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Y3 Charis > General stuff > Flashcards

General stuff Flashcards

1
Q

HLA-B27

A
  • Ankylosing spondylitis
  • Reactive arthritis
  • Acute anterior uveitis
  • Poor prognostic factor for pt with reactive arthritis (more sudden onset, more severe symptoms, more likely to develop chronic reactive arthritis)
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2
Q

HLA-B47

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency

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3
Q

HLA-DR2

A

SLE

Coeliac disease

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4
Q

HLA-DR3

A
  • Autoimmune hepatitis
  • T1DM
  • SLE
  • Sjogren syndrome
  • Coeliac disease
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5
Q

HLA-DR4

A
  • RA

- T1DM

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6
Q

HLA-DQ2

HLA-DQ8

A

Coeliac disease

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7
Q

Opiate antagonists

A

Methadone
Naltrexone
Buprenorphine

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8
Q

Causes of upper GIB

A
  • Oesophageal tumour
  • Mallory Weiss tear
  • Oesophagitis
  • Oesophageal varices
  • Gastric carcinoma
  • Gastritis
  • Gastric ulcer
  • Duodenal ulcer
  • Angiodysplasia

look at diagram in epigastric pain

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9
Q

Emergency treatment of hyperkalaemia

A
  • Calcium gluconate - FIRST STEP to protect the heart
  • Insulin and dextrose –> They activate the co-transporters on cells which move potassium back into cells and lowers serum potassium for 30-45 minutes SECOND STEP
  • Salbutamol nebulisers THRID STEP

Other answers are used in the treatment of hyperkalaemia but not during emergencies

  • IV calcium gluconate/chloride can stabilise the myocardium in hyperkalaemia
  • Calcium resonium is given orally with aperients (i.e. drugs used to relieve constipation) and will help reduce potassium chronically but takes >24hrs to have an effect. You cannot give it IV.(capsule)
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10
Q

Features of rhambomyolysis

A

Black/”Smokey” urine (colour of coca cola)

AKI causes
Hypocalcaemia [kidney cant retain it]
Hyperphosphataemia(capsule) [kidney cant excrete it]

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11
Q

How does myoglobin released from rhabdomyolysis (crush injury) damage the kidneys? (3 ways)

A

it causes renal vasoconstriction
it is toxic to tubular cells
precipitates in the tubules(capsule)

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12
Q

Contra-indication to MRI

A

Pacemaker(capsule)

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13
Q

How is renal anaemia treated?

A

Renal anaemia is treated with regular injections of recombinant erythropoeitin

This avoids the complications of repeated transfusion such as

  • Iron overload
  • Risk of infection with blood born agents
  • Sensitisation to potential kidney donor HLA(capsule)
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14
Q

Why is a low phosphate diet recommended to patients with CKD?

A

With a low GFR phosphate excretion by the kidney is considerably reduced, hyperphosphataemia can cause itching, leads to reduced production of active calcitriol and contributes to hypocalcaemia and hyperparathyroidism

Increased levels of phosphate + FGF23 by osteocytes in bone decrease the activity of 1-alpha-hydroxylase* leading to decreased calcitriol production therefore less Ca is released from bones and this causes an increase in PTH release to try and increase the calcium

*The activity of the enzyme is stimulated by PTH, so decrease in its activity will also cause increased PTH release(capsule)

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15
Q

Sepsis 6

A

Give
o2
abx
ivf

take
urinary output
blood cultures
lactate + hb measurements

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16
Q

Diffference bn SIRS, sepsis, severe sepsis, shock, MODS

A

• SIRS (systemic inflammatory response syndrome) body’s response to a wide range of pro-inflammatory processes (not just infection but also pancreatitis, anaphylaxis, PE). Defined as 2 or more of:
o Pulse >90
o T >38 or <36
o RR >20 or PaCO2 <4.3 (hyperventilatory hypocapnia)
o WBC >12 or <4

• Sepsis is SIRS caused by a suspected/proven infection (SIRS + septicaemia)

• Severe sepsis - sepsis causing
o Hypotension – SBP <90mmHg or >40mmHg drop compared to normal for patient
o End organ hypoperfusion – VBGs shows lactic acidosis (e.g. oliguria (kidney hypoperfusion), confusion (brain hypoperfusion) or serum lactate >4 (muscle hypoperfusion))

