Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Dedicated - Step 2 > 8 > Flashcards

8 Flashcards

(102 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Distinguish aplastic anemia from ALL.

A

ALL: hypercellular bone marrow, painful

Aplastic anemia: hypocellular bone marrow, painLESS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Presentation - soft, mobile, non-tender masses at the base of the labia majora at the 4 and 8 o’clock positions.

A

Bartholin duct cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Presentation - cysts that appear along the lateral aspects of the upper anterior vagina, do not involve the vulva

A

Gartner duct cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Presentation - cysts located lateral to the urethral meatus in the anterior vaginal vestibule

A

Skene gland cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Management of asymptomatic Bartholin cyst?

A

Observation and expectant management (most resolve spontaneously)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Rx symptomatic Bartholin cyst?

A

I&D + placement of Word catheter to reduce risk of recurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Rx condylomata acuminata

A

Cryotherapy and topical podophyllotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Best next step in management of a patient with DM and suspected osteomyelitis?

A

Bone biopsy and culture (positive superficial wound cultures do not reliably predict the culprit organisms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Presentation - chest pain, neck pain, syncope, history of HTN, mediastinal widening on CXR, pericardial effusion

A

Acute aortic dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why are Type A (ascending aorta) dissections a surgical emergency?

A

Can lead to aortic rupture into the pericardial space and hemopericardium, which rapidly progresses to tamponade and shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Next step in suspected Type A dissection?

A

CTA if hemodynamically stable and no renal dysfunction

TEE if hemodynamically unstable or renal insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Single most important prognostic consideration in the treatment of patients with breast cancer?

A

Tumor burden based on TNM staging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Osgood-Schlatter disease?

A

Osteochondritis of the tibial tubercle that causes chronic knee pain worse with running and jumping in active adolescents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

List the 3 types of acne vulgaris and distinguish between them.

A
  1. Comedonal (closed/open comedones on forehead, nose, chin)
  2. Inflammatory (inflamed papules <5 mm and pustules, erythema)
  3. Nodular (cystic) (large >5 mm nodules, can appear cystic, can merge to form sinus tracts with scarring)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Rx comedonal acne?

A

Topical retinoids; salicylic, azelaic, or glycolic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Rx inflammatory acne (mild, moderate, severe)?

A

Mild: topical retinoids + benzoyl peroxide
Moderate: add topical ABX (erythro/clinda)
Severe: add oral ABX (tetracyclines)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Rx nodular acne

A

Moderate: topical retinoid + benzoyl peroxide + topical ABX
Severe: + oral ABX
Unresponsive severe: + oral isotretinoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What causes mixed cryoglobulinemia syndrome (MCS)?

A

Immune complex deposition in small- to medium-sized blood vessels, leading to endothelial injury and end-organ damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Presentation of MCS?

A 
Systemic: fatigue, arthralgias
Skin: non-blanching palpable purpura, LCV 
Renal: most commonly HTN; also GN
Pulmonary: dyspnea, pleurisy
Liver: elevated transaminases
Neuro: peripheral neuropathies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

MCV is most commonly associated with chronic inflammatory conditions such as ___ and ___. What testing should be done?

A

HCV; SLE

HCV, HBV, HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Dx MCS?

A

Serologically - serum cryoglobulins, low complement levels positive RF, elevated transaminases, kidney injury

OR

Skin/renal biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Rx MCS

A

Rx underlying disease + plasmapohresis/immunosuppression if rapidly progressive or life-threatening course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Decreased ADAMTS13 activity causes what illness?

A

TTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Features of type 1 cryoglobulinemia?

