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OB Pathology > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What refers to a fetus with a significantly narrow diameter of the chest?

A

asphyxiating thoracic dystrophy

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2
Q

the most important determinant for fetal viability is:

A

pulmonary development

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3
Q

chest circumference measurements are made in the transverse plane at the level of the:

A

four chambers of the heart

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4
Q

which statement about fetal breathing is false?
A. fetal breathing is most prominent in the second and third trimesters
B. the mature fetus spends one third of its time breathing
C. breathing is present if the fetal chest or abdomen made seesaw movements for 20 seconds
D. breathing is absent if no fetal activity was noted during a 2-minute period

A

D

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5
Q

the average cardiac axis is:

A

45 degrees

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6
Q 
common abnormalities associated with pulmonary hypoplasia include all except which of the following?
A. renal agenesis
B. premature rupture of membranes
C. macrosomia
D. posterior urethral valve syndrome
A

C

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7
Q

sonographic findings in cystic adenomatoid malformation include all except which of the following?
A. Cystic adenomatoid malformation may occur below the diaphragm
B. cystic adenomatoid malformation may present as an echogenic mass in type III
C. cystic adenomatoid malformation may present as large cysts in type I
D. cystic adenomatoid malformation is associated with polyhydramnios

A

A

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8
Q

the hernia that occurs anteriorly and medially in the diaphragm is known as:

A

foramen of Morgagni

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9
Q

the most common lung cyst detected prenatally is:

A

bronchogenic cyst

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10
Q

the severity of pulmonary hypoplasia depends on:

A

when it occurred during pregnancy

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11
Q

the supernumerary lobe of the lung is called:

A

pulmonary sequestration

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12
Q

normal sonographic appearance of the fetal chest included all except which of the following?
A. ribs form the lateral margin of the chest
B. clavicles form the upper margin of the chest
C. lungs serve as the medial borders for the heart
D. symmetric bell-shaped thoracic cavity

A

C

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13
Q

the normal fetal lungs appear on ultrasound as:

A

homogeneous with moderate echogenicity

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14
Q

which of the following statements about the fetal thorax is false?
A. the majority of the heart is positioned in the midline and left chest
B. the apex of the heart should be directed toward the spleen
C. the central portion of the thorax is occupied by the heart
D. the base of the heart lies horizontal to the diaphragm

A

C

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15
Q

when fetal pleural effusion is encountered, a careful search of the _______ should be attempted

A

diaphragm

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16
Q

sonographic findings in sequestration include all except which of the following?
A.sequestration presents as an echogenic mass resembling lung tissue
B. sequestration is seen with normal intraabdominal anatomy
C. sequestration commonly occurs below the diaphragm
D, sequestration is associated with hydrops

A

C

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17
Q

congenital bronchial atresia is found most commonly in the:

A

left upper lobe

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18
Q

the most common type of diaphragmatic hernia occurs:

A

posteriorly and laterally

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19
Q

herniation through the foramen of Bochdalek usually is found on this portion of the diaphragm

A

left

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20
Q 
which of the following does not describe sonographic features of a right-sided diaphragmatic hernia?
A. the liver is seen in the chest
B. a collapsed bowel may be present
C. the stomach lies superior to the 
diaphragm
D. the heart is deviated far to the left
A

C

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21
Q

at birth, the mortality rate for diaphragmatic hernia is:

A

high

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22
Q

the presence of a pleural effusion may cause:

A

a shift in mediastinal structures

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23
Q

the rupture of the amnion that leads to entrapment or entangelement of the fetal parts by the “sticky” chorion is called:

A

amniotic band syndrome

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24
Q

a defect in the lower abdominal wall and anterior wall of the urinary bladder is:

A

bladder exstrophy

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25
Q

an anomaly with large cranial defects, facial cleft, large body-wall defects, and limb abnormalities is called:

A

limb-body wall complex

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26
Q

evaluation of the fetal abdominal wall demonstrated evisceration of the bowel to the right of the umbilical cord. this is most representative of:

A

gastroschisis

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27
Q 
if a low omphalocele is found in the fetus, other anomalies may include all except which of the following?
A. bladder or cloacal exstrophy
B. anal atresia
C. esophageal atresia
D. spina bifida
A

C

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28
Q 
beckwith-Wiedemann sydrome includes all except which of the following?
A. organomegaly
B. macroglossia
C. omphalocele
D. gastroschisis
A

D

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29
Q

gastroschisis is thought to be a consequence of atrophy of the:

A

right umbilical vein

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30
Q

the two most common anterior abdominal wall defects are:

A

gastroschisis and omphalocele

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31
Q

a critical part of the process of closing the abdominal wall is:

A

folding

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32
Q

the normal embryologic herniation of the bowel permits:

A

development of the intraabdominal organs

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33
Q

which statement about an omphalocele is correct?
A. the herniation is covered by a membrane that consists of amnion and chorion
B. omphaloceles that contain only bowel have a higher risk for chromosomal abnormalities
C. the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein level will be significantly elevated
D. an omphalocele is a periumbilical defect located to the right of the umbilicus

A

B

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34
Q

a 19-week fetus with elevation of MSAFP shows herniated free-floating bowel loops. this most likely represents:

A

gastroschisis

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35
Q

the five defects of pentalogy of Cantrell include

A

omphalocele, ectopic heart, distal sternum defect, diaphragmatic hernia, and diaphragmatic pericardium

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36
Q

which statement about gastroschisis is false?
A. it is found more frequently in males
B. it is located next to the normal cord insertion
C. MSAFP levels are significantly elevated
D. small bowel is not always found in the hernia

A

D

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37
Q

the prognosis for an infant with uncomplicated gastroschisis is:

A

excellent

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38
Q

the most dramatic finding in ectopia cordis is:

A

the presence of the heart outside the thoracic cavity

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39
Q

a high or superumbilical omphalocele is usually the primary finding in:

A

pentalogy of cantrell

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40
Q

limb-body wall defects are more common:

A

on the left side than the right side

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41
Q 
common anomalies coexisting with gastroschisis include:
A. cleft lip
B. renal agenesis
C. cardiac defects
D. none of the above
A

D

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42
Q

notably dilated free-floating bowel loops may suggest:

A

infarction

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43
Q

the herniation of an omphalocele is covered by a membrane that consists of:

A

the amnion and peritoneum

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44
Q

a fetus with partial situs inversus may demonstrate the:

A

stomach on the right, heart on the left

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45
Q

in a transverse image, evidence of a double bubble in a fetus with Trisomy 21 represents:

A

duodenal atresia

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46
Q 
the spleen is visualized on a transverse plane, just:
A. anterior to the liver
B. posterior to the liver
C. posterior and left of the stomach
D. anterior and left of the stomach
A

C

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47
Q

a cystic growth of the common bile duct is:

A

a choledochal cyst

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48
Q

haustral folds can be found within the

A

colon

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49
Q

a remnant of the proximal part of the yolk stalk is

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

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50
Q

the most common malformation of the midgut is

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

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51
Q

transposition of the liver and stomach, absence of the gallbladder, multiple spleens, and disruption of the IVC describes

A

polysplenia

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52
Q

a sonolucent band identified near the fetal anterior abdominal wall represents

A

pseudoascites

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53
Q

which statement about the fetal liver is incorrect?
A. the fetal liver is large compared with the other intraabdominal organs
B. the hepatic veins and fissures are formed by the end of the first trimester
C. the right lobe is larger than the left lobe
D. the liver occupies most of the upper abdomen

A

C

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54
Q

which of the following describes situs inversus?
A. heart on the right; liver on the left; gallbladder on the right
B. heart on the right; liver on the left; spleen on the right
C. spleen on the right; heart on the left; gallbladder on the left
D. liver on the right; spleen on the left; heart on the right

A

B

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55
Q 
which one of the following neural tube defects is characterized by a lack of development of the cerebral and cerebellar hemispheres and cranial vault and is an abnormality that is incompatible with life?
A. acrania
B. cephalocele
C. dandy-walker malformation
D. anencephaly
A

D

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56
Q 
which of the following central nervous anomalies demonstrates splaying of the cerebellar hemispheres on ultrasound?
A. hydrancephaly
B. cephalocele
C. vein of Galen malformation
D. Dandy-walker malformation
A

D

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57
Q 
a condition in which a complete or partial absence of the cranial bones is demonstrated is which one of the following?
A. cebocephaly
B. acrania
C. holoprosencephaly
D. hydrancephaly
A

B

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58
Q 
anomalies associated with anencephaly include all of the following except:
A. cleft lip
B. holoprosencephaly
C. polyhydramnios
D. spina bifida
A

B

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59
Q

what is the most severe form of holoprosencephaly, which is characterized by a single common ventricle and malformed brain? orbital anomalies range from fused orbits to hypotelorism, with frequent nasal anomalies and clefting of the lip and palate

A

alobar

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60
Q

what anomaly may be characterized by the presence of colopocephaly (small frontal horns and dilated occipital horns)

A

agenesis of the corpus callosum

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61
Q 
facial anomalies in holoprosencepahly may represent all of the following except:
A. hypotelorism
B. cyclopia
C. hypertelorism
D. flattened nose with single nostril
A

C

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62
Q 
which of the following signs are characteristic of the Arnold-Chiari malformation?
A. banana and lemon shaped
B. strawberry and banana shaped
C. lemon and strawberry shaped
D. cloverleaf and banana shaped
A

A

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63
Q

which anomaly is characterized by the presence of a posterior fossa cyst and a splaying of the cerebellar hemispheres?

A

dandy walker malformation

64
Q

which abnormality is described as the congenital absence of the cerebral hemispheres resulting from an occlusion of the carotid arteries? the midbrain structures are present and fluid replaces cerebral tissue

A

hydrancephaly

65
Q

the absence of the cavum septi pellucidi is a distinguishing characteristic for what anomaly?

A

agenesis of the corpus callosum

66
Q

ventriculomegaly is defined as a lateral ventricular enlargement measuring greater than _______ mm

A

10

67
Q

an open spinal defect characterized by a protrusion of meninges and spinal cord through the defect usually within a meningeal sac, is called

A

meningomyelocele

68
Q

ventriculomegaly coupled with an enlargement of the fetal head is called

A

hydrocephalus

69
Q

which abnormality is the most common open neural tube defect

A

anencephaly

70
Q

what fetal head anomaly is characterized by the presence of a single primitive ventricle

A

holoprosencephaly

71
Q 
a vein of Galen malformation is which one of the following abnormalities
A. has a male predominance
B. a rare arteriovenous malformation
C. a sporadic event
D. all of the above
A

D

72
Q

a form of holoprosencephaly characterized by a common ventricle, hypotelorism, and a nose with a single nostril is

A

cebocephaly

73
Q

which of the following statements about anencephaly is incorrect
A. the incidence of anencephaly varies with geographic location
B. anencephaly is a lethal disorder
C. anencephaly has a male prevalence
D. anencephaly is caused by the failure of closure of the neural tube at the cranial end

A

C

74
Q

which of the following about microcephaly is false
A. microcephaly is an abnormally large head
B. the prognosis for fetuses with microcephaly depends on the cause
C. sonographic diagnosis depends on accurate assessment of fetal age
D. microcephaly may manifest later in pregnancy

A

A

75
Q 
the differential considerations for anencephaly include all the following except
A. arachnoid cyst
B. microcephaly
C. acrania
D. cephalocele
A

A

76
Q

what describes herniation of the meninges and brain through a calvarium defect

A

encephalocele

77
Q

the _____ is a communication between the right and left atrium that persists after birth

A

atrial septal defect

78
Q

the embryonic vascular system begins during the ____ week

A

third

79
Q

blood flow in the fetus communicates between the aorta and pulmonary arteries via the

A

ductus arteriosis

80
Q

in utero the right heart is ______ than the left heart

A

slightly larger

81
Q

in utero the foramen ovale opens toward the

A

left atrium

82
Q

normally the tricuspid valve is located _____ to the mitral valve

A

slightly inferior

83
Q

the four pulmonary veins bring blood from the lungs back into the ___ wall of the ____

A

posterior; left atrium

84
Q

the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle is the

A

mitral valve

85
Q

fetal tachycardia is defined as a heart rate over ____ beats per minute

A

200

86
Q

fetal bradycardia is defined as a heart rate less than ____ beats per minute

A

60

87
Q 
fetal risk factors for congenital heart disease include all except which of the following
A. abnormal heart rate
B. abnormal amniotic fluid collections
C. extracardiac abnormalities
D. sibling with a cardiac abnormality
A

D

88
Q

the moderator band stretches across the ______ near the apex

A

right ventricle

89
Q 
maternal risk factors that indicate the fetus is at a higher than normal risk for congenital heart diseases are
A. diabetes
B. lupus erythematosus
C. drug and/or alcohol abuse
D. all of the above
A

D

90
Q

which type of imaging is used to evaluate cardiac motion

A

M-mode

91
Q

a condition that shows a dilated renal pelvis measuring greater than 4 mm in the anteroposterior direction is known as

A

hydronephrosis

92
Q

protrusion of the posterior wall of the urinary bladder, which contains the trigone of the bladder and the ureteric orifices is called

A

exstrophy of the bladder

93
Q

a condition in which both ovarian and testicular tissues are present is

A

hermaphroditism

94
Q 
sonographic findings in complete renal agenesis include all the following except
A. oligohydramnios
B. absence of urine in the fetal bladder
C. dilated fetal bladder
D. small thorax
A

C

95
Q

renal agenesis, oligohydramnios, pulmonary hypoplasia, abnormal facies, and malformed hands and feet may be found in what condition

A

Potter’s syndrome

96
Q

what characteristic of multicystic disease is most common

A

multiple noncommunicating cysts of variable size

97
Q

which site of hydronephrosis in the neonate is most common

A

uteropelvic junction

98
Q

all of the following findings are observed in hydronephrosis except
A. AP renal diameter is greater than 5-10 mm
B. rim of renal parenchyma is preserved
C. calyceal distention with central pelvis communication
D. renal enlargement

A

D

99
Q

a dilated bladder with a keyhole appearance is most likely which condition

A

posterior urethral valve obsruction

100
Q 
sonographic findings in prune belly syndrome include all the following except
A. oligohydramnios
B. pulmonary hypoplasia
C. fetal ascites
D. renal agenesis
A

D

101
Q

this occurs when the kidney is located on the opposite side of its urethral orifice

A

crossed renal ectopia

102
Q

the renal system fails to develop in which condition

A

renal agenesis

103
Q

the kidneys initially lie in which position

A

very close together in the pelvis

104
Q

the normal AP diameter of the renal pelvis in a 20 week gestation should not exceed

A

4 mm

105
Q

a cystic dilation of the intravesical segment of the distal ureter is

A

ureterocele

106
Q

the most likely cause of bilateral hydronephrosis is

A

pelviureteral obstruction

107
Q

normal amniotic fluid volume cannot exclude renal agenesis prior to _____ weeks

A

14-16

108
Q 
sonographic findings in posterior uretheral valve obsruction include all except
A. hydroureter
B. oligohydramnios
C. thinning of the bladder wall
D. hydronephrosis
A

C

109
Q

which of the following about fetal ovarian cysts is incorrect?
A.appears multiseptated
B. often appears bilaterally
C. results from maternal hormone stimulation
D. has no diagnostic significance

A

D

110
Q

when the fetal kidneys appear enlarged and engorged the sonographer should suspect what condition

A

infantile polycystic kidney disease

111
Q

renal malformations may be divided into what two categories

A

congenital and obstructive

112
Q 
which of the following anomalies demonstrates  the ultrasound characteristics of trisomy 18?
A. Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita
B. Jeune syndrome
C. Multiple pterygium syndrome
D. Pena-Shokeir syndrome
A

D

113
Q

what skeletal anomaly is associated with micromelia and a “hitchhiker thumb”?

A

diastrophic dysplasia

114
Q 
which of the following terms describes a shortening of the proximal portion of the extremity?
A. hemimelia
B. mesomelia
C. micromelia
D. rhizomelia
A

D

115
Q 
all of the following are characteristics of thanatophoric dysplasia except:
A. cloverleaf skull
B. microcephaly
C. extreme micromelia
D. short ribs
A

B

116
Q

what skeletal anomaly is associated with the Amish community

A

Ellis-van Creveld syndrome

117
Q

what diagnosis is most likely when multiple fractures and a compressible calvarium are identified?

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

118
Q

what skeletal anomaly is associated with cloverleaf skull?

A

thanatophoric dysplasia

119
Q

what nonlethal skeletal dysplasia is most common

A

achondroplasia

120
Q

which anomaly is caused by an alkaline phosphatase deficiency

A

congenital hypophosphatasia

121
Q

a congenital condition characterized by a disorder of collagen production is?

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

122
Q

sonographic findings of severe micromelia, decreased or absent ossification of the spine, macrocephaly, and micrognathia describe what skeletal condition

A

achondrogenesis

123
Q

a group of lethal skeletal dysplasias characterized by bowing of the long bones is?

A

camptomelic dysplasia

124
Q

sonographic features of a small thorax, thizomelia, renal dysplasia, and polydactyly are associated with what skeletal condition

A

Jeune syndrome

125
Q

a diagnosis of talipes may be made with which of the following characteristics?
A. persistent inversion of the foot
B. persistent abnormal inversion of the foot parallel to the lower leg
C. persistent abnormal inversion of the foot perpendicular to the lower leg
D. persistent abnormal inversion of the lower leg

A

C

126
Q

fusion of the lower extremities is associated with?