  • Septic shock – severe sepsis refractory to fluid resuscitation (+ therefore in need of vasopressors)
  • MODS (multiorgan dysfunction syndrome)/multiorgan failure – evidence of >2 organs failing (e.g. confusion due to cerebral hypoperfusion, respiratory failure, liver failure, renal failure)

Altered organ function in acutely ill patients such that homeostasis cannot be maintained without intervention
It usually involves two or more organ systems
Condition usually results from infection, injury, hypoperfusion, hypermetabolism
Sepsis is the most common cause

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17
Q

SLE HLA assosciations

A

DR2

DR3

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18
Q

T1DM HLA assosciations

A

DR3

DR4

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19
Q

Light chain protein in urine

A 
MM
AL Amyloidosis (primary)
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20
Q

Causes of proximal myopathy

A 
MND
MG
Idiopathic inflammatory myopathy (polymyositis, dermatomyositis)
Hyperthyroidism
Osteomalacia 
Cushing's
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21
Q

AMTS + MMSE scores that indicate cognitive impairement

A

AMTS <6/10

MMSE <26/30

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22
Q

Dilated vs pinpoint pupils vs asymmetrical pupils

A

Dilated - drug overdose (e.g. cocaine), TCA, severe hypoxia

Pinpoint- opiate overdose, barbiturate overdose, organophosphates

Asymmetrical - third nerve palsy, coning due to increased ICP, can be normal

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23
Q

CSF

Oligoclonal bands vs albuminocytological dissosciation + which part of the nervous system do they affect

A

Oligoclonal bands
- MS (affects CNS)

Albuminocytological dissosciation
- GBS (affects PNS)

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24
Q

Most likely cause of confusion in a man with a history of alcoholcim + a 4-day hospital stay + how would you treat

A

Alcohol withdrawal
Chlordiazepoxide - not intended for long term use (max 4 weeks)
Thiamine (to avoid progression to Wernicke’s encephalopathy)

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25
Q

Triad of Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A
  • Confusion
  • Ataxia
  • Ophthalmoplegia
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26
Q

Reasons for post-operative confusion

A
  • Hypoxia (anaemia, PE, basal ateletasis, opioids)
  • Opioids
  • Electrolytes (derangement due to intra + postoperative fluid replacement)
  • Infection
  • Sleep deprivation
  • Alcohol withdrawal
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27
Q

What will you see on the gram stain of someone with meningococcal meningitis?

A

Gram -ve intracellular diplococci

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28
Q

Types of hyponatraemia, signs (S), causes (C) and how to differentiate (D)

A 
Pseudohyponatraemia
(C)
- Hyperglycaemia
- Hyperlipidaemia
- Hyperproteinaemia
(D)
- High or normal serum osmolarity
   High serum osmolarity - hyperglycaemia
   Normal serum osmolarity - hyperlipidaemia, hyperproteinaemia
True hyponatraemia
(D) low serum osmolarity
- Hypovolaemic 
- Hypervolaemic
- Euvolaemic

(S)
Hypovolaemic
- Dry mucous membranes, tachycardia, low + narrow BP, decreased skin turgor, low urine output
(C)
High urinary Na (>220 mM) or K - renal problem (diuretics, renal failure, addison’s)
Low urinary Na (<220 mM) or K - extra-renal problem (kidneys retain ability to concentrate urine) (V+D, sweating, burns, pancreatitis, SBO)

(S)
Hypervolaemic
- oedema, crackles, raised JVP
(C)
   CHF, liver failure, nephrotic syndrome

(S)
Euvolaemic
- no signs of hypo or hypervolaemia
(C)
SIADH - urine osmolarity >500 mosmol/l (D)
Psychogenic polydipsia - urine osmolarity <500 mosmol/l(D)
Severe hypothyroidism - urine osmolarity <500 mosmol/l(D)
Adrenal insufficiency - urine osmolarity <500 mosmol/l (D)

look at “Hyponatraemia” table on pg 29 of oxford cases - LEARN

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29
Q

Acute management of hypoglycaemia

A

If the person can eat/drink - sweet drink, glucose tablets

If unconscious either
- Dextrose - in gel form rubbed into her mouth
- 50ml of 20% glucose or 100 ml of 10% glucose IV
Repeat if still unconscious after 10-15 mins
- Glucagon IM

confusion case oxford cases pg 31

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30
Q

Where are Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas found?

