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BIO CHEM 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Amino acids sequence in DNA can be determined by the order of their

rRNA
tRNA
Nucleotides
mRNA

A

Nucleotides

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2
Q

Which of the following is a Sanger’s reagent?

asd1-fluoro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene
dfsd1-fluoro-2, 3-dinitrobenzene
gh1-fluoro-2, 4-trinitrobenzene
jut1-fluoro-2, 3-trinitrobenzene

A

asd1-fluoro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene

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3
Q

The amino acid sequences of thousands of different proteins from many species have been determined using principles first developed by

Edman
Sanger
Mendel
Watson and Crick

A

Sanger

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4
Q

Which of the following compound is not involved in Edman degradation?

Phenylisothiocyanate
CF3COOH
FDNB
Phenylthiocarbonyl

A

FDNB

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5
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

Oxidation of cysteine residue with performic acid is done to break disulfide bond in proteins

Reduction of cysteine residue with dithiothreitol is done to break disulfide bond in proteins

Reduction of cysteine residue with performic acid is done to break disulfide bond in proteins

Reduced cysteine is further acetylated by iodoacetate

A

Reduction of cysteine residue with performic acid is done to break disulfide bond in proteins

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6
Q

Cleaving of peptide chain is done by

Trypsin
Tyrosine
Tryptophan
Arginine

A

Trypsin

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7
Q

Which of the following is the correct order of sequencing?

Cleaving, sequencing and ordering
Sequencing, ordering and cleaving
Ordering, cleaving and sequencing
Ordering, sequencing and cleaving

A

Cleaving, sequencing and ordering

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8
Q

Edman degradation is used for

Identifying N-terminal amino acids
Identifying C-terminal amino acids
Identifying amino acid
Identifying carbohydrates

A

Identifying N-terminal amino acids

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9
Q

What best summarizes the MALDI method by which gas phase ions are produced for mass spectrometry?

Sample is hit by a low energy xenon beam.

Sample is forced through a narrow capillary tube and solvent rapidly evaporates.

Sample is embedded in a crystalline matrix and bombarded by laser beams.

Sample is heated and then bombarded by electrons

A

Sample is embedded in a crystalline matrix and bombarded by laser beams.

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10
Q

Which of the following is Edman reagent?

Phenylisothiocyanate
CF3COOH
FDNB
Phenylthiocarbonyl

A

Phenylisothiocyanate

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11
Q

Which of the following does not affect the stability of a α-helix?

Electrostatic repulsion
Bulkiness
Interaction between R groups spaced three residues apart
Occurrence of alanine and glycine residues

A

Occurrence of alanine and glycine residues

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12
Q

Which of the following is not true about secondary protein structure?

The hydrophilic/hydrophobic character of amino acid residues is important to secondary structure.

The ability of peptide bonds to form intramolecular hydrogen bonds is important to secondary structure.

The alpha helix, beta pleated sheet and beta turns are examples of protein secondary structure.

The steric influence of amino acid residues is important to secondary structure.

A

The hydrophilic/hydrophobic character of amino acid residues is important to secondary structure.

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13
Q

pleated sheets are the examples of

Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

A

Secondary structure

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14
Q

A coiled peptide chain held in place by hydrogen bonding between peptide bonds in the same chain is

Primary structure
α-helix
β-pleated sheets
Tertiary structure

A

α-helix

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15
Q

A structure that has hydrogen bonds between polypeptide chains arranged side by side is

Primary structure
α-helix
β-pleated sheets
Tertiary structure

A

β-pleated sheets

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16
Q

Which of the following are known as helix breakers?

Proline and glycine
Isoleucine and leucine
Valine
Threonine

A

Proline and glycine

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17
Q

Which of the following is false about NMR spectroscopy?

NMR is an abbreviated form of Nuclear Magnetic Resonance

The intramolecular magnetic field around an atom in a molecule changes the resonance frequency giving structural information about the atom

The intermolecular magnetic field around an atom in a molecule changes the resonance frequency giving structural information about the atom

It is a technique that exploits magnetic properties of atomic nuclei

A

The intermolecular magnetic field around an atom in a molecule changes the resonance frequency giving structural information about the atom

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18
Q

Which of the statements is false about multiple sequence alignment?

Both protein and nucleic acid secondary structures can be used

More useful in RNA

These alignments can be made more accurate by the inclusion of secondary structure information

A significant increase in accuracy

A

More useful in RNA

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19
Q

Secondary structure is defined by

Hydrogen bonding
Vander Waals forces
Covalent bonding
Ionic bonding

A

Hydrogen bonding

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20
Q

Which of the following is false statement?

α-Keratin is α helical
Collagen is α helical
Hemoglobin has a quaternary structure
α-Keratin is β pleated structure

A

α-Keratin is β pleated structure

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21
Q

Fibroin is rich in

Alanine and Glycine
Alanine
Glycine
Pro

A

Alanine and Glycine

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22
Q

Which of the following bonds are not involved in tertiary type of protein structure?