A

sirenomelia

127
Q

the sonographic features of achondroplasia may not be evident until after ________ weeks’ gestation

A

22

128
Q

the most common lethal skeletal dysplasia is

A

thanatophoric dysplasia

129
Q

which of the following statements about achondroplasia is incorrect?
A. advanced maternal age is a risk factor
B. patients with heterozygous achondroplasia have a poor survival rate
C. achondroplasia is most commonly the result of a spontaneous mutation
D. achondroplasia results from decreased endochondral bone formation

A

A and B

advanced paternal age is a risk factor
(heterozygous achondroplasia have a good survival rate)

130
Q

type _____ classification of osteogenesis imperfecta is considered the most severe

A

2

131
Q

a rare condition characterized by phocomelia and facial anomalies is

A

Roberts

132
Q

the majority of talipes is _________

A

idiopathic

133
Q

abnormal growth and density of cartilage and bone is described as

A

skeletal dysplasia

134
Q

what is caused by cartilage abnormalities that result in abnormal bone formation and hypomineralization

A

achondrogenesis

135
Q

a lethal skeletal dysplasia characterized by short ribs, short limbs, and polydactyly is

A

short-rib polydactyly

136
Q

webbing across the joint and multiple contractures are sonographic findings of what abnormality

A

lethal multiple pterygium syndrome

137
Q 
which of the following might demonstrate a small placenta?
A. maternal anemia
B. Rh sensitivity
C. maternal diabetes
D. chromosomal anomaly
A

D

138
Q 
cord prolapse problems can be produced during all EXCEPT which of the following obstertric procedures?
A. velamentous insertion
B. artificial rupture of membranes
C. disengaging the head
D. version and extraction
A

A

139
Q

velamentous umbilical cord insertion is associated with all except which of the following
A>preterm labor
B. abnormal intrapartum heart rate pattern
C. low Apgar scores
D. large for gestational age

A

D

140
Q

which of the following statements about a single umbilical artery is false?
A. increased incidence of IUGR
B. the right umbilical artery is absent more often than the left umbilical artery
C. increase in prenatal mortality
D. increased incidence of chromosomal abnormalities

A

B

141
Q

prolapse of the umbilical cord occurs when

A

the cord lies below the presenting part

142
Q

failure of the anterior abdomnial wall to close completely at the level of the umbilicus describes

A

umbilical herniation

143
Q

which statement about the fetal face is false
A. the fetal profile is well imaaged with transvag beginning late first trimester to early second trimester
B. the modified coronal view is best to image a cleft lip and palate
C. the maxilla and orbits are well imaged in a true sagittal plane
D. the longitudinal view demonstrates the nasal bones, soft tissue, and mandible

A

C

144
Q

craniosynostoses may be defined as

A

premature closure of the cranial sutures

145
Q

evaluation of the nasal triad should include all except which of the following?
A. nostril symmetry
B. nostril length
C. nasal septum integrity
D. continuity of the upper lip to exclude cleft lip and palate

A

B

146
Q

which statement about the epignathus is false
A. an epignathus is a teratoma located in the oropharynx
B. the mass may be highly complex and contain solid, cystic, or calcified components
C. swallowing is not impaired in fetuses with epignathus
D. a small stomach may be present

A

C

147
Q

the most common neck mass is

A

cystic hygroma colli

148
Q

a group of disorders that have in common the coexistence of omphalocele, macroglossia, and visceromegaly is the

A

Beckwith-Wiedmann syndrome

149
Q

proboscis suggests

A

holoprosencephaly

150
Q

which of the following facial anomalies is correct?
A. facial anomalies are homogenous
B. hemangiomas do not occur in the face and neck
C. facial anomalies occur as isolated defects or as part of a syndrome
D. doppler evaluation of the facial masses is discouraged because of the possible bioffects to the fetus

A

C

151
Q

ear malformation may be observed in

A

Goldenhar’s syndrome

152
Q

cleft lip with or without cleft palate is seen more frequently in

A

native americans

153
Q

which of the followings about fetal goiter is incorrect?
A.appears symmetric
B. appears heterogeneous
C. masses arise in anterior neck
d. associated with maternal thyroid disease

A

B

154
Q

congenital anomalies of the face happen in

A

1:600 births

155
Q

an isolated unilateral cleft lip defect commonly originates

A

on the left side of the face

156
Q

which of the following about neck teratomas is incorrect
A. unusally unilateral
B.may demonstrate a complex appearance
C. usually locaated posteriorly
D. color doppler may be helpful in diagnosis

A

C

OB Pathology (16 decks)

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