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PMP - Study Guide > Planning Test 2 > Flashcards

Planning Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Competing constraints include

Schedule
Budget
Resources
All of the above

A

All of the above

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2
Q

During the planning phase, auditors review processes and procedures and help control how they are implemented. Project ______ can have unforeseen effects on timely completion.

results
risks
ethics
approach

A

risks

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3
Q

Which of the following documents is a very sensitive document that must not be shared outside the project management team?

Stakeholder engagement plan
Communication management plan
Change management plan
Scope management plan

A

Stakeholder engagement plan

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4
Q

The below organizational process assets are inputs to the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process. Which of the following organizational process assets is of particular importance to this process?

Templates
Policies and procedures
Configuration management knowledge base
Lessons learned from past similar projects

A

Lessons learned from past similar projects

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5
Q

Which of the following indicates project stakeholders current and desired engagement levels?

Stakeholder register
Stakeholder assessment matrix
Power/influence grid
Salience model

A

Stakeholder assessment matrix

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6
Q

Stakeholder engagement levels include:

Aggressive
Passive
Supportive
Risky

A

Supportive

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7
Q

When a project manager participates in networking, connections, and alliances, they are exhibiting

Relational power
Persuasive power
Ingratiating power
Personal power

A

Relational power

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8
Q

Another name for positional power for project managers is

informal
formal
expert
punitive

A

formal

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9
Q

The ability to understand and manage people is an example of what type of personality trait?

Social
Systemic
Political
Managerial

A

Social

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10
Q

The imposition of obligation or sense of duty by the project manager is an example of what type of power?

Guilt-based
Avoiding
Persuasive
Ingratiating

A

Guilt-based

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11
Q

The ability to invoke discipline is an example of what kind of power?

Guilt-based
Reward-oriented
Referent
Punitive

A

Punitive

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12
Q

The use of flattery is an example of what type of power?

Pressure-based
Ingratiating
Avoiding
Referent

A

Ingratiating

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13
Q

The ability to think abstractly and to innovate is an example of what personality trait?

Authentic
Cultural
Creative
Political

A

Creative

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14
Q

When the project manager explains the essential business aspects of a project they are exhibiting

technical project management skills
leadership skills
strategic and business management skills
control feedback

A

strategic and business management skills

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15
Q

A _______ would be a subsidiary plan included in the project management plan

project control plan
risk management plan
project scope statement
project charter

A

risk management plan

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16
Q

In Develop Project Management Plan, expert judgment is used to

tailor the process
develop technical details
determine resources
all of the above

A

tailor the process
develop technical details
determine resources
all of the above are correct.

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17
Q

Enterprise Environmental Factors used in developing the Project Management Plan include:

governmental standards
risk register
quality management
all of the above

A

governmental standards

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18
Q

The Project Management Plan documents planning process outputs, such as

how changes will be monitored and controlled.
communication techniques among stakeholders.
how work will be executed to accomplish objectives.
all of the above.

A

how changes will be monitored and controlled.
communication techniques among stakeholders.
how work will be executed to accomplish objectives.
all of the above are correct.

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19
Q

What document defines how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled?

T & M contract
The WBS
The Project Management Plan
SPI

A

The Project Management Plan

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20
Q

Project files containing project scope, cost, schedule, and performance baselines are part of the organizational processes and procedures used for

developing histograms
avoiding risk
developing the project management plan
none of the above

A

developing the project management plan

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21
Q

Which of the following is not a tailoring consideration in Project Integration Management?

Change
Governance
The cost baseline
Benefits

A

The cost baseline

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22
Q

The project scope statement

details the needs of the project.
is a statement of ‘what needs to be done’.
states the project objective.
defines the potential risks that might deter success.

A

is a statement of ‘what needs to be done’.

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23
Q

Tools and techniques used to define scope include

product review.
expert judgment.
alternative factors.
all of the above.

A

expert judgment.

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24
Q

A work package is

a risk-mitigating component of the WBS.
A group of work components performed during the course of a project.
a document that defines and describes each component in the WBS.
a project work component at the lowest level of the WBS.

A

a project work component at the lowest level of the WBS.

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25
Q

What Define Scope output details the project’s deliverables and the work required to create the deliverables?

The project charter.
The project boundaries.
The project scope statement.
The project scope management plan.

A

The project scope statement.

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26
Q

When developing the product scope description, the project management team must

describe deliverables at a summary level or greater detail.
define the process and criteria for accepting products.
list and describe specific project constraints associated with the project scope that limit options toward product development.
provide sufficient detail to support later project scope planning.

A

provide sufficient detail to support later project scope planning.

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27
Q

Items in the project scope statement include

The scope baseline.
The WBS dictionary.
the WBS.
Project constraints.

A

Project constraints.

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28
Q

A project manager uses the WBS

To see how planned activities are related to overall performance.
To see how planned activities are related to overall budgeting and scheduling.
To see who is responsible for designated planned activities.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

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29
Q

Project Requirements can include

security requirements.
business requirements.
technical requirements.
all of the above.

A

all of the above.

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30
Q

Scheduled work, cost estimates, and work to be monitored and controlled, are contained in

the WBS dictionary.
the lowest level WBS components.
work performance reports.
the scope baseline.

A

the lowest level WBS components.

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31
Q

Imposed dates for specific activity completion or project deliverables are called

completion dates.
schedule activities.
schedule milestones.
delivery date.

A

schedule milestones.

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32
Q

Components of the scope baseline include:

SBS
WBS dictionary
Product scope
none of the above

A

WBS dictionary

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33
Q

The project scope baseline contains

the initial WBS.
Capital investment control.
Human resources
Project procedures.

A

the initial WBS.

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34
Q

A WBS is

A hierarchy that defines and organizes project work.
A technique for evaluating a component or product during a project phase.
A common approach to implementing a quality improvement project program.
A contractual component that designates how activity time and materials are used throughout the duration of the project.

A

A hierarchy that defines and organizes project work.

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35
Q

Resources used to define scope include:

consultants
stakeholders
industry groups
all of the above

A

all of the above

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36
Q

Requirements documentation includes

Quality requirements
Acceptance criteria
Training requirements
all of the above

A

all of the above

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37
Q

What type of sequence dependencies involve physical limitations, such as having to complete one activity before the next one can begin?

External.
Mandatory.
Internal.
Discretionary.

A

Mandatory.

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38
Q

The foundation has to be built before the house framing can begin. This is an example of

an external dependency.
soft or preferred logic.
hard logic.
discretionary dependency.

A

hard logic.

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39
Q

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is

Start-to-Start
Start-to-Finish
Finish-to-Start
Finish-to-Finish

A

Finish-to-Start

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40
Q

What type of precedence relationship is the most commonly used?

Start-to-Finish.
Finish-to-Start.
Start-to-Start.
Finish-to-Finish.

A

Finish-to-Start.

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41
Q

In Schedule Management, scaling factors to consider for agile environments include all except

team size
geographical distribution
regulatory compliance
industrial landscape

A

industrial landscape

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42
Q

Earned value, red-yellow-green, and percentage complete are examples of

progress tracking
product novelty
project complexity
pace

A

progress tracking

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43
Q

Types of dependencies, or precedence relationships, PDM uses include:

Start-to-Finish.
Beginning-to-Completion.
Start-to-Interval-to-End.
Start-to-Phase-to-Phase-to-Finish.

A

Start-to-Finish.

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44
Q

Inputs to Estimate Activity Durations include all except

Activity attributes
Change log
Assumptions log
Activity list

A

Change log

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45
Q

Discretionary dependencies usually

are based on best practices.
involve both project and non-project activities.
are referred to as hard logic.
never rely on historical project data.

A

are based on best practices.

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46
Q

Testing schedule activity software is dependent upon delivery of the hardware. Conducting an environmental impact study must be done before a project is constructed near a wetlands area. These are examples of

Soft logic dependencies.
Forgone dependencies.
External dependencies.
Internal dependencies.

A

External dependencies.

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47
Q

What helps to minimize scope creep?

Punitive measures
Lassiez-faire management
Task alignment
Time-boxing

A

Time-boxing

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48
Q

What characterizes the Start-to-Start dependency?

The successor activity depends on the initiation of the predecessor activity.
Initiation of the successor activity depends upon the completion of the predecessor activity.
Initiation of the successor activity depends upon the initiation of the predecessor activity.
Completion of the successor activity depends upon the completion of the predecessor activity.

A

Initiation of the successor activity depends upon the initiation of the predecessor activity.

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49
Q

What type of precedence relationship completion of the successor activity depends on the initiation of the predecessor activity?

Start-to-Finish.
Finish-to-Start.
Start-to-Start.
Finish-to-Finish.

A

Start-to-Finish.

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50
Q

Given a finish-to-start dependency, the project manger finds he has to build in a 28-day _____ period into the project schedule to ensure a concrete foundation has cured.

lead
gap
break
lag

A

lag

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51
Q

_______is/ are updated to include the defined logical relationships and any associated leads and lags.

The project schedule network diagrams
The activity list
Activity attributes
Requested changes

A

Activity attributes

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52
Q

What type of precedence relationship is the least used?

Start-to-Finish.
Finish-to-Start.
Start-to-Start.
Finish-to-Finish.

A

Start-to-Finish.

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53
Q

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity has finished is:

Start-to-Start
Start-to-Finish
Finish-to-Finish
Finish-to-Start

A

Finish-to-Finish

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54
Q

Tools and Techniques used in Estimate Activity Durations include all except

Associative estimating
Analagous estimating
Three-point estimating
Bottom-up estimating

A

Associative estimating

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55
Q

Tools used to sequence activities include:

PDM
frequency determination
sequence tags
all of the above

A

PDM

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56
Q

A Plan Quality Management technique that involves a group of members and general data gathering, used to identify risks or solutions, is

brainstorming.
decision-making.
analysis.
flowcharting.

A

brainstorming.

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57
Q

A Quality Management Plan may be

formal
informal
detailed
all of the above

A

all of the above

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58
Q

What quality planning technique helps optimize products and processes by identifying which factors may influence specific products or processes under development or production?

Performance designing.
Design of experiments.
Issue logging.
Design of experience.

A

design of experiments.

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59
Q

What quality planning technique creates a visual diagram of system process inputs, process actions, and outputs for a project?

Affinity diagramming.
Decision-making.
Analysis.
Flowcharting.

A

Flowcharting.

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60
Q

To be effective, a planned recognition and rewards system should be based on ________ under a person’s control.

activities and schedules
schedule and performance
activities and performance
behavior and activities

A

activities and performance

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61
Q

What should be considered when planning the acquisition of project team members?

Budget.
Available sources.
Internal and external assistance.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

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62
Q

______ determines the method and timing of releasing team members, to effect smooth project phase transitions, improve morale, and optimize time and budget.

Staff release plan
Schedule management
A timetable
Resource management

A

Staff release plan

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63
Q

The resource management plan must be updated

when roles and responsibilities change.
when there are changes in the project scope.
weekly.
after each project.

A

when roles and responsibilities change.

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64
Q

A RACI chart is

seldom used
used to ensure clear assignment of roles and responsibilities
only used on programs
is similar to a histogram

A

used to ensure clear assignment of roles and responsibilities

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65
Q

What is the purpose of having resource calendars?

To make changing the staffing management plan easier.
To improve cohesiveness within the team.
To update the project charter more effectively.
To create a reliable final schedule.

A

To create a reliable final schedule.

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66
Q

What information is contained in the communications management plan?

Information to be communicated.
General level of noise factors.
Required communication management skills.
Methods of reporting risk.

A

Information to be communicated.

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67
Q

A communication management plan can be:

formal
informal
detailed
all of the above

A

all of the above

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68
Q

_____ risks determines which risks might affect the project and documents their characteristics.

Identify
Analyze
Plan
Monitor and control

A

Identify

69
Q

______ contribute to the effectiveness and quality of risk identification

Risk categories
Budgeting factors
Budgeting categories
Roles and responsibilities

A

Risk categories

70
Q

What enterprise environmental factor inputs are used in Identify Risks?

Commercial databases.
Benchmark information.
Industry studies.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

71
Q

What organizational process assets are used in Identify Risks?

The project scope statement.
Previous project files.
Schedule and cost information.
Plans, assumptions, and constraints information.

A

Previous project files.

72
Q

The period of time that may elapse after a risk has occurred before its impact is discovered is

Urgency
Proximity
Connectivity
Dormancy

A

Dormancy

73
Q

The risk management plan includes

reasoning
methodology
cost
none of the above

A

methodology

74
Q

The ______ hierarchically organizes identified project risks arranged by risk category and subcategory that identifies the areas and causes of potential risks.

WBS
PBS
RRS
RBS

A

RBS

75
Q

The quality and credibility of the qualitative risk analysis process requires varying levels of the risk______

duration and significance to the project.
scope and degree.
probabilities and impacts.
significance and impact.

A

probabilities and impacts.

76
Q

The ______ scale reflects the significance of negative threats or positive opportunities on each project objective.

impact
relative impact
non-linear
impact matrix

A

impact

77
Q

The Probability and Impact Matrix chart is used

To determine the degree of risk impact compared to similar past project risk impacts.
To prioritize risks.
To see causes of risks.
To determine probability.

A

To prioritize risks.

78
Q

Risks are typically prioritized by

Time impact.
Potential time and cost expenditures.
Impact to project objectives.
organization’s and stakeholders’ criteria.

A

Impact to project objectives.

79
Q

The risk management plan reporting formats describe the ______ which defines how the outcomes of the process will be documented, analyzed, and communicated.

risk identification output
qualitative and quantitative analysis
scope of risk
content and format of the risk register

A

content and format of the risk register

80
Q

Who should be responsible for risk identification activities?

The project manager, project team members, and those responsible for directly managing project risks.
The organization and stakeholders.
Risk management experts.
All project personnel.

A

All project personnel.

81
Q

Risk identification is an iterative process because

it typically leads to risk response analysis
new risks become known as the project progresses.
it can be used in qualitative analysis.
it guarantees effective risk response.

A

new risks become known as the project progresses.

82
Q

A grid that maps the probability of each risk occurrence and its impact on project objectives if that risk occurs is:

impact
relative impact
probability and impact matrix
impact matrix

A

probability and impact matrix

83
Q

Cost-plus-incentive-fee contracts reimburse the seller for allowable costs for performing the contract work plus

a fixed percentage for meeting or exceeding contract requirements.
a graduated fee based on early schedule completion milestones.
a fee calculated as an agreed-upon percentage of costs.
a predetermined fee based on achieving certain performance objectives.

A

a predetermined fee based on achieving certain performance objectives.

84
Q

______ contracts involve payment to the seller for the seller’s actual costs, plus a fee, which typically represents the seller’s profit

Cost-plus
Lump sum
Fixed-price
Cost-reimbursable

A

Cost-reimbursable

85
Q

“Buy” decision analyses include both direct and indirect costs. The buy-side of the analysis includes

out of pocket costs to purchase
costs for risk analysis
cost avoidance
cost estimates

A

out of pocket costs to purchase

86
Q

______ contracts reimburse the seller for allowable costs for performing the contract work plus a fixed fee payment calculated as a percentage of the estimated project costs.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee.
Cost-plus-incentive-fee.
Cost-plus-percentage-of-cost-fee.
Time and materials

A

Cost-plus-fixed-fee.

87
Q

____ are “hard costs” that include labor, subcontractors, and materials

Project overhead
Company overhead
Direct costs
Indirect costs

A

Direct costs

88
Q

_______ contracts may include incentive clauses where the seller receives an incentive or bonus payment if project objectives are met or exceeded.

Cost-reimbursable
Cost-plus-incentive
Cost-plus-fixed price
Cost-plus

A

Cost-reimbursable

89
Q

A contract that only pays the majority of the fee based on satisfaction of certain broad subjective performance criteria is:

Time and materials
Cost plus award fee
Cost plus incentive fee
Cost plus fixed fee

A

Cost plus award fee

90
Q

Any project budget constraints are _____ the make-or-buy decision.

separate from
subtracted from
divisions of
factored into

A

factored into

91
Q

_______ contracts are hybrid contractual agreements that are combined cost-reimbursable and fixed-price contracts based on duration of performance and the exact quantity of items to be delivered.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee
Time and materials
Cost-plus-incentive-fee
Cost-plus-percentage-of-cost-fee

A

Time and materials

92
Q

Jack was in the process of creating the WBS for a project, when Joe informed him of some discrepancies he’d found in the scope statement. Jack agreed the scope was not properly defined and proceeded

with the SBS for the project, because the scope statement was already approved.
to speak with the project sponsor and customer about the gaps in the scope statement.
to create an informal proposal for a separate project, which would provide for the gap in the current project scope.
to include task recommendations by Joe in the WBS.

A

to speak with the project sponsor and customer about the gaps in the scope statement.

93
Q

The basic responsibilities of all managers are

controlling and monitoring.
planning and supervision.
communicating and organizing.
all of the above

A

all of the above

94
Q

“Good” objectives should be

flexible.
achievable.
abstract.
substantial.

A

achievable.

95
Q

Project managers are generally responsible for

team relations and details of project phases.
project performance and completion.
project assignments and delegation.
project technology and final documentation.

A

project performance and completion.

96
Q

Plans are characterized and classified according to their

function
duration
objectives
all of the above

A

all of the above

97
Q

What is the first step in developing an action planning model, or project plan?

Determine the people who should be involved in furthering the plan.
Identify the planning purpose and the direction of the plan.
Determine tasks to be done.
Develop a timeline for the planned operations and project.

A

Identify the planning purpose and the direction of the plan.

98
Q

Tailoring considerations in project scope management include

Validation and control
Limits and balances
Source management
The WBS

A

Validation and control

99
Q

The scope baseline includes

WBS
WBS dictionary
project scope statement
all of the above

A

all of the above

100
Q

The _________ is built upon the major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints

project scope statement
project charter
project scope control
product scope

A

project scope statement

101
Q

A tool used in creating the WBS is:

work histogram
composition
decomposition
decentralization

A

decomposition

102
Q

The project team uses scope definition techniques such as product breakdown, value engineering, and systems analyses

for stakeholder analyses.
to determine product scope.
for product analyses.
to determine project requirements.

A

for product analyses.

103
Q

The account where scope, budget, actual cost, and schedule are integrated at a management control point and compared to earned value to measure performance, is a

planning account.
control account.
performance account.
planning package.

A

control account.

104
Q

“Rolling wave planning” is

the interaction among the processes within the Planning Process.
progressive detailing of the project management plan.
the facilitation of activities across multiple processes.
the continual process of evaluation and refining the project scope.

A

progressive detailing of the project management plan.

105
Q

________ are tools and techniques used to define project scope.

Expert judgment and meetings
Templates, forms, and the scope baseline
The PMIS and baseline
Established monitoring and controls

A

Expert judgment and meetings

106
Q

What information is used to develop the project management plan and detailed project scope?

Historical information
Project charter information
The preliminary project scope statement
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

107
Q

The project charter and the stakeholder register are _____ for collect requirements.

risks
assets
outputs
inputs

A

inputs

108
Q

Brainstorming is a technique the management team uses to

identify stakeholder expectations and how to most effectively accomplish them.
determine the least risky methods and procedures in project execution.
develop feasibility, overcome constraints, and achieve assumptions.
generate alternative approaches to performing work and executing the project.

A

generate alternative approaches to performing work and executing the project.

109
Q

Based on project needs, the project scope management plan may be

formal or informal.
formal.
informal and concise.
formal and highly detailed.

A

formal or informal.

110
Q

The ________ addresses and documents project deliverables, boundaries, control, and acceptance

project charter
project plan
contract
project scope

A

project scope

111
Q

A ______ is a WBS planning component below the control account but above the work package, used for planning known work that does not have detailed activities

planning account.
control package.
performance account.
planning package.

A

planning package.

112
Q

The project scope management plan is intended to:

Help the management team define and document project scope.
provide guidance on how project scope should be managed and controlled.
enable the creation of the WBS.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

113
Q

The SOW references

business need
project stakeholders
tactical approach
merger expansion

A

business need

114
Q

An automaker building more fuel-efficient cars due to gas shortages is an example of what type of business case?

organizational need
customer request
market demand
ecological impacts

A

market demand

115
Q

What is a “precedence relationship?

A dependency.
The interaction that determines the logical successor activity.
The end result of the schedule network.
The result of a logical relationship.

A

A dependency.

116
Q

The activity list provides the project team members

a detailed description of the work to be completed
overlapping application areas
dependencies among schedule activities
activity risks

A

a detailed description of the work to be completed

117
Q

Activity attributes are used

To ensure project accuracy.
To establish risk milestones.
To develop the project schedule.
To decide begin and end project dates.

A

To develop the project schedule.

118
Q

The schedule model is also referred to as the

durations
dependencies
other planning information
all of the above

A

all of the above

119
Q

Project schedule management processes include:

define activities
sequence activities
estimate activity durations
all of the above

A

all of the above

120
Q

Activity attributes for each schedule activity can include the

time lag.
resource requirements.
person responsible for executing the work.
any of the above.

A

any of the above.

121
Q

Inputs to estimate activity durations include

activity charter
resource histogram
activity attributes
project document updates

A

activity attributes

122
Q

What distinguishes schedule activities from other milestones or deliverables?

They are ongoing.
They have an estimated duration and cost.
They measure schedule performance.
They involve software, which is used in conjunction with manual methods to perform schedule networks.

A

They have an estimated duration and cost.

123
Q

Which diagramming method uses four types of dependencies?

schedule network diagram template (SNT)
arrow diagramming method (ADM)
precedence diagramming method (PDM)
dependency diagramming network (DDN)

A

precedence diagramming method (PDM)

124
Q

Progressive elaboration planning, where short-term work is planned in detail and future work is planned as the project progresses, is

schedule control.
rolling wave planning.
scope planning.
progressive term planning.

A

rolling wave planning.

125
Q

The activity list includes the activity identifier and scope of work for each schedule activity. _______ is/are an example of the schedule activity’s scope of work.

In accordance with r905.82 of Residential Code, 2006.
Sheets 7 and 8 of 14
274 cy 2000psi concrete
All of the above

A

All of the above

126
Q

Decomposition applied to activity definition involves subdividing project work packages into

subsets.
units.
modules.
activities.

A

activities.

127
Q

Sequence activity outputs include updating the following project documents

activity list
activity attributes
assumption log
all of the above

A

all of the above

128
Q

What input is required to develop activity sequencing?

Activity attributes.
Work performance information.
Deliverables.
Schedule network templates.

A

Activity attributes.

129
Q

What impact does the project scope statement have on activity sequencing?

Product cost can add constraints.
Product characteristics can affect activity sequencing.
Imposed time can affect sequencing sub-activities.
Project risks can require more logical relationships.

A

Product characteristics can affect activity sequencing.

130
Q

Schedule activities are logically sequenced using

PDM
PMD
RDM
ADT

A

PDM

131
Q

What process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationship among schedule activities?

Precedence.
Dependency scheduling.
Activity sequencing.
Activity resource estimating.

A

Activity sequencing.

132
Q

A mandatory milestone is one that

is based on project requirements.
is based on historical information.
is required by the contract.
is used in the cost schedule.

A

is required by the contract.

133
Q

A general cost estimating rule is: When the project experiences a negative risk event, the cost of the project will almost always

require the schedule be expedited.
decrease and delay the schedule.
increase and delay the schedule.
increase which will require project or phase replanning.

A

increase and delay the schedule.

134
Q

______ are budgets that are not included in the project cost baseline, but are included in the budget for unplanned changes to the project scope and cost

Management reserves
Parametric reserves
Cost aggregation allowances
Funding reconciliation accounts

A

Management reserves

135
Q

Cost budgeting involves

Identification of various costing alternatives.
Aggregating estimated costs of work packages for a cost baseline.
Monitoring impacts to cost and managing changes.
Estimating how to obtain the most productivity for the least capital outlay.

A

Aggregating estimated costs of work packages for a cost baseline.

136
Q

Schedule activity duration estimates affect cost estimates that use resources such as

materials not prone to seasonal price variations.
fixed overhead allowances.
union labor.
staff and regular employees.

A

union labor.

137
Q

The cost estimating technique that produces a higher degree of accuracy using a statistical relationship between historical data and the targeted variable, is

performing a vendor bid analysis.
reserve analysis.
parametric cost estimating.
resource costing.

A

parametric cost estimating.

138
Q

A quantitative assessment of likely costs of all resources required to complete schedule activities is

Cost budgeting
Cost management
The cost estimate
The cost aggregate

A

The cost estimate

139
Q

Tools for estimating costs include

bottom-down estimating
top-up estimating
bottom-up estimating
risk factors

A

bottom-up estimating

140
Q

The project estimator determines resource cost rates, such as the unit cost price for topsoil purchased by the cubic yard by

requesting and comparing price quotes.
obtaining data from commercial databases.
obtaining data from published seller price lists.
Any of the above.

A

Any of the above.

141
Q

________ cost estimating uses expert judgment, is less costly than other cost estimating techniques, and is frequently used to estimate costs when there is a limited amount of detailed information about a project.

Attribute
Analogous
Bottom-up
Parametric

A

Analogous

142
Q

Parametric models are mathematical models used to predict total project costs. They are simple, and most reliable when

only current information is used to develop the model.
funds expenditures can be reconciled.
the model is scalable.
the model is specific and used for small projects.

A

the model is scalable.

143
Q

Contingency reserves are

Funds used at the discretion of the project manager to deal with unknowns related to the project scope.
Estimated costs allocated by contractors in the event they overrun the project budget.
Estimated costs the contractor holds in reserve to pay for project delays.
A project buffer dedicated for litigations.

A

Funds used at the discretion of the project manager to deal with unknowns related to the project scope.

144
Q

Budgeting inputs include formal periodic limitations of project funds expenditures that are contained in project charters or contracts. These constraints are part of the budget which is provided by the

Project schedule
Activity cost estimate
Project Scope Baseline
Risk Register

A

Project Scope Baseline

145
Q

______ involves estimating the cost of individual work packages or schedule activities with the lowest level of detail.

Vendor bid analysis.
Reserve analysis.
Bottom-up estimating.
Monte Carlo analysis.

A

Bottom-up estimating.

146
Q

The supporting documentation necessary to support the schedule cost estimate includes

Documented constraints.
Documented allowances, reserves, and contingencies.
Documented risks.
Documented retainage.

A

Documented constraints.

