Last Minute 2 Flashcards

(89 cards)

1
Q

Posterior hip dislocation vs Anterior hip dislocation vs. Hip fracture

A

Posterior: shortened, internally rotated
Anterior: lengthened, externally rotated
Fracture: shortened, externally rotated

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2
Q

Rx acute Meniere disease? Ongoing Rx?

A

Benzos, anticholinergics (scopolamine) and antihistamines (meclizine or dimenhydrinate)

Diuretics for ongoing

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3
Q

Cholinergic crisis?

A

SLUDG - excessive salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, GI activity, pinpoint pupils, decreased HR

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4
Q

Anticholinergic crisis?

A
Blind as a bat
Hot as a hare
Mad as a hatter
Dry as a bone
Red as a beet
Dilated pupils
Increased HR
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5
Q

Sympathomimetics?

A
HTN
Tachycardia
Anxiety
Dilated pupils
Diaphoresis
Possible AMS
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6
Q

Diagnose Cushing syndrome.

A
  1. 24-hour measurement of free urine cortisol (abnormally elevated) OR dexamethasone suppression test (cortisol not appropriately suppressed)
  2. ACTH (elevated in Cushing disease, decreased with adrenal adenoma)
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7
Q

Diagnose hypoadrenalism (Addison disease).

A
  1. ACTH stimulation test -> measure plasma cortisol, give ACTH, remeasure cortisol in 1 hour (should rise appropriately)
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8
Q

Dx central vs. nephrogenic DI

A

Give ADH and measure urine Osms

Central - UOsm increases

Nephrogenic - UOsm remains inappropriately dilute

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9
Q

Main cause of duodenal vs. gastric ulcer?

A

Duodenal - H. pylori

Gastric - NSAIDs

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10
Q

Ulcer that gets better with eating vs. worse?

A

Duodenal gets better with eating

Gastric gets worse or no change

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11
Q

Gold standard diagnostic study for PUD? Cheaper/less invasive?

A

Gold standard - endoscopy (if done, biopsy required for gastric ulcer)
Cheaper/less invasive - upper GI barium study

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12
Q

Best first imaging study for suspected gallbladder disease? Next step if uncertain?

A

U/A; HIDA

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13
Q

Remember that ___ can cause increased amylase and lipase levels.

A

Perforated bowel

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14
Q

Management of suspected cardiac tamponade?

A

If stable - echo first

If unstable - pericardiocentesis

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15
Q

Most common cause of immediate death after an automobile accident or a fall from a great height?

A

Aortic rupture

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16
Q

What are the 3 zones of the neck?

A

I - base of the neck from 2 cm above the clavicles to the level of the clavicles

II - midcervical region from 2 cm above the clavicle to the angle of the mandible

III - top of the neck fro m the angle of the mandible to the base of the skull

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17
Q

Management of Zone I and III injuries?

A

Arteriogram before OR UNLESS obvious bleeding or rapidly expanding hematoma

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18
Q

Management of Zone II injury?

A

OR right away

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19
Q

Buccal smear with absent Barr bodies

A

Turner syndrome

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20
Q

Work-up for secondary amenorrhea?

A
  1. R/o pregnancy
  2. Progesterone challenge (if normal, indicates sufficient estrogen)
  3. LH level (if high -> PCOS?) FSH level (if estrogen insufficient; if high -> premature ovarian failure, if normal -> MRI brain)
  4. Prl and TSH
  5. GnRH levels
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21
Q

Teardrop-shaped RBCs

A

Myelofibrosis

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22
Q

Acanthocytes (irregularly spiculated cells) and spur cells

A

Abetalipoproteinemia

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23
Q

Target cells

A

Thalassemia (Hgb C disease)

Liver disease

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24
Q

Echinocytes (burr cells)