A

Asympatomatic
Hyperviscosity (blurry vision, etc.), thrombosis (eg, Raynaud)
Skin: livedo reticularis, purpura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Compare complement levels in type 1 and mixed cryoglobulinemia syndromes
Type 1: normal | Mixed: low C4
26
Features of TTP?
Fever, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia with NONpalpable purpura, kidney injury, neuro findings
27
Cause of type 1 cryoglobulinemia?
Lymphoproliferative or hematologic disorders like multiple myeloma
28
Presentation - very light menses or secondary amenorrhea that does not respond to a progesterone challenge
Asherman syndrome
29
Dx and Rx Asherman syndrome?
Hysteroscopy (can lyse adhesions)
30
What type of neoplasm is a hairy cell leukemia, what age population does it affect, and what mutation causes it?
Clonal B-cell neoplasm Middle-age/older adults BRAF mutation
31
Features of hairy cell leukemia?
Pancytopenia (bone marrow fibrosis) Splenomegaly (early satiety) Uncommon to have hepatomegaly, LAD, or B symptoms
32
Dx hairy cell leuemima
Smear: hairy leukocytes | BM Bx with flow cytometry
33
Peripheral smear with "smudge cells"
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
34
Peripheral smear with Reed-Sternberg cells
Hodgkin lymphoma
35
What can cause an immobile uterus, cervical motion tenderness, and pelvic anatomy distortion?
Endometriosis
36
Urethral meatus located at the coronal margin
Hypospadias (ventrally displaced urethral opening)
37
Management of hypospadias?
Urologic evaluation | Circumcision is deferred until after eval because foreskin may be used in repair
38
Which patients with hypospadius need renal U/S?
If they have other congenital abnormalities
39
In the setting of spontaneous abortion, treatment options include expectant management, medical induction with misoprostol, and suction curettage - when is curettage indicated?
Infection | Hemodynamic instability
40
When is oxytocin indicated in the setting of a spontaneous abortion?
It's not during the first or second trimesters, as there are few oxytocin receptors in the uterus during early pregnancy
41
Most cases of intussusception occur at age 2 or younger following a viral illness - what serves as a nidus for telescoping in this setting?
Hypertrophied Peyer patches in the lymphoid-rich terminal ileum
42
List 6 pathological lead points that may lead to intussusception.
1. Congenital malformation of the intestines (eg, Meckel diverticulum) 2. HSP (small-bowel hematoma) 3. Celiac disease 4. Intestinal tumor 5. Polyps 6. Inspissated stool in CF
43
Presentation of intussusception?
``` Sudden, intermittent abdominal pain Children may draw up their legs Currant jelly stools Sausage-shaped abdominal mass Lethargy or AMS ```
44
Dx intussusception?
Target sign on U/S
45
Rx intussusception?
Air or saline enema | Surgery for removal of lead point
46
Pathologic mechanism of croup?
Viral infection in which edema and narrowing of the proximal trachea result in a barky cough and inspiratory stridor
47
Age of patients affected by croup?
6 months to 3 years
48
Rx croup?
Mild (no stridor at rest): humidified air +/- steroids | Moderate/severe (stridor at rest): steroids + neb epi
49
Vitamin K-deficient bleeding results from deficiency of what factors?
2, 7, 9, 10
50
Confirm Dx of Vitamin K-deficient bleeding?
Reversal of symptoms with vitamin K administration
51
Presentation - mucocutaneous bleeding and petechiae in the setting of normal PT, aPTT, platelet count
Impaired platelet function
52
Most common causes of acute unilateral lymphadenitis in children (presents with pronounced erythema and tenderness)?
S. aureus | S. pyogenes
53
Expected cause of unilateral acute cervical adenitis in children associated with dental caries and periodontal disease?
Anaerobic bacteria (eg, Prevotella buccae)
54
Expected cause of bilateral acute cervical adenitis in children associated with paryngoconjunctivitis?
Adenovirus
55
Rx acute unilateral lymphadenitis empirically?
Clindamycin (MRSA, S. pyogenes activity)
56
Most common cause of subacute unilateral LAD in young children (slow onset, non-tender node)
Non-tuberculous mycobacteria (eg, Mycobacterium avium)
57
Presentation - environmental exposure, painful sensorimotor polyneuropathy, skin lesions (hypo/hyperpigmented, hyperkeratotic), pancytopenia, mild transaminase elevation, Mees lines (horizontal fingernail striatino)
Chronic arsenic toxicity
58
Dx arsenic toxicity?
Elevated urine arsenic levels
59
Mechanism of arsenic poisoning?
Binds to sulfhydryl groups and disrupts cellular respiration and gluconeogenesis
60
Rx arsenic poisoning?
Chelation with dimercaprol or DMSA
61
Presentation - patchy sensorimotor neuropathy and autonomic dysfunction
Acute intermittent porphyria
62
Distinguish chronic lead poisoning from chronic arsenic poisoning.
Lead - sensorimotor neuropathy in stocking-glove distribution along with microcytic anemia; GI complains are typical, NO skin changes
63
Distinguish focal seizures from absence seizures.
Both can have staring spells; however, focal seizures are associated with a post-ictal phase and are NOT provoked by hyperventilation, whereas absence are NOT associated with a post-ictal phase and ARE prooked by hyperventilation
64
Characteristic features of duodenal ulcer?
Epigastric pain that improves with eating
65
What causes the majority of duodenal ulcers?
H. pylori or NSAIDs
66
___ is inflammation of the lung parenchyma caused by antigen exposure. Acute episodes present with cough, breathlessness, fever, and malaise that occur within 4-6 hours of antigenic exposure. Chronic exposure may cause weight loss, clubbing, and honeycombing of the lung.
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
