lateral third
post: conjoint tendon medially and transversalis fascia laterally
roof: arching fibres of the internal oblique and trans versus abdominis
floor: inguinal ligament

37
Q

what are the boundaries of the femoral canal?

A

ant: inguinal ligament
posterior: pectineal and pectineus
medial: lacunar ligament
lateral: femoral vein

38
Q

What are the general complications of any surgery?

A 
haemorrhage 
infection 
thromboembolism 
anaesthetic complications 
death
39
Q

what are the anaesthetic complications?

A

inadequate analgesia
respiratory depression
urinary retention
cardiac depression

40
Q

What are the complications of hernial repair?

A

hernia reoccurrence
ischeamic orchitis/ testicular atrophy
bruising of the scrotum and penis
cutaneous anaesthesia or hyperaethesia

41
Q

What is the mid inguinal point

A

the halfway point between the anterior illiac spine and the symphysis pubis. it represent the surface landmark of the femoral artery

42
Q

What is the midpoint of the inguinal ligament?

A

the half-way point between the ASIS and the physis pubis. It represents the surface landmark of the surface landmark of the deep inguinal ring.

43
Q

What is the direction of the nerve and vessels of the thigh.

A

Nerve Artery Vein lateral to medial

44
Q

testicular mass what is your first line investigation

A

ultrasound scan of both testes sensitivity is close to 100%

45
Q

If an ultrasound is highly suggestive of testicular malignancy what bloods should you order?

A 
tumour markers: 
1. ddx
2. monitoring treatment response
3. monitoring for relapse 
AFP, BHCG, LDH
46
Q

What does the tumour marker a fetoprotein tell you?

A

50-70% teratomas but not normally expressed by seminomas

47
Q

What does the tumour marker B HCG tell you?

A

40-60% teratomas express this and about 30% of seminomas

48
Q

What does the tumour marker lactate dehydrogenase for Testicular ca?

A

less specific marker relseased during tissue breakdown thus present in a lot of ca. More commonly raised in seminomas.

49
Q

what do you use radiologically for staging of testicular ca?

A

plain chest X-ray and CT scan of the chest abdomen and pelvis.

50
Q

characteristic features of a epidermal cyst

A
  1. posterior and superior to the testes
  2. fluctuant and transilluminable
  3. it is possible to get above the swelling
51
Q

what are the options for treatment of a varicocele

A

conservative: scrotal support with a jockstrap

non-conservative: embolisation, surgical ligation, or sclerotherapy

52
Q

if you suspect a epididymitis-orchitis secondary to STI

A

urine dipstick culture and sensitivity

urethral swab and gentiourinary medicine screen

53
Q

why is radical orchidectomy preformed via an inguinal incision rather than a scrotal incision?

A

removing the malignant testis via the scrotum would potentially risk seeding the malignant cells into the scrotum during the procedure. They have different lymphatic spreads
scrotum is the inguinal
testes is the para-aortic

54
Q

does orchidoplexy reduce the cancer risk of undeceived or maldecended testes?

A

nom but it is easier to detect any changes therefore meaning quicker flagging of ca.

55
Q

what are the most common types of testicular tumours

A

seminomas and teratomas

56
Q

is varicoceles more common on the left or right

A

98% on left

57
Q

What would you be considering as a cause of sudden left sided varicoele?

A

renal tumours as they invade the left renal vein and compromise the drainage of the left gonadal vein.

58
Q

what pathogen is most likely to cause epididymitis-orchitis in patients less than 35?

A

STI chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria Gonorrhoea

59
Q

What pathogen is most likely to cause epididymo-orchitis in people over 35?

A

E.Coli most likely

60
Q

pathogen in a young boy with swelling in the parotid and swollen testes?

A

mumps virus

61
Q

What is idiopathic scrotal oedema

A

prepubertal boys 6-7
acute onset erythmatous oedematous scrotal swelling which is often bilateral… the child is most often not complaining of pain.

62
Q

what are risk factors for hypercoagulable blood?

A

trauma, recent major surgery (3m), pregnancy, and post partum state (women increased risk of venous clot for 6 weeks), inflammatory bowel disease, active cancer, BMI greater than 30, oral combined pill, family history or medical history of DVT

63
Q

what are risk factors for blood stasis?

A

bed rest greater than 3 days, or long haul travel

64
Q

What can effect lymphatic drainage in the lower limb?

A

radiotherapy and surgery

65
Q

What are the types of oesophageal ca?

A

squamous and adenocarcinoma most common

66
Q

What is the pathology of oesophageal CA?

A

normal squamous epithelium in the distal esophagus replaced with glandular tissue (columnar)
This occurs with the condition known as Barrett’s esophagus
secondary to esophageal reflux disease. GORD

Final Med (35 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions