General Pharm 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Salmeterol MOA

A

long acting B2 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Salmeterol Use

A

maintenance of asthma and COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Examples of Short Acting B2 Agonists (SABA)

A
Albuterol
Levalbuterol
Terbutaline
Metaproterenol
Isoproterenol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Use for
Albuterol
Levalbuterol
Terbutaline

A

Rescue Inhalers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Metaproterenol Use

A

it isnt

cardio issues from B1 stim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Isoproterenol Use

A

mainly for arrhythmias (B1), no longer used for asthmas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

SE of SABAs

A

B1 stim- tachcardia, heart palpitations, nervousness, tremours, nausea
increase IOP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ipratropium MOA and Use

A

blocks muscarinic receptors in bronchiole smooth muscle- stops bronchoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ipratropium should be used in caution with….

A

narrow angle glaucoma- dilation and ant iris shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Zafirlukast (Accolate)
Montelukast (Singulair)
MOA

A

leukotriene receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Zafirlukast (Accolate)
Montelukast (Singulair)
Use

A

asthma and bronchoconstriction

allergic rhinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Theophylline (Theo-Dur) MOA

A

inhibits phospodiesterase- increased cAMP- more epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Theophylline (Theo-Dur) and topical B blockers

A

B blockers can lessen effects of theophylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) MOA

A

breaks disulfide bonds in mucus proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) Use (eye)

A

topical for filamentary keratitis, dry eye, corneal burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Methotrexate MOA

A

inhibits dihydrofolate reductase- stops DNA syntheses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Methotrexate Use

A

RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Methotrexate SE

A
hepatotoxicity
myelosuppression
increased risk of opportunistic infections and lymphomas
aplastic anemia
optic neuritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cyclosporine (Neoral/ Sandimmune) (Restasis) MOA

A

inhibits release and production of IL-2- no T lymphocyte production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Restasis Use

A

keratoconjunctivitis sicca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

SE of Cyclosporine (Neoral/ Sandimmune)

A

opportunistic infections, malignancies

hypertension, kidney problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Reversible Posterior Leukoencephalopathy Syndrome

A

headaches, altered consciousness, seizures, visual disturbances- aura, hallucinations, hemianopsia, cortical blindness
caused by Cyclosporine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Azathioprine MOA

A

purine analog that inserts into DNA and RNA and stops replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Azathioprine Use

A

RA

prevent kidney transplant rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Tamoxifen MOA

A

agonist inhibitor of estradiol- inhibits estrogen effects at the breast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Tamoxifen Use

A

breast cancer tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Tamoxifen SE

A

crystalline retinopathy
whorl keratopathy
BRVO/ CRVO
CME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Acetaminophen (Tylenol) Use

A

analgesia and antipyresis

safe for all ages and pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Acetaminophen (Tylenol) SE

A

hepatotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cyclobenzaprine (Flexaril) MOA

A

decreases motor activity by inhibiting tonic activity of alpha and gamma motor neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cyclobenzaprine (Flexaril) Use

A

stop muscle spasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cyclobenzaprine (Flexaril) SE

A

drowsiness, loss of coordination

anticholinergic (Sympathetic) effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cyclobenzaprine (Flexaril) Caution in patients with….

A

narrow angle glaucoma- dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Tramadol (Ultram) MOA

A

agonist at Mu opiate receptros
inhibits serotonin and NE uptake in pain pathways
stronger than Tylenol, weaker than opiates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Tramadol (Ultram) SE

A

dry mouth, sedation, dizziness, nausea

some miosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Meperidine (Demerol)
Oxycodone
MOA

A

agonist at Mu, Kappa, and Delta opiate receptors

strong analgesics that are addictive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Meperidine (Demerol)
Oxycodone
SE

A

pinpoint pupils

respiratory depression, sedation, nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

SE specific to Meperidine (Demerol)

A

seizures, increased ICP, papilledema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Promethazine and Opiates

A

used to combat nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Nalaxone (Narcan) Use

A

opioid antagonist

reverses effects of opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Eye effects of opiate withdrawal

A

mydriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Sumatriptin (Imitrex) MOA

A

5-HT1B and 1D (serotonin type 1B and 1D) receptor agonist- vasoconstriction
located in vascular smooth muscle in cranial arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Sumatriptin (Imitrex) Use

A

migraines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Sumatriptin (Imitrex) SE

A

vasoconstriction- NAION, MI, stroke, retinal artery occlusions, retinal venous thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Phenothiazine Examples

A

Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)

Thioridazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
Thioridazine
MOA

A

dopamine receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
Thioridazine
Use

A

antipsychotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
Thioridazine
SE

A

Parkinson’s effects at high dose
pigmentation on corneal endothelium, lens- stellate cataracts, RPE
oculogyric crisis
anticholinergic- dry eye, dry mouth, increased IOP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Parkinsons Symptoms

A

Tremor at rest
Rigidity (cogwheel)
Akinesia
Postural reflex- balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Amantadine (Symmetrel) MOA

A

blocks reuptake and increase release of dopamine in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Amantadine (Symmetrel) Use

A

Parkinson’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Bromocriptine MOA

A

dopamine agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Bromocriptine Use

A

pituitary adenoma

Parkinson’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine)
MOA

A

increase dopamine release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine)
Use

A

ADHD
narcolepsy
depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine)
SE

A

mydriasis- caution with narrow angles

dry eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Donepezil MOA

A

Ach-esterase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Donepezil Use

A

Alzheimers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Donepezil SE

A

lower IOP

cataracts, blurred vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

SSRI Examples

A

fluoxetine (Prozac)

escitalopram (Lexapro)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

SSRI MOA

A

inhibits serotonin reuptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

SSRI SE

A

mydriasis- caution with narrow angles

suicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

SNRI Examples

A

venlafaxine (Effexor)

duloxetine (Cymbalta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

SNRI MOA

A

inhibits serotonin and NE reuptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

SNRI Use

A

depression
anxiety
panic disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Serotonin Syndrome

A

SSRI or SNRI + TCA

extra anxiety, increased blood pressure, tremors

67
Q

SNRI SE

A

mydriasis- caution with narrow angles

suicide

68
Q

Bupropion (Wellbutrin) MOA

A

NDRI- inhibits reuptake of dopamine and NE

69
Q

Bupropion (Wellbutrin) Use

A

depression

smoking cessation

70
Q

TCA Examples

A

amitriptyline (Elavil)

imipramine

71
Q

TCA MOA

A

inhibits NE and serotonin reuptake

72
Q

TCA SE

A

dry eye, increased IOP, blurred vision, mydriasis

73
Q

Contraindications for TCAs

A

suicidal- life threatening overdose

74
Q

MAOI Example

A

phenylzine

75
Q

MAOI MOA

A

inhibits MAO- breaks down NE- More NE available

76
Q

MAOI SE

A

glaucoma
nystagmus
foods with tyramine (wine, cheese, dried meat) cause lethal hypertensive crisis

77
Q

Diazepam (Valium) MOA

A

opens chloride channels by binding to GABA receptors- hyperpolarized neurons

78
Q

Diazepam (Valium) Use

A

anxiety, panic attacks
sedative
alcohol withdrawal

79
Q

Diazepam (Valium) SE

A

sedation, depression, bradycardia
fatal if combined with alcohol
mydriasis- caution with narrow angles

80
Q

Phenytoin MOA

A

acts on NE, Ach, GABA

81
Q

SE of Phenytoin

A

nystagmus, diplopia, EOM palsies

gingival hyperplasia

82
Q

Phenytoin Use

A

anticonvulsant

83
Q

Phenobarbital MOA

A

stops glutamate by blocking AMPA

84
Q

Phenobarbital Use

A

seizures and sedation

85
Q

SE of Phenobarbital

A

mydriasis, increased IOP, cycloplegia

86
Q

Topiramate (Topamax) Use

A

seizures

87
Q

Topiramate (Topamax) SE

A

blurred vision, diplopia, nystagmus

choroidal swelling- myopia, acute secondary angle closure glaucoma

88
Q

Insulin MOA

A

activates tyrosine kinase receptors to promote formation and storage of glycogen, proteins, triglycerides in the liver, fat, and muscle

89
Q

Insulin Use

A

beetus

90
Q

Metformin MOA

A

decreases gluconeogenesis in the liver and increases glucose uptake

91
Q

Metformin Use

A

first line for diabetes because does not cause hypoglycemia

92
Q

Metformin SE

A

lactic acidosis

93
Q

Glipizide (Glucotrol)
Glyburide (Diabeta)
Chlorpropamide (Diabinese)
MOA

A

increase secretion of insulin
decrease glucagon release
increase sensitivity to insulin

94
Q

Glipizide (Glucotrol)
Glyburide (Diabeta)
Chlorpropamide (Diabinese)
SE

A

Hypoglycemia

sulfa allergy caution- Sulfonylureas

95
Q

B blockers and Sulfonylureas

A

increase risk of hypoglycemia

96
Q

Thiazolidinediones Examples

A

-glitazone
pioglitazone
rosiglitazone

97
Q

Thiazolidinediones MOA

A

activate peroxisome proliferator activated receptor gamma (PPAR-gamma) to increase glucose uptake into muscle and fat

98
Q

Thiazolidinediones Use

A

combat insulin resistance

99
Q

Thiazolidinediones SE

A

new or worsening macular edema

100
Q

Levothyroxine (Synthroid) MOA

A

synthetic T4 hormone

101
Q

Levothyroxine (Synthroid) SE

A

pseudotumor cerebri in children

102
Q

Levothyroxine (Synthroid) Use

A

hypothyroidism- Hashimoto’s

103
Q

Estrogen Use

A

contraceptives

decrease risk of endometrial cancer

104
Q

SE of Estrogen

A

dry eye
optic neuritis and papilledema from pseudotumor cerebri (rare)
BRVO/ CRVO

105
Q

Sildenafil (Viagra)
Vardenafil
MOA

A

inhibit PDE-5- increases blood flow

106
Q

Sildenafil (Viagra)
Vardenafil
SE

A
blue vision (cyanopsia)
photosensitivity
107
Q

Prazosin
Terazosin
Tamsulosin
MOA

A

a1 blockers

108
Q

Prazosin
Terazosin
Tamsulosin
Use

A

benign prostatic hypertrophy

hypertension (not tamsulosin)

109
Q

Prazosin
Terazosin
SE

A

hypotension- dizziness and headache

110
Q

Tamsulosin SE

A

floppy iris syndrome

111
Q

ACE Inhibitor examples

A
lisinopril
benazepril
enalapril
captopril
-pril
112
Q
lisinopril
benazepril
enalapril
captopril
MOA
A
  1. prevents formation of angiotensin 2 by inhibiting angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
  2. block metabolism of bradykinins- results in vasodilation
113
Q
lisinopril
benazepril
enalapril
captopril
SE
A

COUGH

hypersensitivity, angioedema

114
Q

Angiotensin 2 Receptor Antagonist (ARB) examples

A

losartan

115
Q

Losartan MOA

A

reduces BP by inhibiting angiotensin 2 directed contraction of vascular smooth muscle
stops aldosterone secretion

116
Q

SE of Losartan

A

NO COUGH- good backup to ACEI

117
Q

Propranolol
Labetalol
MOA

A

nonselective B blockers

block release of renin from kidneys

118
Q

Metaprolol
Atenolol
MOA

A

selective B1 blockers

119
Q

Calcium Channel Blocker Examples

A

nifedipine
verapamil
diltiazem

120
Q

nifedipine
verapamil
diltiazem
MOA

A

blocke L type calcium channels- decrease in intracellular free calcium- decrease vascular smooth muscle contraction

121
Q

nifedipine
verapamil
diltiazem
Use

A

hypertension

off label for normal tension glaucoma- increase perfusion to ON

122
Q

Furosemide MOA

A

works on thick ascending loop
inhibits Na/Cl/K cotransporters
increases Ca secretion- loses Ca

123
Q

Furosemide SE

A

hypokalemia, nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity

124
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide
Chlorothiazide
MOA

A

works on distal convoluted tubule

inhibits NaCl reabsorption and decreases Ca excretion

125
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide
Chlorothiazide
SE

A

acute transient myopia

acute angle closure glaucoma

126
Q

Spironolactone MOA

A

blocks action of aldosterone at late distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts- increase excretion of Na and water
spares K