A

Uremia

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25
Classic cause of microcytic anemia with normal or elevated reticulocyte count?
Thalassemia/hemoglobinopathy (SCD)
26
4 causes of microcytic anemia with low reticulocyte count?
Iron deficiency Lead poisoning Sideroblastic anemia Anemia of chronic disease )some)
27
3 causes of normocytic anemia with normal or elevated reticulocyte count?
Acute blood loss Hemolytic Medications
28
5 causes of normocytic anemia with low reticulocyte count?
``` Cancer/dysplasia Anemia of chronic disease (some cases) Aplastic anemia/BM suppressing medications Endocrine failure (thyroid, pituitary) Renal failure ```
29
Rx thalassemia
Transfusions as needed | Iron chelation therapy to prevent secondary hemochromatosis
30
Dx G6P deficiency?
RBC enzyme assay (do not do immediately after hemolysis -> false negative possible)
31
Transfuse whole blood?
Rapid, massive blood loss or exchange transfusions (poisoning, TTP)
32
Packed RBCs?
Routine transfusions
33
Washed RBCs?
Free of traces of plasma, white cells, and platelets; good in IgA deficiency and for allergic/previously sensitized patients
34
Platelets?
Symptomatic thrombocytopenia (usually <10,000)
35
FFP?
Contains all clotting factors; used for bleeding diatheses when vitamin K will take too long or when it won't work (liver failure)
36
Crytoprecipitate?
Contains fibrinogen and factor 8; use in hemophilia, VW disease, and DIC
37
Genetic causes of clotting?
Factor V Leiden mutation (aka activated protein C resistance) Prothrombin G20210A mutation Hyperhomocysteinemia Elevated factor 8 Protein C, protein S, or antithrombin III deficiencies
38
Rx TTP?
Plasmapheresis; DO NOT GIVE PLATELETS
39
List the 4 classic types of hypersensitivity reactions.
1. Anaphylactic 2. Cytotoxic (pre-formed IgG and IgM Ab that react with an antigen) 3. Immune complex-mediated 4. Cell-mediated/delayed
40
What medication should be avoided in patients with nasal polyps?
Aspirin (can precipitate a severe asthma attack)
41
AR disorder characterized by giant granules in neutrophils, infections, and often oculoncutaneous albinism; cause?
Chediak-Higashi; microtubule polymerization
42
Recurrent infection with catalase-positive organisms; deficient nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction by granulocytes
CGD
43
Other medications used for PCP PPx when the patient is allergic to TMP-SMX?
Dapsone Aerosolized pentamidine Atovaquone
44
MAC PPx?
Clarithromycin or azithromcyin; rifabutin is an alternative
45
The risk of what type of blood cell cancer is increased in HIV?
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
46
Positive India ink?
Cryptococcus neoformans
47
Main organism + empiric Rx - UTI
E. coli TMP-SMX, nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, FQs
48
Main organism + empiric Rx - Bronchitis
Virus, H. influenzae, Moraxella Usually no ABX benefit; consider macrolides or doxycycline
49
Main organism + empiric Rx - pneumonia (classic)
S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae 3rd generation cephalosporin, azithromycin
50
Main organism + empiric Rx - pneumonia (atypical)
Mycoplasma, Chlamydia spp. Macrolide, doxycycline
51
Main organism + empiric Rx - ostemyelitis
S. aureus, Salmonella Oxacillin, cefazolin, vancomycin
52
Main organism + empiric Rx - cellulitis
Strep, staph Cephalexin or dicloxacillin TMP-SMX, doxy, or clinda often used because of MRSA
53
Main organism + empiric Rx - meningitis (neonate)
GBS, E. coli, Listeria Ampicillin + AG (gentamicin) +/- cefotaxime (3rd gen ceph) if GN organism is suspected
54
Main organism + empiric Rx - meningitis (child/adult)
S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis | Cefotaxmie or ceftriaxone + vancomycin
55
