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Step 1 2019 First Aid Flashcards > Reproductive - FA Patho p624 - 639 > Flashcards

Reproductive - FA Patho p624 - 639 Flashcards

1
Q

tall, long extremities, gynecomastia, female hair distribution

A

Klinefelter syndrome

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2
Q

Which sex chr disorder will have presence of inactive Barr body?

A

Klinefelter syndrome

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3
Q

Which hormones are inc in both Klinefelter’s and Turners?

A

Both FSH and LH

Klinefelter -

Dysgenesis of seminiferous tubules --\> dec inhibin B --\> inc FSH
Abnormal leydig (dec testosterone = inc LH, inc estrogen)

Turners - dec estrogen –> inc LH, FSH

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4
Q

What are sx of Turners?

A
  • Short stature (if untreated; preventable with growth hormone therapy)
  • ovarian dysgenesis (streak ovary),
  • shield chest
  • bicuspid aortic valve, coarctation (femoral < brachial pulse),
  • lymphatic defects (result in webbed neck or cystic hygroma; lymphedema in feet, hands),
  • horseshoe kidney,
  • high-arched palate,
  • shortened 4th metacarpals.
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5
Q

How is the sex chromosome lost in Turner?

A

nondisjunction during meiosis or mitosis.

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6
Q

Explain the meiosis and mitosis errors that can happen in Turner

A

Meiosis errors usually occur in paternal gametes –> sperm missing the sex chromosome.

Mitosis errors occur after zygote formation –> loss of sex chromosome in some but not all cells –> mosaic karyotype (eg. 45,X/46XX). (45,X/46,XY)

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7
Q

How is pregnancy possible in Turners?

A

Pregnancy is possible in some cases (IVF, exogenous estradiol-17β and progesterone).

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8
Q

Which disease is assoc with cystic hygroma?

A

Turner’s (lymph defects)

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9
Q

What sexual chr disorder can present with dec femoral pulse vs brachial?

A

Turners - due to coractation.

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10
Q

May be associated with severe acne, learning disability, autism spectrum disorders.

A

Double Y males

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11
Q

Both ovarian and testicular tissue present (ovotestis); More likely to be xx or xy?

A

46,XX > 46,XY.

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12
Q

in primary hypogonadism what will be the testosterone, LH level?

A

low test, high LH

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13
Q

in testosterone secreting tumor, what will be the testosterone, LH lever?

A

high testosterone, low LH

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14
Q

in defective androgen receptor, what will be testosterone, LH level?

A

high test, high LH

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15
Q

Sx of 46, XX DSD and cause?

A

Ovaries present, but external genitalia are virilized or ambiguous.

Due to excessive and inappropriate exposure to androgenic steroids during early gestation (eg, congenital adrenal hyperplasia or exogenous administration of androgens during pregnancy).

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16
Q

46, XY DSD sx and most common cause?

A

Testes present, but external genitalia are female or ambiguous.

Most common form is androgen insensitivity syndrome (testicular feminization).

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17
Q
A
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18
Q

dx? masculinized female infant (46, XX), mother had inc serum testosterone and hirsutism

A

Placental aromatase def

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19
Q

Why does pregnant mother with placental aromatase def present with virilization?

A

Fetal androgens cross the placenta

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20
Q

Normal appearing female, female ext genetalia but minimal axillary and pubic hair, blind sac vagina with no uterus and fallopian tubes

A

Androgen insensitivity syndrome, defect in androgen receptor.

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21
Q

In Androgen Insensitivity syndrome, if some one has normal functioning testes, where found and what to do?

A

labia majora, removed surgically to (-) malignancy

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22
Q

dx? no prostate, normal testosterone/estrogen, internal genitalia normal, but ambiguous external genitalia, 46 XY

A

5 alpha reductase def

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23
Q

in 5 alpha reductase def, why do you see ambiguous external genitalia and no prostate?

