Gastro - general use this Flashcards

1
Q

Urgent referal for suspected GI cancer

A

Dysphagia lasting >3 weeks  endoscopy to exclude malignant stricture
- Dysphagia
- Dyspepsia + 1 or more of
Weight loss
Proven anaemia
Pernicious anaemia
Vomiting
Jaundice
Upper abdomnal mass
Barrett’s oesophagus
Known dysplasia, atrophic gastritis, intestinal metaplasia
Peptic ucler surgery >20 years previously
FHx of UGI cancer in >2 first-degree relatives

  • Dyspepsia >55 y/o + 1 or more of
    Onset of dyspepsia <1 y previously
    Continuous symptoms since onset
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2
Q

Indications for endoscopy

A
  • OGD
    If pt presents for the first time 55 + there are warning signs or bleeding ulcer or ALARMS

Warning signs - >55 +

  • Chronic blood loss
  • Persistent vomiting
  • Epigastric mass
  • Unexplained, persistent, recent onset diarrhoea
  • Previous peptic ulcer disease
  • Previous gastric surgery
  • Pernicious anaemia
  • NSAID use
  • FHx of gastric carcinoma
ALARMS
Anorexia
Loss of weight
Anaemia (Fe deficiency)
Rectal bleeding
Melaena/Haematemesis
Swallowing difficulty (progressive dysphagia)
Suspicious barium meal
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3
Q

Indications for emergency endoscopy

A
  • Unstable patients, severe acute UGI bleeding immediately after resuscitation
  • Continuing UGI bleed
  • Glasgow-Blatchford score >6 (incl 6)
  • Pt w aortic graft to exclude aorto-enteric fistula
  • Suspiction of oesohageal varices due to chronic liver disease
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4
Q

Why is constipation common after surgery

A
  • Anaesthesia
  • Opioid analgesia
  • Electrolyte imbalances (hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia)
  • Bowel manipulation
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5
Q

How can we reduce the risk of post operative ileus

A
  • Epidural/spinal anaesthesia
  • Reduce use of opioids (more local anaesthetics)
  • Reduce bowel manipulation during surgery
  • Encourage early mobilisation
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6
Q

Differentials for raised INR/PTT

A
  • Liver failure (decreased hepatic production of coagulation factors)
  • Vitamin K deficiency
  • Cholestasis (decreased vitamin K absorption)
  • DIC
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7
Q

What kind of ischaemia does a strangulated hernia/volvulus cause

A

Ischaemic colitis/Colonic ischaemia(NOT acute/chronic mesenteric ischaemia)

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8
Q

Which hepatitis viruses cause chronic infection?

A

HBV, HCV, HDV

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9
Q

What does chronic hepatitis infection lead to?

A

chronic hepatitis
cirrhosis
hepatocellular carcinoma and eventually liver failure

HCC assosciated with HBV, HCV (most commonly with HCV)

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10
Q

Causes of acute pancreatitis

A
I GET SMASHED
Idiopathic
Gallstones
Ethanol
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps/Coxsackie/HIV
Autoimmune/Sjogren's syndrome/SLE/Coeliac disease
Scorption bites
Hyperlipidaemia/hypercalcaemia/hypothermia/hypertriglyceridaemia 
ERCP
Drugs (Sodium valproate, steroids, thiazides, azathioprine)
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11
Q

What is the hepatorenal syndrome?

A

Kidneys reduce their own blood flow distribution in response to the altered blood flow in the liver which causes extreme vasodilation and therefore decreases MAP

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12
Q

Causes of UGIB

A
  • Oesophageal tumour
  • Mallory Weiss tear
  • Oesophagitis
  • Oesophageal varices
  • Gastric carcinoma
  • Gastritis
  • Gastric ulcer
  • Duodenal ulcer
  • Angiodysplasia

look at diagram in epigastric pain

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13
Q

What kind of cancer is the most common gastric cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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14
Q

Colon cancer screening

A

55 - FlexSig one off bowel scope screening test

60-74 - FOBT home testing kit every 2 years

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15
Q

What kind of jaundice does Gilbert’s cause?

A

Pre-hepatic

Bilirubin is unconjugated

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16
Q

Which enzyme is affected in Gilbert’s?