Main organism + empiric Rx - endocarditis (native valve)
Staph and Strep Oxacillin, nafcillin, vancomycin if allergic to penicillin + AG
56
Main organism + empiric Rx - endocarditis (prosthetic valve)
Numerous Vanc + gent + cefepime or carbapenem
57
Main organism + empiric Rx - sepsis
GN, strep, staph 3rd generation pencillin/cephalosporin + AG or Imipenem
58
Main organism + empiric Rx - septic arthritis
S. aureus (Vanc) GN bacilli (ceftazidime or cefriaxone) Gonococci (ceftriaxone, cipro)
59
Empiric ABX of choice + other choices - Strep A or B
Penicillin, cefazolin Erythromycin
60
Empiric ABX of choice + other choices - S. pneumoniae
3rd generation cephalosporin + vancomycin FQ
61
Empiric ABX of choice + other choices - enterococcus
Penicillin or ampicillin + AG Vanc + AG
62
Empiric ABX of choice + other choices - S. aureus
Methicillin, etc. Vanc, TMP-SMX, doxy, clinda, linezolid (MRSA)
63
Empiric ABX of choice + other choices - gonococcus
Ceftriaxone Cefixime or high-dose azithro followed by test of cure in 1 week
64
Empiric ABX of choice + other choices - meningococcus
Cefotaxime or ceftriaxone Chloramphenicol or penicillin G if proven to be penicillin susceptible
65
Empiric ABX of choice + other choices - Haemophilus
2nd or 3rd generation cephalosporin Amoxicillin
66
Empiric ABX of choice + other choices - Pseudomonas
Anti-pseudomonal pencillin (ticarcillin, piperacillin) +/- beta lactamase inhibitor (clavulanate, tazobactam) Ceftazidime, cefepime, atrezonam, imipenem, cipro
67
Empiric ABX of choice + other choices - Bacteroides
Metronidazole Clinda
68
Empiric ABX of choice + other choices - Mycoplasma
Erythro, azithro Doxy
69
Empiric ABX of choice + other choices - T. pallidum
Penicillin Doxycycline
70
Empiric ABX of choice + other choices - chlamydia
Doxy, azithro Erythro, ofloxacin
71
Empiric ABX of choice + other choices - Lyme
Cefuroxime, doxy, amox Erythro
72
Positive cold-agglutinin antibody titers in the setting of URI symptoms?
Mycoplasma pneumonia
73
Mycoplasma vs. chlamydial pneumonia
Chlamydial has negative cold-agglutinin Ab titers
74
Rx neurocysticercosis?
Albendazole or | praziquantel
75
Rx Legionella
Azithro or levo
76
How do you recognize rubella in children?
Milder than measles Low-grade fever, malaise, tender swelling of the suboccipital and postauritcular nodes Arthrlagias After a 2-3 day prodrome, faint maculopapuler rash appears on fash and neck, spreads to trunk
77
Rx RMSF (2/2 Rickettsia ricketsii)
Doxy Chloramphenicol is a second choice
78
Non-tender erythematous lesions on plasma and soles?
Janeway lesions Endocarditis -> infectious symptoms, new-onset heart murmur, embolic phenomena, Osler nodes, Roth spots, septic shock
79
Which types of bacterial meningitis require ABX prophylaxis in contacts?
N. meningitidis (rifampin, cipro, ceftriaxone, or azithro) and H. influenzae (rifampin)
80
Rx diphtheria?
Antitoxin and either penicillin or erythro
81
Rx pertussis?
Azithro or erythro
82
TB Rx - exposed adult with negative PPD skin test
None
83
TB Rx - exposed child < 5 y/o with negative PPD
INH for 3 months, then repeat PPD
84
Prophylaxis for PPD conversion (negative to positive) with no active disease
INH for 9 months
85
Distinguish between HUS and HSP in children.
HUS: preceding diarrhea, low RBC and platelet counts, hemolysis HSP: preceding URI, normal RBC and platelet counts, may have rash, abdominal pain, arthritis, melena
86
When are steroids given in GBS?
NEVER
87
What causes an EMG study with no muscle activity at rest and decreased amplitude of muscle contraction upon stimulation?
Intrinsic muscle disease such as muscular dystrophies or inflammatory myopathies
88
L upper quadrant anopsia?
R optic radiations in R temporal lobe
89
L lower upper quadrant anopsia?
R optic radiations from parietal lobe