A

b/c DHT made from testosterone by 5 alpha reductase converts genital tubercle, urogenital sinus into male external genitalia, prostate

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24
Q

Hormone levels in 5α-reductase deficiency

A

Testosterone/estrogen levels are normal; LH is normal or inc.

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25
Q

Kallman syndrome - underlying defect

A

Defective migration of GnRH-releasing neurons and subsequent failure of olfactory bulbs to develop –> dec synthesis of GnRH in the hypothalamus; hyposmia/anosmia;

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26
Q

Hormone levels in Kallman

A

DEC GnRH, FSH, LH, testosterone.

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27
Q

Sudden painful bleeding in 3rd trimester

A

Premature seperation of placenta (partial or complete) from uterine wall before delivery - Abruptio placentae

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28
Q

Causes of Abruptio Placentae

A

trauma (eg, motor vehicle accident), smoking, hypertension, preeclampsia, cocaine abuse.

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29
Q

pathology associated with defective decidual layer? types?

A

Morbidly adherent placenta - abnormal attachment and separation after delivery.

placenta Accreta (Attaches to myometrium w/o penetrating)

placenta Increta - placenta penetrates into myometrium.

placenta Percreta - placenta penetrates (“perforates”) through myometrium and into uterine serosa (invades entire uterine wall

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30
Q

complication of placenta accreta/increta/percreta?

A

Sheehan syndrome

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31
Q

presentations of placenta accreta/increta/percreta?

A

often detected on ultrasound prior to delivery no separation of placenta after delivery –> postpartum bleeding

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32
Q

Where does placenta normally form and attach?

A

upper pole of uterus

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33
Q

attachment of placenta to lower uterine segment?

A

placenta previa

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34
Q

What is placenta previa? major sx?

A

Attachment of placenta to lower uterine segment over (or < 2 cm from) internal cervical os.

Sx/ painless 2rd trimester bleeding

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35
Q

dx? membrane rupture, painless vaginal bleeding, fetal bradycardia (less than 110/min),

A

Vasa previa

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36
Q

Vasa previa often assoc with velamentous umbilical cord insertion - what is that?

A

cord inserts in chorioamniotic membrane rather than placenta –> fetal vessels travel to placenta unprotected by Wharton jelly

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37
Q

Most common causes of post partum hemorrhage

A

Tone (uterine atony; most common), Trauma (lacerations, incisions, uterine rupture), Thrombin (coagulopathy), Tissue (retained products of conception).

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38
Q

most common location of the ectopic preg?

A

ampulla of fallopian tube

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39
Q

level of hCG in ectopic preg?

A

lower than expected rise based on dates

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40
Q

Risk factors for ectopic preg?

A
  • ƒ Prior ectopic pregnancy
  • ƒ History of infertility
  • ƒ Salpingitis (PID)
  • ƒ Ruptured appendix
  • ƒ Prior tubal surgery
  • ƒ Smoking
  • ƒ Advanced maternal age
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41
Q

Causes of polyhydramnios

A

associated with fetal malformations (eg, esophageal/duodenal atresia, anencephaly; both result in inability to swallow amniotic fluid), maternal diabetes, fetal anemia, multiple gestations.

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42
Q

3 causes for oligohydromnios

A

placental insufficiency, bilateral renal agenesis, post urethral valves

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43
Q

dx? honeycombed uterus, hyperemesis, hyperthyroidism, pre-eclampsia before 24 weeks

A

complete hydatidiform mole

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44
Q

Which type of hydatidiform mole is maternal vs paternal ? Components?

A

Complete - paternal. Enucleated egg and 1 single sperm that duplicates paternal DNA

Partial - maternal expressed, 2 sperm + 1 egg

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45
Q

hcg levels and p57 protein staining for complete vs partial mole

A

Hcg VERY high for complete mole, inc for partial mole

No P57 protein in complete mole

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46
Q

which tumor has inc beta hCG?

A

choriocarcinoma

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47
Q

2 diagnosis criteria for gestational hypertension?

A

BP>140/90 after 20th wk of gestation

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48
Q

Tx of Gestational hypertension?

A

alpha methyl dopa, labetalol, hydralazine, nifedipine

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49
Q

diagnosis criteria for preeclampsia

A

new onset of HTN with either proteinuria or end organ dysfunction after 20th wk of gestation

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50
Q

pathophysio of preeclampsia?

A

abnormal placental spiral arteries –> endothelial dysfunction –> vasoconstriction, ichemia

51
Q

6 complications of preeclampsia?

A
  • placental abruption,
  • coagulopathy,
  • renal failure,
  • pulmonary edema,
  • uteroplacental insufficiency;
  • may lead to eclampsia (+ seizures) and/or HELLP syndrome.
52
Q

Tx of Preeclampsia?

A

Same anti-HTN as gest. HTN,

IV magnesium sulfate to prevent seizure

deliver the fetus

53
Q

definition of eclampsia?

A

preeclampsia + maternal seizures

54
Q

what is the manifestation of severe preeclampsia?

A

HELLP syndrome = Hemolysis + Elevated Liver enzymes + Low Platelets

55
Q

what is the complication of HELLP?

A

DIC and hepatic subcapsular hematomas –> rupture –> severe hypotension

56
Q

thin off white discharge, fishy odor, no vaginal inflammation? Clue cells POS whiff test?

A

Bact Vaginosis - give Metro

57
Q

thin yellow green discharge, mal odor, frothy discharge w. vaginal inflammation

A

Trichomoniasis - give Metro

58
Q

thick white cottage cheese like discharge, Norm pH, pseudohyphae

A

Candida vaginitis - give Fluconazole

59
Q

Bartholin cyst, what is it? - assoc w. which infection

A

Due to blockage of Bartholin gland duct causing accumulation of gland fluid. May lead to abscess 2° to obstruction and inflammation - N. gonorrhoeae

60
Q

porcelain white plaques on vulva with red/violet border - what is it? inc risk for what malignancy?

A

Lichen sclerosus, thinning of epidermis with fibrosis of dermis. Inc risk for SCC

61
Q

Lichen simplex chronicus - what is it? cause?

A

Hyperplasia of vulvar squamous epithelium. Presents with leathery, thick vulvar skin with enhanced skin markings due to chronic rubbing or scratching

62
Q

clear grape like polypoid mass emerging from vagina, spidle shaped cells, desmin pos - what is it? pt pop’n?

A

Sarcoma botryoides - girls <4 yrs old. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma variant

63
Q

Two types of vulvar carcinoma - source? age of pt pop’n?

A

HPV-related vulvar carcinoma—associated with high-risk HPV types 16, 18. Risk factors: multiple partners, early coitarche. Usually in reproductive-age females.

Non-HPV vulvar carcinoma—usually from long-standing lichen sclerosus. Females > 70 years old

64
Q

Where does cervical dysplasia begin?

A

basal layer of squamocolumnar junction (transformation zone) and extends outward.

65
Q

Cervical dysplasia is associated with which virus and what are its gene products.

A

Associated with HPV-16 and HPV-18, which produce both the E6 gene product (inhibits TP53) and E7 gene product (inhibits pRb) (6 before 7; P before R).

66
Q

What types of cells are seen with HPV

A

Koilocytes

67
Q

Presentation and risk factors of CIN

A

either asymp and seen on Pap smear, or as post coital vaginal bleeding

Risk factors: multiple sexual partners (#1), smoking, early coitarche, DES exposure, immunocompromise (eg, HIV, transplant).

68
Q

what is the consequence of invasive carcinoma of the cervical cancer?

A

lateral invasion can block ureters –> hydronephrosis –> renal failure

69
Q

define Primary ovarian insufficiency

A

premature atresia of ovarian follicles in women of reproductive age. pts present with signs of menopause after puberty but before age 40

70
Q

12 most common causes of anovulation

A
  1. pregnancy
  2. polycystic ovarian syndrome
  3. obesity
  4. HPO axis abnormalities
  5. premature ovarian failure
  6. hyperprolactinemia
  7. thyroid disorders
  8. eating disorders
  9. competitive athletics
  10. cushing
  11. adrenal insufficiency
  12. chromosomal abnormalities
71
Q

what malignancy is associated with PCOS?

A

inc risk for 2’ endometrial cancer due to unopposed estrogen from repeated anovulatory cycles

72
Q

6 treatments for PCOS?

A
  1. weight loss 2. OCPs 3. clomiphene citrate (GnRH agonist) 4. spironolactone 5. finasteride 6. flutamide
73
Q

what cyst is due to distention of unruptured graafian follicle?

A

follicular cyst

74
Q

most common ovarian mass in women?

A

follicular cyst

75
Q

what kind of cyst is associated with gonadotropine stimulation?

A

theca lutein cyst

76
Q

Follicular cyst is associated wtih

A

hyperestrogenism, endometrial hyperplasia

77
Q

Theca Lutein cysts forms due to ? Assoc w/ which pathologies?

A

Due to gonadotropin stimulation. Associated with choriocarcinoma and hydatidiform moles.

78
Q

what two paths are associated with theca lutein cyst?

A

choriocarcinoma, hydatidiform moles

79
Q

is CA 125 good for screening ovarian cancer?

A

No, it is just good for monitoring process.

80
Q

name 4 conditions that dec ovarian cancer risk?

A
  1. previous pregnancy 2. hx of brestfeeding 3. OCPs 4. tubal ligation
81
Q

Most common ovarian neoplasm

A

Serous cystadenoma - benign, bilateral with fallopian like epith

82
Q

another name for mature cystic teratoma?

A

dermoid cyst

83
Q

Most common ovarian tumors in females 10-30 yrs old - describe it?

A

Mature cystic teratoma, dermoid cyst

has all 3 germ cell layers, - teeth, hair sebum.

84
Q

What type of benign reproductive tumor is seen in females with hypothyroidism ( rare)

A

Struma ovarii - monodermal form of dermoid cyst, has thyroid tissue

85
Q

what is Meigs syndrome and what tumor is associated with it?

A

—triad of ovarian fibroma, ascites, pleural effusion

86
Q

Benign tumor that resembles bladder epith? histological sign?

A

Brenner tumor, solid tumor that is pale yellow-tan and appears encapsulated. Coffee bean nuclei on H&E stain

87
Q

what is like a granulosa cell tumor that presents as abnormal uterine bleeding in post menopausal woman,

A

thecoma - may produce estrogen,

88
Q

What do you see histologically with the most common ovarian neoplasm?

A

Serous cystadenocarcinoma - psammoma bodies

89
Q

Adolescent patient, sheets of fried egg cells - what tumor and which markers?

A

Dysgerminoma; hcg and LDH

90
Q

what tumor is associated with sacrococcygeal area in young child?

A

Yolk sac (endodermal tumor)

91
Q

what path is associated with Schiller Duval bodies?

A

Yolk sac (endodermal sinus) tumor

92
Q

Malignant female reproductive tumor with Call Exner bodies - what are they?

A

Call-Exner bodies (granulosa cells arranged haphazardly around collections of eosinophilic fluid, resembling primordial follicles - Granulosa Cell tumor

93
Q

most common malignant stromal tumor in female?

A

granulosa cell tumor

94
Q

Presentation of Granulosa Cell tumor?

A

Predominantly women in their 50s. Often produces estrogen and/or progesterone and presents with postmenopausal bleeding, endometrial hyperplasia, sexual precocity (in pre-adolescents), breast tenderness

95
Q

most common ovarian tumors?

A

serous cystadenocarcinoma

96
Q

what is struma ovarri?

A

functional thyroid tissue with hyperthyrodism from mature cystic teratoma

97
Q

GI malignancy that metastasizes to ovaries - what type ?