A

UDP glucuronyl transferase

reduced activity –> higher unconjugated blirubin –> tightly bound to albumin –> does not enter urine

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17
Q

What can you use to evaluate liver function

Most representative test for liver function

A

Albumin
Bilirubin
Clotting factors

Prothrombin time

(clotting factor synthesis affected more quickly than albumin)

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18
Q

Aetiology of appendicitis

A

Gut organisms invade appendix wall after lumen obstruction
Becomes inflamed + infected
This leads to oedema, ischaemic necrosis and perforation
Infected + faecal matter escape into the peritoneal cavity producing life threatening peritonitis

Lumen can be obstructed by stool, foreign object, faecolith, infective organisms

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19
Q

What is the difference between

diverticulum
diverticulosis
diverticulitis
diverticular disease

A
  • Diverticulum – herniation of mucosa and submucosa through the muscular layer of the colonic wall
  • Diverticulosis – presence of diverticulae outpouchings of the colonic mucosa + submucosa through the muscular wall of the large bowel, asymptomatic
  • Diverticulitis – acute inflammation and infection of diverticulae
  • Diverticular disease - the complications from diverticulosis
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20
Q

Most common site of diverticula

A

Sigmoid colon
Descending colon
i.e. L hand side

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21
Q

What is the Hinchey classificaiton?

A

Assessment of periotneal contamination in the context of acute diverticulitis

I pericolic or mesenteric abscess
II walled off pelvic abscess
III perforation with generalised purulent peritonitis
IV generalised faecal peritonitis

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22
Q

A feverish 65-year-old is brought to the local A&E department by her daughter. She complains about nausea, LIF pain and vomiting. The attending doctor takes a full history and performs an abdominal examination and subsequently makes a diagnosis of acute diverticulitis with some associated signs of peritonism. A erect AXR is taken which shows some air under the diaphragm. What is the most appropriate surgical procedure?

Hartmann’s procedure
Primary anastomosis
Colectomy and end-ileostomy formation
Delorme’s procedure 
Whipple’s procedure
A

Hartmann’s procedure

if presentation is ACUTE because the bowel needs to rest + inflammation needs to go down before primary anastomosis

Diverticular disease surgical management
Primary anastomosis
- One stage resection of affected bowel + anastomosis
- Proximal loop ileostomy (diverts contents before they pass via primary anastomosis - protects the primary anastomosis)

Hartmann’s procedure - if presentation is ACUTE because the bowel needs to rest + inflammation needs to go down before primary anastomosis

  • Proctosigmoidectomy + Formation of an end colostomy with anorectal stump
  • Used when primary anastomosis is not possible due to e.g. inflammation

Delorme’s procedure – rectal prolapse
Whipple’s procedure - ca of head of pancreas
Whipple procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy) is an operation to remove the head of the pancreas, the first part of the small intestine (duodenum), the gallbladder and the bile duct.

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23
Q

How to differentiate bn Inguinal hernias + femoral hernias

A

o Reduce hernia
o Place finger over femoral canal
o Ask patient to cough
o Inguinal hernia – will reppear, Femoral hernia – will stay reduced

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24
Q

How to differentiate bn direct + indirectInguinal hernias

A

Reduce the hernia and put your hand over the deep inguinal ring
Get patient to cough - if the hernia reappears then it means it is direct (through the abdominal wall)
if it doesnt reappear it means it’s indirect (through the deep inguinal ring which you are blocking with your hands)
deep inguinal ring:
• Midpoint of inguinal ligament
• 1.5cm above midpoint
• Opening in transversalis fascia

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25
Q

Inguinal vs femoral hernia

A

Inguinal
Superior and medial to pubic tubercle
Still more common in F than femoral
often contain bowel

Femoral
Inferior and lateral to pubic tubercle
F>M
Higher risk of stangulation than inguinal because it has a narrower neck
Often contain omentum
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26
Q

Direct vs indirect inguinal hernia

A

Direct
Superior and medial to pubic tubercle
Through the abdominal wall
Medial to deep inferior epigastric artery
Through Hesselbach’s triangle
Doesn’t usually extend into scrotum
Cough impulse - will expand outwards (through the defect in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal)
Lower risk of strangulation than indirect hernias
greater tendency for spontaneous reduction

Indirect
More common than direct
Superior and medial to pubic tubercle
Through the deep inguinal ring
Lateral to deep inferior epigastric artery
lateral to Hesselbach’s triangle
More likely to extend into scrotum
Cough impulse - will expand in an inferomedial direction (along the length of the inguinal canal)
Higher risk of strangulation than direct hernias

deep inferior epigastric artery lies medial to the deep inguinal ring

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27
Q

Which is the most common hernia?

A

Indirect inguinal hernias

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28
Q

Difference bn obstructed + strangulated hernia

A

Obstructed hernia–refers mainly to hernias containing bowel, where the contents of the hernia are compressed to the extent the the bowel lumen is no longer patent and causes bowel obstruction

Strangulated hernia–the compression around the hernia prevents blood flow into the hernial contents causing ischaemia to the tissues and pain

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29
Q

Pathophysiology of acute pancreatitis

A

inflammatory condition of the exocrine pancreas in which activated pancreatic enzymes are released and begin to autodigest the gland

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30
Q

Hypercalcaemia
Hypocalcaemia

How do they relate to pancreatitis?

A

Hypercalcaemia causes pancreatitis

Hypocalcaemia is caused by pancreatitis

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31
Q

Large bowel obstruction commonly due to

Small bowel obstruction commonly due to

A

large
Malignancy
+ hernias, feacal impaction

small
adhesions, hernias

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32
Q

4 causes of acute mesenteric ischaemia

A
Arterial emoblism (e.g. AF)
Arterial thrombosis (e.g. atheroscleorsis)
Venous thrombosis (e.g. hypercoaguable states, malignancy)
Non-occlusive disease (e.g. hypotension, cocaine)
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33
Q

Causes of chronic mesenteric ischaemia

A
  • Chronic atherosclerotic disease of the vessels supplying the intestine
  • Also known as intestinal angina
  • All 3 major mesenteric arteries are involved

Combination of a
Low-flow state (e.g. HF)
Atherosclerotic disease

More common in females

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34
Q

Bacteria that cause bloody diarrhoea (dysentry)

A
CCHESS
Campylobacter
Clostrodium difficile
Haemorrahgic E coli (E0157)
Entoameoba histolytica
Salmonella
Shigella
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35
Q

Which organism caused the diarrhoea (not bloody)? Clues in hx

  • Milk, cheese
  • > 70 yo, past C. diff, use of antibiotics, antiperistaltic drugs
  • food, 1-6 hours after eating, short lived
  • rice water diarrhoea, poor sanitation, shock
  • leafy vegetables
  • reheated rice, can cause cerebral abscess
  • eggs, poultry may present with constipation, multiplies in Payer’s patches of the intestine
  • sudden onset diarrhoea a few hours after a wedding reception
  • A university student with watery diarrhoea a few days after a barbeque
A
  • Listeria monocytogenes
  • C diff
  • Staph aureus
  • Vibrio cholera
  • E. Coli
  • Bacillus cereus
  • Salmonella
  • sudden presentation that lasts less than 24h - because of a toxin in food (food poisoning) - Staph aureus, Bacillus cereus = bacteria that grow on warm food + produce toxins that result in rapid-onset diarrhoea
  • campylobacter jejuni
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36
Q

Which organism caused the dysentery (bloody diarrhoea)? Clues in hx

  • uncooked poultry (e.g. after a bbq)
  • leafy vegetables
  • poor sanitation, tropical places, MSM
  • person-to-person contact, poor sanitation, MSM
  • eggs
A

Campylobacter (salmonella is most commonly assosciated with raw eggs)
Haemorrhagic E.coli - Bloody diarrhoea followed by haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Entamobea histolytica
Shigella
Salmonella

37
Q

Most common hepatitis in pregnant women

A

Hep E

38
Q

Hepatitis buzzwords

A

Hep A - shellfish, faeco-oral, sexual, acute

Hep B - Baby making (sexual), Blood (transfusions, contaminated needles), Birthing (antenatal exposure), adults clear it (less likley to result in chronic infection and HCC than HCV), children stay carriers, risk of HCCC

Hep C - blood transmission(contaminated medical equipemnt, needles) raised afp (higher risk of HCC than with HBV), adults stay carriers, children clear it, asymptomatic, flu like symptoms, more common than HBV more likely to cause chronic infection thatn HBV therefore more likely to cause HCC

Hep D - only in individuals suffering with HBV, blood transmission

Hep E - Expectant mothers, Emmunocompromised, acute, faeco oral, self-limiting

39
Q

Which abx is the first line treatment for C. difficile infection?

Which class of abx is responsible for the infection?

A

ORAL Metronidazole
or oral vancomycin (2nd line)

Caused by 3rd generation cephalosporins

40
Q

How to maintain remission in UC?

A
  • Low dose oral ASA (e.g. melsalazine)

- Second line - oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine

41
Q

Types of hepatitis that cause chronic liver disease vs acute hepatitis

A

Chronic - B,C - can cause cirrhosis and HCC

Acute - A, D, E

42
Q

Congenital/genetic causes of chronic liver disease

A

Wilson’s
Haemochromatosis
A1 antitrypsin deficiency

all are AR

43
Q

What are the causes of tranaminits in the 1000s?