127
Q

Spironolactone SE

A

hyperkalemia, gynecomastia, antiandrogen effects

128
Q

Triamterene MOA

A

blocks epithelial sodium channels in late DCT and collecting ducts- increase excretion of Na and water
K spared

129
Q

Mannitol MOA

A

increases plasma osmolarity- draws water out of eye or brain

works on entire nephron as diuretic

130
Q

Mannitol Use

A

acute angle closure

cerebral edema

131
Q

Clonidine MOA

A

CNS a2 agonist that decreases symp outflow and increases para- decreased vascular resistance and decreased heart rate, decreased IOP

132
Q

Clonidine SE

A

dry mouth, sedation, impotence

133
Q

Hydralazine MOA

A

increases cGMP- smooth muscle relaxation

decreases afterload by vasodilating arteries more than veins

134
Q

Hydralazine SE

A

tachycardia, fluid retention, lupus-like syndrome

conjunctivitis, increased lacrimation

135
Q

Digoxin (Digitalis) MOA

A

inhibits Na/K Pump enzyme- increased intracellular Ca

136
Q

Digoxin (Digitalis) SE

A

retrobulbar optic neuritis
B/Y color defect
snowy vision

137
Q

Digoxin (Digitalis) Use

A

congestive heart failure

138
Q

Amiodarone MOA

A

blocks K channels

139
Q

Amiodarone SE

A

NAION
whorl keratopathy
anterior subcapsular lens deposits

140
Q

Amiodarone Use

A

tachyarrhythmias

141
Q

Warfarin MOA

A

vitamin K antagonist- stops clotting factor 2, 7, 9, 10

142
Q

Warfarin contraindications

A

discontinue b4 cataract surgery- extra bleeding

pregnancy

143
Q

Warfarin Use

A

blood clots, mechanical heart valves, atrial fibrillation

144
Q

Clopidogrel (Plavix) MOA

A

inhibit ADP receptor on platelet cell membranes- stops aggregation and clot formation

145
Q

Clopidogrel (Plavix) SE

A

increased risk of bleeding, GI upset, rash

146
Q

Clopidogrel (Plavix) Use

A

after heart attack or stroke

147
Q

Dipyridamole MOA

A

inhibits adenosine deaminase and phosphodiesterase- inhibits platelet aggregation

148
Q

Dipyridamole SE

A

increased risk of bleeding

149
Q

Aggrenox

A

dipyridamole + aspirin

for strokes

150
Q

Lovastatin
Simvastatin
Atorvastatin
Use

A

first line for hyperlipidemia

151
Q

Lovastatin
Simvastatin
Atorvastatin
MOA

A

inhibit HMG-CoA reductase- rate limiting step in chol synth in liver
lower LDL and TRI
increase HDL

152
Q

Lovastatin
Simvastatin
Atorvastatin
SE

A

hepatotoxicity

myopathy

153
Q

Lovastatin
Simvastatin
Atorvastatin
contraindications

A

pregnancy/ lactation

154
Q

Gemfibrozil Use

A

hyperlipidemia

155
Q

Gemfibrozil MOA

A

binds to peroxisome proliferator activated receptor (PPAR-alpha)- increases lipase
decreases LDL and TRI

156
Q

Gemfibrozil SE

A

GI disturbance, skin rash, uticaria, myositis

157
Q

Cholestyramine Use

A

lower LDLs

158
Q

Cholestyramine MOA

A

binds bile acids in intestine to prevent reabsorption

159
Q

Cholestyramine SE

A

constipation and fatty stools

160
Q

Isotretinoin (Accutane) Use

A

acne

161
Q

Isotretinoin (Accutane) MOA

A

reduces size and degree of oil production from sebaceous glands

162
Q

Isotretinoin (Accutane) SE

A

blepharoconjunctivitis, dry eye, pseudotumor cerebri, papilledema, cataracts

163
Q

Isotretinoin (Accutane) contraindications

A

pregnancy