A

Krukenberg tumor - mucin secreting signet cell adenocarcinoma

98
Q

tumor dx? dysmenorrhea, menorrhagia, uniformly enlarged soft globular uterus

A

adenomyosis

99
Q

What is adenomyosis?

A

Extension of endometrial tissue (glandular) into uterine myometrium. Caused by hyperplasia of basal layer of endometrium

100
Q

treatment for adenomyosis?

A

GnRH agonist, hysterectomy

101
Q

Adhesion or fibrosis of endometrium is called ? assoc w.?

A

Asherman syndrome, assoc with D&C of intrauterine cavity.

102
Q

Leiomyoma - what pt population? affected by what hormone?

A

benign smooth m tumor, sensitive to estrogen (inc size in pregnancy and dec with menopause) Inc in African americans, and peak occurence in women 20-40 yrs old

103
Q

How does leiomyoma present? look like histologically?

A

Could be asymp, cause AUB, or result in miscarriage

Severe bleeding –> Fe def anemia

Whorled pattern of smooth muscle bundles with well-demarcated borders B.

104
Q

Endometrial hyperplasia cause by? when is risk for cancer inc?

A

excess estrogen stimulation

inc risk for endometrial carcinoma, esp when nuclear atypia.

105
Q

Two types of endometrial carcinoma? - which is more common? histo of each?

A

Endometrioid—most common. Associated with unopposed estrogen exposure and endometrial hyperplasia, usually in perimenopausal women. Histology shows abnormally arranged endometrial glands.

Serous—associated with endometrial atrophy in postmenopausal women. Aggressive. Characterized by formation of papillae and tufts. .

106
Q

The two types of endometrial carcinoma are assoc with which gene issues?

A

Endometrioid - loss of PTEN or mismatch repair genes

Serous - TP53 mutations common

107
Q

Tx for Endometritis

A

Gentamicin + Clindamycin +/- Ampicillin

108
Q

what is endometrioma?

A

endometriosis (ectopic endometrial tissue)

109
Q

what endometrial condition is associated with dyschezia (pain with defecation)?

A

endometriosis

110
Q

2 female paths associated with chocolate cyst

A

endometrioma, endometriosis

111
Q

6 treatments for endometriosis?

A
  1. NSAIDs 2. OCPs 3. progestins 4. GnRH agonist 5. danazol 6. laparoscopic removal
112
Q

the order of the worst prognosis of obgyn tumors

A

ovarian > cervical > endometrial

113
Q

Which lobes are involved in BPH?

A

periurethral (lateral and middle) lobes, which compress the urethra into a vertical slit

114
Q

Pt with hx of MI presents with dysuria and found to have smooth, elastic, firm nodular enlargement of the periurethral area. What medication is C/I in this pt for his BPH? why?

A

tadalafil –> MI pt might use nitroglycerin –> sever hypotention

115
Q

Pt with HTN and BPH can benefit from which tx?

A

α1-antagonists —> -zosin

116
Q

Diff. btw prostatitis and BPH?

A

prostatitis has low back pain, prostate feels warm, tender, and enlarged. (hypertrophy)

117
Q

Location of prostate ca?

A

posterior lobe, peripheral zone

118
Q

definite dx of prostate ca?

A

needle core biopsies

119
Q

Male Pt is his 70s presents with lower back pain. Looking at the x-ray, physician finds this: (look at x-ray). Which lab values do u expect to be elevated?

A

total PSA, with dcr fraction of free PSA serum ALP and PSA.

120
Q

Which GnRH analog can tx prostate ca and infertility? How is it administered in each case?

A

Leuprolide continuous fashion –> p. ca pulsatile –> infertility

121
Q

Prostate ca spreads to which plexus?

A

batson’s plexus

122
Q

2 conditions associated with female pseudo hermaphrodite?

A

congenital adrenal hyperplasia, exogenous administration of androgens during pregnancy

123
Q
A

Step 1 2019 First Aid Flashcards (63 decks)

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