A

Toxins - Paracetamol overdose
Viral - Acute viral hepatitis (not B)
Ischaemia

44
Q

Ratio of transaminits in alcoholic hepatitis

A

AST:ALT 2:1

45
Q

Pathophysiology of Wilson’s disease

A

ATP7B mutation on Chr 13
codes for transporters that excrete copper form liver into bile

• ATP7B encourages:
o Production of the ferroxidase caeruloplasmin (in which copper is incorporated)
o Excretion of copper into bile

46
Q

Presentation of Wilson’s disease in

Children, adolescents
vs
Young adults

A
  • Usually presents as liver disease in children + adolescents - acute hepatitis - cirrhosis - liver failure
  • Usually presents as a neuropsychiatric illness in young adults
47
Q

Pathophysiology of haemochromatosis

A

Deficiency of hepcidin HFE gene mutations on the short arm of Chr 6
Known mutations of the HFE gene are C282Y and H63D (must be homozygous)
Increased intestnal absorption of iron causes accumulation in tissues , esp liver
Increased iron release from macrophages
This can lead to organ damage
Deposits in liver, pancreas, pituitary gland

iron in enterocytes wants to be released into the hepatic portal system
ferroprotin is responsible for transferring the iron out of the cells into the blood
Hepcidin inhibits ferrportin –> iron stays in enterocytes, is not released into the blood and is excreted
Hepcidin mutation means ferroportin is uninhibited –> increased release of iron from entercytes to blood

48
Q

Difference bn PBC and PSC

A

PBC
Autoimmune
T cell mediated destruction of the biliary tracts
Pathology of intra-hepatic bile ducts by antibodies
Anit-mitochondrial antibody 95%
ANA 35%
Females
Assosciated with other autoimmune conditions (thyroid, sjogrens syndrome, systemic sclerosis, coeliac disease, RA)
“Buzzwords” – Hypercholestrolaemia: tendon xanthomata, xanthelasma peri-ocular, post-hepatic jaundice (intrahepatic obstruction)

PSC
Pathology of intra+extra hepatic bile ducts
MRCP - beads on a string
Males
Assosciated with IBD (UC specifically)
“Buzzwords” – UC, cholangiocarcinoma
post-hepatic jaundice (extrahepatic obstruction)

49
Q

Which patients are likely to develop cholangiocarcinoma?

A

Pt w UC who develop PSC

50
Q

Commonest abscesses in developed world vs worldwide

A
  • Developed countries – pyogenic (bacterial) abscesses most common
  • Worldwide – amoebae most common
51
Q

Liver cyst vs liver abscess

A

Liver cyst - not infetious
Lined with biliary-type epithelium but cyst fluid does not contain bile
F>M

Liver abscess - infectious 
Mass filled with pus in liver 
Pyogenic = polymicrobial (80%) 
Amoebic = Entamoeba histolytica (10%) 
Fungal = Candida (10%)
52
Q

What is the difference between a sliding hiatus hernia and a para-oesophageal (rolling) hiaus hernia?

A
  • Sliding hiatus hernia [85-95%] – the gastro-oesophageal junction slides up into the thoracic cavity
  • Para-oesophageal (rolling) hiatus hernia [5-15%] – the gastro-oesophageal junction remains in place but part of the stomach (or colon, spleen, pancreas, small intestine) herniates into the chest next to the oesophagus
53
Q

Which class of drugs increases risk of bleeding form diverticular disease?

A

NSAIDs

54
Q

Norovirus buzzwords

A

devloped nations
residential homes
cruise ships

55
Q

Zollinger Ellison syndrome pathophysiology

Ix
Mx

A

Pancreatic tumour producing gastrin (gastrinoma) as part of MEN1

Hypergastrinaemia
Hypertrophy of gastric mucosa & stimulation acid secreting cells
Damaged mucosa & Ulceration, abdominal pain, vomiting

+ Malabsorption due to damage of GI mucosa
+ inactivation pancreatic enzymes

consider if FHx of MEN, or if multiple ulcers refractory to treatment –> measure fasting serum gastrin
PPIs or surgical resection