Disulfide bond
Hydrogen bonding
Salt bridges
Hydrophilic interactions

A

Hydrophilic interactions

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23
Q

Which of the following does not possess a quaternary structure?

Myoglobin
Lactate dehydrogenase
Immunoglobin M
Creatine Phospho Kinase

A

Myoglobin

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24
Q

Which of the following is abundantly found in collagen?

Glycine
Serine
Alanine
Tryptophan

A

Glycine

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25
Which of the following is first determined as oligomer? Myoglobin Collagen Keratin Hemoglobin
Hemoglobin
26
Which of the following is false? Lysozyme has S-S linkage Ribonuclease has S-S linkage Heme group in cytochrome c is covalently linked to the protein on two sides Ribonuclease has SH-SH linkage
Ribonuclease has SH-SH linkage
27
Which of the following enzyme is secreted by the pancreas? Ribonuclease Lysozyme Cytochrome c Myoglobin
Ribonuclease
28
Which of the following is a component of mitochondria? Ribonuclease Lysozyme Cytochrome c Myoglobin
Cytochrome c
29
Which of the following serves as bactericidal agent? Ribonuclease Lysozyme Cytochrome c Myoglobin
Lysozyme
30
Which of the following is false about fibrous protein? It is in rod or wire like shape Keratin and collagen are the best examples Hemoglobin is the best example It provides structural support for cells and tissues
Hemoglobin is the best example
31
Which of the following forces is favorable for protein folding? Hydrophobic interactions Hydrogen bonding Vander Waals forces Ionic bonding
Hydrophobic interactions
32
A process by which a protein structure assumes its functional shape or conformation is Denaturing Folding Synthesis Hydrolysis
Folding
33
Process of folding does not depend on Concentration of salts pH Solute Solvent
Solute
34
Which of the following cannot denature a protein? Iodoacetic acid SDS detergent Urea Heating to 90°C
Iodoacetic acid
35
Which of the following is a function of chaperone protein? It degrades proteins that have folded improperly It provide a template for how the proteins should fold It rescues proteins that have folded improperly and allows them to refold properly It degrades proteins that have folded properly
It rescues proteins that have folded improperly and allows them to refold properly
36
As folding progresses which of the following does not take place? Entropy decreases Amount of protein in native state increases Free energy increases Amount of protein in native state decreases
Amount of protein in native state decreases
37
Which of the following are chaperons in E.coli? Hsp70 Hsp40 DnaA DnaK and DnaJ
DnaK and DnaJ
38
Which of the following about spontaneous folding is false? It involves initial formation of highly compact structure It involves initial formation of a local secondary structure It is essentially a random process It may be defective in some human diseases
It is essentially a random process
39
Protein A will fold into its native state only when protein B is also present in the solution. However protein B can fold itself into native confirmation without the presence of protein A. Which of the following is true? Protein B serves as precursor for protein A Protein B serves as molecular chaperon for protein A Protein B serves as ligand for protein A Protein B serves as structural motif for protein A
Protein B serves as precursor for protein A
40
Which of the following is true about ribonucease? Native state which is catalytically inactive is denatured Unfolded state is inactive Renatured ribonuclease is inactive Renaturation involves reestablishment of the correct disulfide cross links
Native state which is catalytically inactive is denatured
41
Which of the following is false? Heme consists of a complex organic ring structure, protoporphyrin Protoporphyrin is bound to a single iron atom in its Fe3+ state Iron atom has 6 coordination bonds Heme is found in a number of oxygen transporting proteins
Protoporphyrin is bound to a single iron atom in its Fe3+ state
42
Myoglobin is particularly abundant in Nerves Muscles Blood cells Skin
Muscles
43
His93 is also called His F8 His F7 His F6 His F5
His F8
44
Which of the following is a correct relation? Ka [L] = [PL] ⁄ [P] Ka [L] = [P] ⁄ [PL] Ka [L] = [PL] × [P]. Ka [PL] = [L] ⁄ [P]
Ka [L] = [PL] ⁄ [P]
45
Which of the following is a correct relation? Kd [L] = [PL] ⁄ [P] Kd [L] = [P] ⁄ [PL] Kd [L] = [PL] × [P]. Kd [PL] = [L] ⁄ [P]
Kd [L] = [PL] ⁄ [P]
46
Myoglobin binding of O2 depends on Hemoglobin concentration O2 concentration and affinity of myoglobin for O2 Ka Kd
O2 concentration and affinity of myoglobin for O2
47
47. In the binding of oxygen to myoglobin, the relationship between the concentration of oxygen and the fraction of binding sites occupied can best be described as: Hyperbolic Linear with a negative slope Linear with a positive slope Parabolic
Hyperbolic
48
Myoglobin and the subunits of hemoglobin have: Very different primary and tertiary structures Very similar primary and tertiary structures Very similar primary structures, but different tertiary structures Very similar tertiary structures, but different primary structures