147
Q

Inputs to estimate costs include all of the following EXCEPT

code of conduct
project management plan
risk register
project schedule

A

code of conduct

148
Q

Enterprise environmental factors that are inputs into quality management include

Organizational policies, procedures, and guidelines.
Lessons learned and knowledge base.
Quality metrics and organizational assets.
government agency regulations.

A

government agency regulations.

149
Q

A fundamental principle of modern quality management is

quality is designed-in, not planned-in.
quality is built-in, not inspected-in.
quality is inspected-in, not designed-in.
quality is planned-, designed-, and inspected-in.

A

quality is built-in, not inspected-in.

150
Q

Plan Quality Management is performed

during activity resource estimating.
as part of the project development process.
in parallel with other planning processes.
after quality controls are in place.

A

in parallel with other planning processes.

151
Q

The “cost of quality” is

The cost to fix defects.
The total cost of all quality-related efforts.
The total cost of requested project changes and corrections.
The cost of inspection resources.

A

The total cost of all quality-related efforts.

152
Q

______ involves identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and deciding how to satisfy them.

Plan Quality Management
Quality control
Quality planning
Quality management

A

Plan Quality Management

153
Q

An example of a prevention cost is:

Safety.
Warranty work.
Training.
Unauthorized changes.

A

Training.

154
Q

The basis for quality improvement is

Plan-do-check-act cycle.
TQM
Six Sigma
COQ

A

Plan-do-check-act cycle.

155
Q

Tools for Plan Quality Management include:

Cost-benefit analysis
Cost of quality
Control charts
All of the above

A

All of the above

156
Q

A project organization chart graphically displays

Risk and quality assurance activities.
Project networks and activities.
Required work and team members.
Project team members and their reporting relationships.

A

Project team members and their reporting relationships.

157
Q

Matrix-based, RAM charts show relationships between

roles, responsibility, and authority for projects.
risk and quality planning activities.
project networks and activities.
required work and team members.

A

required work and team members.

158
Q

Hierarchical type charts that show how project deliverables are divided into work packages, and which show high-levels of responsibility, are

WBS
OBS
RBS
BBS

A

WBS

159
Q

The traditional ______ -type organizational chart shows positions and relationships in a top-down format

matrix
hierarchical.
text-oriented
flowchart

A

hierarchical.

160
Q

When listing human resources roles and responsibilities needed to complete the project the following should be addressed:

Alliances.
Working relationships.
Minority status or special considerations.
Role clarity and boundaries.

A

Role clarity and boundaries.

161
Q

What organizational breakdown chart would best display an organization’s existing departments, units, or teams?

WBS
OBS
RBS
BBS

A

OBS

162
Q

Resource breakdown structure hierarchical charts are used to break down the project by

responsibilities.
routines.
resources.
risks.

A

resources.

163
Q

_______ provides information about the way teams and organizational units react and behave

Project organization
Organizational behavior
Organizational theory
Organizational process

A

Organizational theory

164
Q

Resource requirements are used

To determine human resource needs.
To schedule human resources.
To monitor human resource activities.
To determine training needs.

A

To determine human resource needs.

165
Q

______ are documented formats that ensure each work package has an unambiguous owner and that all team members clearly understand their roles and responsibilities

Matrix templates
Networks
Organizational charts
Schedules of work

A

Organizational charts

166
Q

A “role” designates what portion on the project a person is accountable for. Project roles should be ______ to help ensure project success

clear concerning authority, responsibilities and boundaries
assigned and closely monitored
commensurate with education and experience
broad-based

A

clear concerning authority, responsibilities and boundaries

167
Q

Team member responsibilities that require detailed descriptions are specified in _______ formats

matrix
hierarchical
text-oriented
flowchart

A

text-oriented

168
Q

Tools used in estimate activity resources include

top-down estimating
synergistic estimating
analogous estimating
release criteria

A

analogous estimating

169
Q

Which of the following is NOT a stakeholder management process?

A

Control Stakeholder Management

PMP - Study Guide (40 decks)

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