56
Q

Peptic ulcer disease RF

A

H.Pylori - developing countries
NSAIDs - developed countries (iburofen, aspirin, naproxen) - Look out for conditions that may have lead to long term NSAID use, e.g. MI and Stroke for aspirin, long standing hx of headaches
Bisphosphonates
Smoking
Burns - curling ulcer
Head Trauma - cushing ulcer
Zollinger Ellison syndrome (part of MEN 1)

NSAIDs related more to gastric ulcers
H. pylori related more to duodenal ulcers

57
Q

Two types of oseophageal cancer and what are the RF

A

Squamous cell carcinoma - smoking, alcohol [middle third of the oesophagus]

Adenocarcinoma - GORD, Barret’s oesophagus, obesity [lower third of the oesophagus] - most common

58
Q

Define oesophageal varices

A

Extremely dilated submucosal veins in the lower third of the oesophagus due to portal hypertension as a result of cirrhosis

59
Q
A 62yr old gentleman is brought to A&amp;E by his wife who suspects that her husband has been drinking. It is clear that the gentleman is disoriented, and he has a particularly unsteady gate. On examination, you note: spider naevi, gynaecomastia, nystagmus on lateral gaze and mild peripheral neuropathy. His blood results are as follows: 
FBC: 
Hb: 12.5g/dL (13.5-17.5g/dL)
MCV: 105fL (80-96)
HCT: 0.35 (0.4-0.5)
Platelet: 200*10^9/L (150-400*10^9)
WBC: 8,000/mL (4,000-10,000)
U&amp;E: Normal
CRP: Normal
INR: 0.7 (<1.1)

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Hepatic Encephalopathy
B. Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
C. Encephalitis
D. Normal Pressure Hydrocepahlus
E. Delirium tremens
A

B. Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

(triad of CAN – confusion, ataxia, nystagmus)

In Wernicke’s clotting is not affected
Hepatic encephalopathy denotes liver failure – clotting would be affected

Acute-med lecture

60
Q

epithelium above + below dentate/pectinate line

innervation

A

Squamous epithelium below dentate/pectinate line (lower 1/3 of anal canal), somatic innervation, usually visible on inspection
Columnar epithelium above dentate/pectinate line (upper 2/3 of anal canal), visceral innervation, not visible on inspection

61
Q

What kind of cancer is the most common colon cancer?

A

adenocarcinoma

62
Q

Colon cancer screening program

A
FlexiSig at 56yrs
Screening FIT (faecal immunological test) from 60-74yrs every 2yrs
63
Q

Where in the large intestine is colon cancer most commonly found

A

rectum>sigmoid>ascending colon> transverse colon>descending colon

64
Q

UC complications

A

Toxic megacolon

Colonic adenocarcinoma, PSC, cholangiocarcinoma

65
Q

Define coeliac disease

A

T cell mediated autoimmune reaction to dietary gluten that leads to small bowel + systemic disease

66
Q

Alleles assosciated with coeliac disease

A

HLA DQ 2/8

67
Q

Malignancy assosciated with coeliac disease

A
  • EATL - Enteropathy assosciated T cell lymphoma - quite specific to coeliac, only increased risk if untreated
  • NHL HL
  • other small bowel adenocarcinomas
68
Q

DDx for coeliac

A

Ddx for coeliac is IBD/crohns so if antibody test negative do faecal calprotectin

69
Q

High SAAG meaning

A

SAAG = serum albumin ascites gradient
[serum albumin]-[ascites albumin]

High value = >11g/L
means low albumin in ascites = Transudative ascites

therefore can be
heart failure
constrictive pericarditis
portal hypertenison
cirrhosis 
Budd chiari
Hepatic vein obstruction
70
Q

Low SAAG meaning

A

SAAG = serum albumin ascites gradient
[serum albumin]-[ascites albumin]

Low value = <11g/L
means high albumin in ascites or low albumin in serum = exhudative ascites

therefore can be
infection
bowel obstruction
pancreatitis
malignancy
nephrotic syndrome (causes hypoalbuminaemia)
71
Q

Both liver disease + blocked CBD (obstructive jaundice) can cause patients to have prolonged blood clotting times - how to differentiate?

