8.2: Gene expression Flashcards

(43 cards)

1
Q

What are stem cells

A

undiffentiated cells that continuously divide

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2
Q

What are the five types of stem cells

A

totipotent
pluripotent
multipotent
unipotent
induced pluripotent stem cells (iPS)

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3
Q

What are totipotent stem cells

A

can differentiate into any type of cell

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4
Q

What are pluripotent stem cells

A

can differentiate into any type of cell except placental cells

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5
Q

What are multipotent stem cells and give an example in bone marrow

A

can differentiate into a limited number of specialised cells, found in adult tissue which usually produce the same type of cell. Bone marrow produces any type of blood cell

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6
Q

What are unipotent stem cells and give an example related to cardiac

A

can only differentiate into a single type of cells. Cardiomyocyte (cardiac muscle cell)

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7
Q

What are induced pluripotent stem cells

A

a type of pluripotent stem cell that is produced from unipotent stem cells. These cells are genetically altered in a lab by “switching on” the genes and transcriptional factors that were “switched off” to make them specialised.

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8
Q

What is common about somatic cells

A

all somatic cells are genetically identical

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9
Q

What happens when cells differentiate and how does this happen

A

cells differentiate - become specialised to perform specific functions
this is due to different genes either being expressed or silenced

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10
Q

What are 3 ways gene expression can be controlled by

A

1- Regulating transcription
2- Regulating translation
3- Epigenetics

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11
Q

What region of a gene regulates expression

A

Promoter region

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12
Q

What are transcription factors

A

proteins that bind to the promoter region of a gene which allows RNA polymerase to bind to the gene and initiate transcription. These can be activated/inhibited by other molecules

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13
Q

Explain the process of a transcription factor binding to a gene

A

Oestrogen (lipid soluble) diffuses across the phospholipid bilayer and attaches to the receptor site on the transcription factor (TF), this causes the TF to change shape (change in tertiary structure), the DNA binding site on the TF is now complementary in shape to the DNA sequence on the promoter region TF IS NOW ACTIVATED. TF moves into the nucleus through the nuclear pores and attaches to the promoter region. This allows RNA polymerase to attach to the gene and initiate transcription -> gene is expressed

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14
Q

What would happen if a transcription factor were to not bind to its gene

A

without the binding of a TF, the gene is inactive and so the protein won’t be made (as transcription cannot occur)

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15
Q

Explain the process of the regulation of translation

A

mRNA is copied to make double stranded RNA (dsRNA), the dsRNA is then cut by an enzyme to make several molecules of small interfering RNA (siRNA). An enzyme joins to the siRNA and converts it to single stranded siRNA, this guides the enzyme to a (complementary) target sequence on the mRNA molecule (that is in excess), the two join by complementary base pairing, the enzyme hydrolyses phosphodiester bonds in the mRNA (cuts up the mRNA, therefore mRNA cannot attach to ribosome, cannot translate entire sequence) and so translation cannot occur

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16
Q

What is oestrogen

A

a steroid hormone that initiates transcription

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17
Q

What is epigenetics/what does it involve

A

epigenetics involves heritable changes in gene function, without changes to the base sequence of DNA, these changes are caused by changes in the environment by increase/decrease of methylation of the DNA/acetylation of associated histones

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18
Q

With relation to epigenetics, what are the two factors that causes genes to be silenced/switched off

A

methylation of DNA
deacetylation of histones

19
Q

With relation to epigenetics, what are the two factors that causes genes to be expressed/switched on

A

demethylation of DNA
acetylation of histones

20
Q

Explain how methyl groups affect genes

A

Methyl groups attach to the cytosine base in DNA, preventing the transcription factor from binding. As the methyl group is slightly positive, it attracts proteins that condense the DNA-histone complex, and so there is no space for the transcription factor to bind onto. Preventing this section of DNA from being transcribed and so causing genes to be silenced/switched off

21
Q

Explain how acetyl groups affect genes

A

When acetyl groups are removed, the histones become more positive and so more attracted to the negative phosphate group on DNA, therefore DNA and histones are more strongly associated, leads to increased coiling, and so no space for the transcription factor to bind onto. Preventing this section of DNA from being transcribed and so causing genes to be silenced/switched off

22
Q

what is the name for chromatin when it is more condensed

A

heterochromatin

23
Q

what is heterochromatin

A

chromatin when it is more condensed

24
Q

what is the name for chromatin when it is less condensed

25
what is euchromatin
chromatin when it is less condensed
26
Describe the difference between an individual's DNA base sequence and an individual's epigenome
an individual's DNA base sequence is fixed, natural selection is responsible for changing allele frequencies. An individual's epigenome is flexible, chemical tags (methyl, acetyl) respond to environmental changes such as diet and stress etc
27
What two genes are involved in the control of the cell cycle
proto-oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes
28
Describe the function of proto-oncogenes
they code for proteins that promote the progression of the cell cycle: - initiate DNA replication - stimulate cell division & differentiation - inhibit apoptosis (cell death)
29
Describe the function of tumour suppressor genes
they code for proteins that inhibit the progression of the cell cycle: - bind to transcription factors inhibiting them - inhibit DNA replication - inhibit cell division - stimulate apoptosis (cell death)
30
How is a tumour formed
from the uncontrolled cell division of mutated cells
31
What are the two types of tumour
benign and malignant
32
What are the differences between benign and malignant tumours
Benign grow in one place, don't spread, grow slowly, are surrounded by a capsule, and are non-cancerous Malignant have cells which can break off and spread around the body (metastasis), grow rapidly, are not surrounded by a capsule, and are cancerous - spread to other tissues forming secondary tumours
33
what are the differences in surgery between benign and malignant tumours
benign - surgery malignant - surgery, chemotherapy/radiotherapy
34
What two gene mutations leads to tumour development
mutation in the proto-oncogene and/or tumour suppressor gene
35
What do proto-oncogenes mutate into and explain what happens and how
When proto-oncogenes mutate into oncogenes they are permanently activated, this results in increased production of the proteins that stimulate DNA replication & cell division. This may be caused by demethylation of the promoter region of these genes (hypomethylation)
36
What do tumour suppressor genes mutate into and explain what happens and how
the mutation of tumour suppressor genes leads to their inactivation/silencing. This results in decreased production of the proteins that inhibit cell division and promote apoptosis (and so mutated cells are not identified and destroyed). This can be caused by methylation of the promoter region of these genes (hypermethylation)
37
Explain how oestrogen-dependent breast tumours develop
At menopause, oestrogen production ceases from ovaries and begins from breast tissue. Excess oestrogen can cause over-expression of proto-oncogenes in breast tissue, and so there is increased cell division, therefore increased number of breast tissue cells, and so increased oestrogen production hence positive feedback mechanism. Increased probability that mutations will occur within these cells. Once a tumour develops within the breast tissue, a positive feedback mechanism leads to the growth of the tumour.
38
Explain the process by which a positive feedback mechanism leads to the growth of an oestrogen dependent breast tumour
Oestrogen binds to transcription factors called ERa. ERa transcription factor regulates expression of the gene that codes for the ERa transcription factor, therefore ERa directly regulates the expression of its own gene, and so resulting in a positive feedback loop.
39
What are 4 treatments for oestrogen dependent breast cancer
1- Enzyme inhibition 2- Inhibit the ERa transcription factor 3- siRNAs 4- monoclonal antibodies
40
Explain how enzyme inhibition is a treatment for oestrogen dependent breast cancer
synthesis of oestrogen is catalysed by an enzymes, drugs are used to inhibit this enzyme and so prevent synthesis of oestrogen
41
Explain how inhibiting the ERa transcription factor is a treatment for oestrogen dependent breast cancer
Tamoxifen has a similar shape to oestrogen, and permanently binds to the ERa transcription factor in tumour cells, and so oestrogen cannot bind reducing the production of regulatory proteins in the cell cycle and so inhibiting growth of the tumour
42
Explain how the use of siRNAs is a treatment for oestrogen dependent breast cancer
Drugs that use siRNAs prevent the translation of oncogenes, and so prevents production of proteins such as growth factors, growth factor receptors, regulatory proteins. This could also be used to treat non-oestrogen dependent breast cancers
43
Explain how monoclonal antibodies is a treatment for oestrogen dependent breast cancer
Herceptin binds to the growth factor receptor on the cell surface membrane of breast tumour cells, preventing the growth factor from binding and so prevents expression of oncogenes