Very similar tertiary structures, but different primary structures
49
The interactions of ligands with proteins are: Relatively nonspecific Relatively rare in biological systems Usually irreversible Usually transient
Usually transient
50
When oxygen binds to a heme-containing protein, the two open coordination bonds of Fe2+ are occupied by: One O atom and one amino acid atom One O2 molecule and one amino acid atom One O2 molecule and one heme atom Two O atoms
One O2 molecule and one amino acid atom
51
Which of the following is not the function of helper T cells is Produce soluble signaling proteins called cytokines, which include the interleukins They help activate cytotoxic T cells to kill infected target cells They help activate B cells to secrete antibodies and macrophages to destroy ingested microbes They recognize and bind extracellular ligands
They recognize and bind extracellular ligands
52
Which of the following is a function of Macrophages? Ingest large particles and cells by phagocytes Produce and secrete antibodies Interact with infected host cells through receptors on T-cell surface Interact with macrophages and secrete cytokines
Ingest large particles and cells by phagocytes
53
Which of the following is a function of B lymphocytes? Ingest large particles and cells by phagocytes Produce and secrete antibodies Interact with infected host cells through receptors on T-cell surface Interact with macrophages and secrete cytokines
Produce and secrete antibodies
54
Which of the following is a function of T lymphocytes? Ingest large particles and cells by phagocytes Produce and secrete antibodies Interact with infected host cells through receptors on T-cell surface Interact with macrophages and secrete cytokines
Interact with infected host cells through receptors on T-cell surface
55
The most abundant immunoglobulin is IgA IgE IgG IgM
IgG
56
Which of the following is the largest immunoglobulin? IgA IgE IgG IgM
IgM
57
The antibody present in secretions like tears and saliva is IgA IgE IgG IgM
IgA
58
Which of the following antibody first reaches the site of infection? IgA IgE IgG IgM
IgM
59
Where do T-lymphocytes develop into fully competent but not activated T-cells? The thymus gland The lymph nodes The thyroid gland The bone marrow
The thymus gland
60
Which of the following is true? Most of the antibodies recognize small organic molecules Most of the antibodies recognize proteins Monoclonal antibodies produced in the laboratory lack the constant regions of IgG IgM is a pentamer with 10 antigen binding sites
Most of the antibodies recognize proteins
61
IgG consists of A light chain and two heavy chains joined by disulfide bond Two light chains and a heavy chain joined by disulfide bond Two light chains and two heavy chains joined by disulfide bond Two light chains and two heavy chains joined by hydrogen bond
Two light chains and two heavy chains joined by disulfide bond
62
Which of the following is a true statement? IgG is involved in primary immune response IgM is involved in primary immune response IgG is involved only in secondary immune response IgG and IgM both are involved in primary immune response
IgG and IgM both are involved in primary immune response
63
The primary antibody of exocrine secretions is IgA IgE IgG IgM
IgA
64
Which of the following is not a feature of secondary immune respone to an antigen when compared to the first immune response to the same antigen? Antibody is generated without T-cell help Antibody is generated fast Antibody produced has greater affinity for the antigen Much antibody is produced
Antibody is generated without T-cell help
65
Which of the following presents antigenic peptide to T-cells in order to initiate an adaptive immune response? Plasma cell Dendrite cell Neutrophil Epithelial cell
Plasma cell
66
Light band has which of the following filament protein? Actin Myosin Actin and myosin None of these
Actin
67
Contractile protein of a muscle is Troponin Myosin Tubulin Tropomyosin
Myosin
68
Which of the following contractile protein of skeletal muscle involve in ATPase activity? Troponin Myosin Tubulin Tropomyosin
Myosin
69
The cross bridges involved in muscle contraction are located on the Myosin myofilaments Actin myofilaments Tropomyosin Dystrophin
Myosin myofilaments
70
The contractile unit consisting of bundles of thick filaments interleaved at either end with those of thin filaments is Myofibril Cross bridges Z band Sarcomere
Sarcomere
71
Sarcomere is a part between 2 I bands 2 Z bands 2 A bands 2 H bands
2 Z bands
72
Which of the following is the smallest division? Actin Fiber Fibril Filament
Actin
73
Which of the following is false? Actin is a thin filament Myosin is a thick filament The band in a myofibril is an area of thin filament Functional unit of muscle is sarcomere
The band in a myofibril is an area of thin filament
74
The connective tissue that surrounds individual fibers is Fascia Epimysium Endomysium Perimysium
Endomysium
75
Which of the following is an invagination of the muscle cell’s sarcolemma? Cisternae Microtubules T tubules Sarcoplasmic reticula
T tubules
76
Which of the following is true about Michaelis-Menten kinetics? Km, the Michaelis constant, is defined as that concentration of substrate at which enzyme is working at maximum velocity It describes single substrate enzymes Km, the Michaelis constant is defined as the dissociation constant of the enzyme-substrate complex It assumes covalent binding occurs between enzyme and substrate
It describes single substrate enzymes
77
When the velocity of enzyme activity is plotted against substrate concentration, which of the following is obtained? Hyperbolic curve Parabola Straight line with positive slope Straight line with negative slope
Hyperbolic curve
78
Which of the following is the correct Line weaver-Burk equation?
check pdf copy
79
Which of the following statements is true about competitive inhibitors? It is a common type of irreversible inhibition In the presence of a competitive inhibitor, the Michaelis-Menten equation becomes The apparent Km decreases in the presence of inhibitor by a factor α The maximum velocity for the reaction decreases in the presence of a competitive inhibitor
The apparent Km decreases in the presence of inhibitor by a factor α check pdf
80
Which of the following statements is true about uncompetitive inhibitors? They bind covalently at a site distinct from the substrate active site In the presence of a uncompetitive inhibitor, the Michaelis-Menten equation becomes They increase the measured Vmax⁡ Apparent Km also increases
In the presence of a uncompetitive inhibitor, the Michaelis-Menten equation becomes check pdf
81
The rate determining step of Michaelis-Menten kinetics is The complex dissociation step to produce products The complex formation step The product formation step None of the above
The complex dissociation step to produce products
82
The molecule which acts directly on an enzyme to lower its catalytic rate is Repressor Inhibitor Modulator Regulator
Inhibitor
83
Which of the following is an example for irreversible inhibitor? Disulfiram Oseltamivir Protease inhibitors DIPF
DIPF
84
Which of the following is an example of reversible inhibitor? DIPF Penicillin Iodoacetamide Protease inhibitors
Protease inhibitors
85
Where does inhibitor binds on enzyme in mixed inhibition? At active site Allosteric site Does not bind on enzyme Binds on substrate
Allosteric site
86
The catalytic efficiency of two distinct enzymes can be compared based on which of the following factor? Km Product formation Size of the enzymes pH of optimum value
Km
87
What is the general mechanism of an enzyme? It acts by reducing the activation energy It acts by increasing the activation energy It acts by decreasing the pH It acts by increasing the pH
It acts by reducing the activation energy
88
By what factor chymotrypsin enhances the rate of peptide bond hydrolysis? 107 108 At least 109 106
At least 109
89
The active site of chymotrypsin consists of a catalytic triad of which of the following amino acid residues? Serine, histidine and aspartate Serine, histidine and glutamate Threonine, histidine and aspartate Methionine, histidine and aspartate
Serine, histidine and aspartate
90
Which of the following statements are true about the reactions at the active center of chymotrypsin? The aspartate residue gives an electron to histidine The aspartate residue gives a proton to histidine The aspartate residue keeps the histidine in the correct direction A proton moves from the aspartate to serine to histidine in the catalytic triad of chymotrypsin
the aspartate residue keeps the histidine in the correct direction
91
The polypeptide chains in chymotrypsin are linked by Hydrogen bonds Ionic bonds Disulfide bond SH-SH bond
Disulfide bond
92
Which of the following is false about chymotrypsin? Hydrolytic cleavage of a peptide bond by chymotrypsin has two phases It is activated in the presence of trypsin It is synthesized in the thyroid gland Polypeptide chains in chymotrypsin are linked by S-S bonds
it is synthesized in the thyroid gland
93
Which of the following is true about the structure of hexokinase? U-shaped T-shaped E-shaped G-shaped
U-shaped
94
Which of the following is true? Xylose is stereo chemically similar to glucose but one carbon shorter Xylose binds to hexokinase in a position where it can be phosphorylated Addition of xylose increases the rate of ATP hydrolysis The binding of xylose is sufficient to induce a change in hexokinase to its active conformation
Xylose binds to hexokinase in a position where it can be phosphorylated
95
Which of the following catalyzes the reversible degradation of 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate? Chymotrypsin Hexokinase Enolase Trypsin
Enolase
96
Which of the following catalyzes the reversible reaction of β-D-Glucose to glucose 6-phosphate? Chymotrypsin Hexokinase Enolase Trypsin
Hexokinase
97
Which of the following is false about lysozyme? It is an antibacterial agent found in tears and egg white The substrate of lysozyme is peptidoglycan Lysozyme cleaves (β1 → 4) glycosidic C-O bonds between two types of sugar residue in the molecule NAM and NAG It is a bisubstrate enzyme
It is a bisubstrate enzyme
98
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BIO CHEM (10 decks)

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