A

• Administering parenteral vitamin K will only correct the problem in obstructive jaundice and not in liver disease

72
Q

Consequence of a cholecystoduodenal fistula formation as a result of gallstones

A

Stone passes to small intestine - can get stuck in the terminal ileum (narrowest part of the intestinal tract)
Mechanical obstruction –> gallstone ileus

73
Q

GI causes of clubbing

A

IBD
Liver cirrhosis
PBC
Achalasia

74
Q

A1 antitrypsin deficiency

what does it cause
how does it present
inheritance

A
  • Emphysema
  • Asthma
  • Chronic liver disease
  • HCC
  • Gallstones
  • Pancreatitis
  • Wegener’s granulomatosis

presentation

  • SOB
  • Liver cirrhosis
  • Cholestatic jaundice

AR

75
Q

Typical offending organisms in ascending cholangitis

A

E. coli

Klebsiella

76
Q

Duodenal ulcers vs gastric ulcers

A
  • Duodenal ulcer more common than gastric ulcer!
  • All gastric ulcers should be biopsied due to their potential for malignant change (unlike duodenal ulcers)
  • Chronic gastric ulcers –> RF for adenocarcinoma
77
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis

what is it and what is it assosciated with

A

overgrowth of c difficile

occurs post abx therapy

assosciated with broad spectrum abx but cephalosporins are the high risk group e.g. cefotaxime

78
Q

Bacterium implicated in ascites + SBP (spontaneous bacterial peritonitis)

A

E. coli
(Klebsiella)

SPB = ascites neutrophils > 250 cells/mm3

IV abx – cefotaxime, ceftriaxone, peperacillin/tanzobactam (tanzocin)
If they had a previous episode/ if they are considered high risk – prophylactic oral abx – norfloxacin, ciprofloxacin

79
Q

SPB (spontaneous bacterial peritonitis) definition

Why is it dangerous?

A

SPB = ascites neutrophils > 250 cells/mm3

Can led to rapid decompensation of liver disease –> hepatic encephalopathy + death

80
Q

Chronic alcohol dependence
Abdominal pain
Weight loss
Stools that are difficult to flush

What are you suspecting?
Next ix?

A

Chronic pancreatitis

CT abdo to look for panceratic calcifications

81
Q

Similarities + differences between cholecystitis + ascending cholangitis

A

Both present with RUQ pain + fever
Ascending cholangitis also presents with jaundice
Ascending cholangitis might also present with hypotention, altered mental status (part of Reynold’s pentad along with RUQ pain, fever, jaundice)
Acute cholecysitis presents with RUQ pain, fever, increased WCC

ix
Cholecystitis - US
Ascending cholangitis - ERCP

Mx
Cholecystitis - NMB IVF Abx
NSAIDs, cholecystectomy

Ascending cholangitis - NMB IVF Abx
Opioids, ERCP

82
Q

AAA monitoring + mx

A

Normal diameter of aorta - 2cm
<4 cm - annual US
4-5.5cm - US every 3 months
>5.5cm - elective intervention

Early intervention
rapidly expanding (>1cm/year)
tender
symptomatic
suspected rupture
83
Q

Duke’s classification

A

A - confined to the bowel wall
B - invades the bowel wall but no lymph node involvement (beyond muscularis propria)
C - invades the bowel wall + spreads to the lymph nodes
C1 - apical lymph node not involved
C2 - apical lymph node involved
D - distant metastases present

grading of colorectal cancer

84
Q

Autoimmune hepatitis antibodies

Type 1 autoimmune hepatitis
Type 2 autoimmune hepatitis
Type 3 autoimmune hepatitis

A

Type 1 autoimmune hepatitis – ANA, ASMA, anti-soluble liver antigen or liver/pancreas (anti-SLA/LP), pANCA

Type 2 autoimmune hepatitis – anti-liver-kidney microsomal – 1 ab (anti-LKM-1), anti-liver cytosol 1 (anti-LC1)

Type 3 autoimmune hepatitis – anti-soluble liver antigen or liver/pancreas (anti-SLA/LP)

85
Q

How can we tell that the increased bilirubin in Gilbert’s is not due to haemolysis?

A

Reticulocyte count is normal in Gilbert’s whereas in haemolytic anaemia it is increased
Haptoglobin is decreased in heamolysis whereas in Gilbert’s it’s normal

86
Q

Drugs known to cause cholestasis

A
Clavulanic acid
Penicillin 
Co-amoxiclav
Erythromycin 
Chlorpromazine
Oestrogens
87
Q

GI causes of finger clubbing

A
Coeliac disease
IBD
UC
PBC
Liver cirrhosis
Achalasia
88
Q

where is the absorption of

Calcium, iron
vitamins:
B2, C
B3, D
B12

taking palce

A
Calcium, iron - duodenum 
vitamins:
B2, C - proximal ileum
B3, D - jejunum 
B12 - termianal ileum
89
Q

Transaminins in the 1000s

A
Paracetamol overdose
Ishchaemic hit
Viral hepatitis (except B)