67
Classic radiographic findings of hypersensitivity pneumonitis?
Ground glass opacity or "haziness" in the lower lung fields
68
Best treatment for hypersensitivity pneumonitis?
Avoidance of antigenic exposure May speed acute recovery/manage severe episodes with systemic corticosteroids
69
GERD predisposes patients to what 3 conditions?
1. Barrett's esophagus 2. Erosive esophagitis 3. Esophageal (peptic) stricture formation
70
Symmetric and circumferential narrowing of the involved esophagus with dysphagia for solids but typically no weight loss?
Peptic strictures Note - may cause an improvement in heartburn symptoms by blocking reflux
71
3 additional causes of peptic strictures aside from GERD?
Radiation Systemic sclerosis Caustic ingestions
72
Next step in management of a stricture in the setting of Barrett's?
Biopsy to r/o adenocarcinoma via endoscopy (dilation performed if no malignancy detected)
73
Foundation of management of fibromyalgia?
Exercise
74
Age of presentation of Hodgkin lymphoma?
Bimodal: 15-35, >60
75
Features of Hodgkin lymphoma?
PainLESS cervical and supraclavicular LAD Mediastinal mass (may cause cough, SOB, chest pain) B symptoms (subacute fever, sweats, weight loss, fatigue, etc.) Pruritis (paraneoplastic process)
76
Dx Hodgkin lymphoma?
Lymph node biopsy (Reed-Sternberg cells on histology)
77
By age 12 months, an infant's weight ___ and height increases by ___.
Triples; 50%
78
When are platelet transfusions given?
Platelet count <10000 or <50000 with active bleeding
79
When is whole blood transfusion (PRBCs + plasma) indicated?
Severe hemorrhage requiring massive blood transfusions to assist in volume expansion
80
Single photon emission CT scan is a useful tool to evaluate what?
CAD
81
Decreased tracer uptake at rest and with exercise during single photon emission CT scan indicates?
Likely scar tissue with decreased perfusion and CAD (fixed defect)
82
Decreased tracer uptake with stress but normal uptake at rest during single photon emission CT scan indicates?
Inducible ischemia and likely CAD
83
Presentation - multisystem involvement with acute or subacute renal failure, skin manifestations including livedo reticularis or blue toe syndrome, cerebral or intestinal ischemia, and Hollenhorst plaques after recent catheterization
Choelsterol embolization
84
Lab findings of cholesterol embolization?
Elevated serum Cr, eosinophilia, hypocomplementemia | UA - benign with few cells or casts, may have eosinophiluria
85
Skin or renal biopsy finings of cholesterol embolization?
Biconvex, needle-shaped clefts with occluded vessels | Perivascular inflammation with eosinophils
86
Typical cause of non-purulent vs. purulent cellulitis?
Non-purulent: beta-hemolytic Streptococcus, MSSA Purulent: S. aureus (MSSA and MRSA)
87
Cause of erysipelas?
S. pyogenes
88
Compare the skin findings of erysipelas and cellulitis
Erysipelas: - Superficial dermis and lymphatics - Raised, sharply demarcated edges - Rapid spread and onset - Fever early in course ``` Cellulitis: -Deep dermis and subcutaneous fat -Flat edges with poor demarcation -Indolent -Localized (fever later in course) +/- purulent drainage ```
89
Approximately only half of patients with acute liver failure will survive without ___.
Liver transplantation
90
Most common cause of death in acute liver failure?
Cerebral edema -> coma and brain stem herniation
91
Metabolic alkalosis can be classified as saline-responsive and saline-unresponsive based on what two factors?
1. Urinary chloride levels | 2. Extracellular fluid volume status
92
How is saline-responsive metabolic alkalosis defined?
Low urinary chloride excretion Volume contraction Corrects with saline infusion alone
93
How is saline-unresponsive metabolic alkalosis defined?
Urinary chloride >20 mEq/L Variable volume status Saline unresponsive
94
Why is sertraline the first line Rx for MDD post-MI?
Very low risk of adverse drug interactions, especially with cardiac medications
95
Which SSRI is avoided in patients with recent MI and wy?
Citalopram; potential for dose-dependent QT prolongation
96
XR findings suggestive of thoracic aortic aneurysm?
Widened mediastinum Enlarged aortic knob Tracheal deviation Widened aorta
97
Cause of TAA?
Age-related degenerative changes that lead to disruption of the aortic wall medial layer with loss of elasticity and consequent aortic dilation
98
Presentation of thoracic aortic aneurysm?
Asymptomatic until discovery is made incidentally on CXR, CT, or EKG Some develop chest pain or abdominal discomfort as it grows to compress surroudning structures
99
Why is a chest CT with contrast usually needed to confirm the diagnosis of TAA?
CXR cannot always distinguish TAA from tortuous aorta
100
Compare the major manifestations of Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia to multiple myeloma.
Waldenstrom: hyperviscosity syndrome, HSM, neuropathy, bleeding, LAD Multiple myeloma: osteolytic lesions/fractures, hypcalcemia, anemia, renal insufficiency
101
Compare the monoclonal antibody, peripheral smear findings, and BM biopsy findings of Waldenstrom vs. multiple myeloma.
Waldenstrom, IgM, Rouleaux, >10% clonal B cells MM: IgG, IgA, light chains; Rouleaux, >10% clonal plasma cells
102
Screening test for Waldenstrom macoglobulinemia?
SPEP (monoclonal IgM spike) If positive -> BM biopsy Also - serum viscosity testing

Dedicated - Step 2 (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions