Antibodies, Mabs, markers, hard Rx Flashcards

1
Q

HLA A3

A

Hemochromatosis HA3mochromatosis.

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2
Q

HLA B8

A

Addison disease, myasthenia gravis, Graves disease Don’t Be late(8), Dr. Addison, or else you’ll send my patient to the grave

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3
Q

B27

A

Psoriatic arthritis, Ankylosing spondylitis, IBD-associated arthritis, Reactive arthritis

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4
Q

HLA C

A

Psoriasis

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5
Q

DQ2/DQ8

A

Celiac disease

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6
Q

DR2

A

Multiple sclerosis, hay fever, SLE, Goodpasture syndrome

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7
Q

DR3

A

DM type 1, SLE, Graves disease, Hashimoto thyroiditis, Addison disease 2-3, S-L-E.

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8
Q

DR4

A

Rheumatoid arthritis, DM type 1, Addison disease There are 4 walls in 1 “rheum” (room).

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9
Q

DR5

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis Hashimoto is an odd Dr (DR3, DR5)

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10
Q

Anti-ACh receptor - which disease

A

Myasthenia gravis

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11
Q

Anti-presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channel

A

Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

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12
Q

Antiβ2 glycoprotein I

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome

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13
Q

Anticardiolipin

A

SLE, antiphospholipid syndrome

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14
Q

Anti-dsDNA, anti-Smith

A

SLE

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15
Q

Anti-histone

A

Drug-induced lupus

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16
Q

diseaseAnti-U1 RNP (ribonucleoprotein)

A

Mixed CT disease

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17
Q

anti-CCP

A

RA

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18
Q

Anti-Ro/ SSA, anti-La/SSB

A

Sjogren syndrome

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19
Q

anti-DNA topoisomerase I

A

Scleroderma (diffuse)

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20
Q

Anticentromere

A

Limited scleroderma (CREST syndrome)

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21
Q

Antisynthetase (eg, anti-Jo-1), anti-SRP, anti- helicase (anti-Mi-2)

A

Polymyositis, dermatomyositis

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22
Q

Antimitochondrial

A

1° biliary cholangitis

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23
Q

Anti-smooth muscle

A

Autoimmune hepatitis type I

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24
Q

MPO-ANCA/p-ANCA

A
  • Microscopic polyangiitis,
  • eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg Strauss syndrome)
  • ulcerative colitis
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25
Q

PR3-ANCA/c-ANCA

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener

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26
Q

Anti-phospholipase A 2 receptor

A

1° membranous nephropathy

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27
Q

Anti-hemidesmosome

A

Bullous pemphigoid

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28
Q

Anti-desmoglein (anti-desmosome)

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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29
Q

Antimicrosomal, antithyroglobulin, antithyroid peroxidase

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

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30
Q

Anti-TSH receptor

A

Graves disease

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31
Q

IgA anti-endomysial, IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase, IgA and IgG deamidated gliadin peptide

A

Celiac disease

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32
Q

Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase

A

Type 1 diabetes mellitus

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33
Q

islet cell cytoplasmic antibodies

A

Type I diabetes mellitus

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34
Q

Antiparietal cell, anti-intrinsic factor

A

Pernicious anemia

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35
Q

Anti-glomerular basement membrane

A

Good pasture syndrome

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36
Q

Drug vs CD52 - what clinical use?

A

Alemtuzumab, CLL & MS

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37
Q

Vs VEGF - Rx/Dx used for?

A

Bevacizumab;

Colorectal cancer, renal cell carcinoma, non-small cell lung cancer

neovascular agerelated macular degeneration, proliferative diabetic retinopathy, and macular edema

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38
Q

vs CD20

A

Rituximab

B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma, CLL, rheumatoid arthritis, ITP, MS

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39
Q

vs HER2

A

Trastuzumab

breast cancer, gastric cancer

40
Q

vs Soluble TNF alpha - Rx? Dz?

Using this could lead to reactivation of?

A

Adalimumab, infliximab

IBD, rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, psoriasis

Reactivation of Myc TB

41
Q

decoy TNF-α receptor

A

Etanercept

42
Q

vs Complement protein C5 - rx? dz?

A

Eculizumab

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

43
Q

α4-integrin - rx? dz?

A

Natalizumab;

MS, Crohn disease

44
Q

IL-12, IL-23 - rx? dz?

A

Ustekinumab

Psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis

45
Q

Platelet glycoproteins IIb/IIIa - rx? dz?

A

Abiciximab

Antiplatelet agent for prevention of ischemic complications in patients undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention

46
Q

vs RANKL

A

Denosumab

Osteoporosis; inhibits osteoclast maturation (mimics osteoprotegerin)

47
Q

vs IgE

A

Omalizumab

Refractory allergic asthma

48
Q

vs RSV F protein

A

Palivizumab

RSV prophylaxis for high-risk infants

49
Q

Ab vs PD-1 or PD-L1

A

Inhibited by antibodies against PD-1 (eg, pembrolizumab, nivolumab) or PD-L1 (eg, atezolizumab, durvalumab, avelumab).

50
Q

anti CTLA4 antibody

A

Ipilimumab

51
Q

Alkaline phosphatase

A

Metastases to bone or liver, Paget disease of bone, seminoma (placental ALP).

52
Q

α-fetoprotein

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma, Endodermal sinus (yolk sac) tumor, Mixed germ cell tumor, Ataxia-telangiectasia, Neural tube defects. (HE-MAN is the alpha male!)

53
Q

hCG - assoc with?

A

Hydatidiform moles and Choriocarcinomas (Gestational trophoblastic disease), pure embryonal carcinoma ( can be inc in seminoma/yolk sac)

54
Q

CA 15-3/CA 27-29

A

Breast cancer.

55
Q

Calcitonin

A

Medullary thyroid carcinoma (alone and in MEN2A, MEN2B).

56
Q

CEA

A

Major associations: colorectal and pancreatic cancers.

Minor associations: gastric, breast, and medullary thyroid carcinomas.

57
Q

Chromogranin

A

Neuroendocrine tumors.

58
Q

LDH

A

Testicular germ cell tumors, ovarian dysgerminoma, other cancers

59
Q

Neuron-specific enolase

A

Neuroendocrine tumors (eg, small cell lung cancer, carcinoid tumor, neuroblastoma

60
Q

Chromogranin and synaptophysin - target and tumor?

A

Neuroendocrine cells
Small cell carcinoma of the lung, carcinoid tumor

61
Q

Cytokeratin - target/tumor?

A

Epithelial cells

Epithelial tumors (eg, squamous cell carcinoma)

62
Q

DesMin - target/tumor?

A
Muscle
Muscle tumors (eg, rhabdomyosarcoma)
63
Q

GFAP - target/tumor?

A

NeuroGlia (eg, astrocytes, Schwann cells, oligodendrocytes)
Astrocytoma, Glioblastoma

64
Q

Neurofilament - target? tumors?

A
Neurons
Neuronal tumors (eg, neuroblastoma
65
Q

PSA

A

Prostatic epithelium

Prostate cancer

66
Q

S-100 - target? tumors?

A

Neural crest cells

Melanoma, schwannoma, Langerhans cell histiocytosis

67
Q

Vimentin - target? tumors?

A
Mesenchymal tissue (eg, fibroblasts, endothelial cells, macrophages)
Mesenchymal tumors (eg, sarcoma), but also many other tumors (eg, endometrial carcinoma, renal cell carcinoma, meningioma)
68
Q

p450 inducers

A
  • Modafinil
  • Chronic alcohol use
  • St. John’s wort
  • Phenytoin
  • Phenobarbital
  • Nevirapine
  • Rifampin
  • Griseofulvin
  • Carbamazepine
69
Q

p450 substrates

A

Warfarin Anti-epileptics Theophylline OCPs

70
Q

p450 inhibitors

A
  • Valproate
  • Amiodarone
  • Cimetidine /Omeprazole
  • Ketoconazole
  • Fluconazole
  • Chloramphenicol
  • Erythromycin/clarithromycin
  • Sulfonamides
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Metronidazole
  • Ritonavir
  • Acute alcohol abuse
  • Grapefruit juice
71
Q

PSK9 (-)’rs - use?

A

Alirocumab, evolocumab

(-)’n of LDL-R degratdation –> Inc removal of LDL

72
Q

IL2 recombinant - use?

A

Aldesleukin

RCC, metastatic melanoma

73
Q

TPO receptor agonists - use?

A

eltrombopag, romiplostim

ITP

74
Q

reverses dabigatran bleeding

if that’s not available, then use?

A

idarucizumab

tranexamic acid

75
Q

Cetuximab, panitumumab - mech and use?

A

Monoclonal antibodies against EGFR.

Stage IV colorectal cancer (wild-type KRAS), head and neck cancer.

76
Q

Dabrafenib, vemurafenib

mech, use?

A

Small molecule inhibitors of BRAF oncogene ⊕ melanoma.

Metastatic melanoma.

77
Q

β-interferon, glatiramer, natalizumab used for what?

A

MS

78
Q

Acute flares of MS - use?

A

IV steroids

79
Q

Ruxolitinib - use?

A

janus kinase inhibitor (JAK inhibitor) with selectivity for subtypes JAK1 and JAK2

myelofibrosis, PCV when not responsive to hydroxyurea

80
Q

Anagrelide - what dz?

A

essential thrombocytosis

81
Q

Daclizumab - was used for ______ disease, but now largely out of use bc of __________ (side effect)

A

MS ;encephalitis

82
Q

Basiliximab

A

vs IL 2 R

binds to alpha chain - CD25

83
Q

Degarelix - MoA, Dz?

A

GnRH antagonist

prostate cancer

84
Q

Goserelin - rx? dz?

A

GnRH analogue

breast, prostate cancer

85
Q

competitively inhibiting uric acid reabsorption in the proximal tubule of the kidney.

A

Sulfinpyrazone - used for gout

86
Q

Imiquimod used for what dz?

A

genital warts, superficial basal cell carcinoma, and actinic keratosis

87
Q

Lumacaftor

Ivacaftor - mech, dz

A

lumacaftor (corrects misfolded proteins and improves their transport to cell surface)

ivacaftor (opens Cl– channels Ž improved chloride transport).

88
Q

VDRL test - detects Ab that reacts with beef _________

False POS VDRL =?

A

VDRL detects nonspecific antibody that
reacts with beef cardiolipin.

False-Positive results on VDRL with:
Pregnancy
Viral infection (eg, EBV, hepatitis)
Drugs
Rheumatic fever
Lupus and leprosy

89
Q

nitazoxanide - used for?

A

Cryptosporidium in immunocompetent hosts

90
Q

CMV uses what receptor?

A

Integrins (heparan sulfate)

91
Q

EBV receptor

A

CD21

92
Q

HIV uses what receptors?

A

CD4, CXCR4, CCR5

93
Q

Parvo virus B19 receptor

A

P antigen on RBCs

94
Q

Rabies receptor

A

Nicotinic AchR

95
Q

Rhinovirus receptor

A

ICAM-1

96
Q

Mirabegron - works on what receptor? use?

A

B3 - urinary urge incontinence or overactive bladder

97
Q
A