A

Broca’s - frontal lobe

Wernicke’s - temporoparietal lobe

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31
Q

What is hypertonic hyponatraemia?

A
  • Hyperglycaemia

- Administration of an active osmolyte (e.g. mannitol)

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32
Q

Management of hyponatraemia

Hypovolaemic
Euvolaemic
Hypervolaemic
Severe acute hyponatraemia

A

Hypovolaemic

  • Isotonic fluid infusion
  • treat underlying cause

Hypervolaemic

  • fluid restriction
  • loop diuretic or spironolactone
  • treat underlying cause

Euvolaemic

  • fluid restriction
  • treat underlying cause

Severe acute hyponatraemia symptoms/ cerebral oedema (altered mental status, seizure, coma)

  • Slow IV hypertonic 3% saline
  • Furosemide

Change in [Na+] must not exceed 10mmol/L in the first 24h (+aim to increase sodium by <2mM/h) and 18mmol/L in the first 48h - rapid correction can result in central pontine myelinolysis

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33
Q

What is the difference between loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics?

A

Thiazides are used to relieve oedema due to chronic heart failure and, in lower doses, to reduce blood pressure
Act in the distal tubule
• Block Na+/Cl- cotransporter

Loop diuretics are used in pulmonary oedema due to left ventricular failure and in patients with chronic heart failure.
Act on the ascending loop of Henley
• Blocks Na+/K+/2Cl- transporter
• Na+ retained in lumen

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34
Q

Management of hypernatraemia

A
  • Treatment of cause
  • Appropriate fluid replacement
  • Normal saline can be used as it may have a lower osmolarity than the blood and will not abruptly lower the Na+ level
  • Sodium level should be reduced no faster than 1mmol/L/h- to avoid rapid fluid shifts + cerebral oedema
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35
Q

Difference between a lipoma, dermoidcyst and a cystic hygroma

A

Lipoma is mobile, does not transilluminate

Dermoid cyst is not mobile, might transilluminate

Cystic hygromas
Posterior triangle of neck
People with genetic abnormalities e.g. Down’s

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36
Q

Features of hyperkalaemia on ECG

Clinical features

A

> 5.5 mM Tall tented T waves
6.5 mM Flattening of p waves
7.5 mM Prolonged PR + QRS intervals, bradycardia
severe hyperkalaemia (>9mM/L) - sinusoidal waves

Clinical features
muscle weakness
arrythmias
chest pain

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37
Q

Features of hypokalaemia on ECG and clinical features

A 
Flattened T waves
Long QT
Long PR
U waves
ST depression

atrial and ventricular tachyarrhythmias

clinical features
muscle weakness + spasm
cardiac arrhythmia
polyuria + polydipsia –> nephrogenic DI

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38
Q

What might cause hyperkalaemia

A

Renal disease - HTN, DM
Low RAAS activity - ACEi, ARBs, aldostrone antagonists, adrenal failure
Systemic K + release - rhabmomyolysis, metabolic acidosis (DKA), burns, tumour lysis syndrome (any condition that causes increased tissue breakdown)
Damage to the DCT - renal tubular acidosis, NSAID toxicity

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39
Q

Mx of hyperkalaemia

A

10 10 10 50 50

10ml 10% calcium gluconate
10 U actrapid (insulin) + 50ml 50% glucose 
or
5U actrapid + 100ml 20% dextrose 
Nebulised salbutamol
12 lead ECG continuous

Things that act the fastest

  • Salbutamol nebulisers
  • Insulin and dextrose –> They activate the co-transporters on cells which move potassium back into cells and lowers serum potassium for 30-45 minutes

Other answers are used in the treatment of hyperkalaemia but not during emergencies

  • IV calcium gluconate/chloride can stabilise the myocardium in hyperkalaemia
  • Calcium resonium is given orally with aperients (i.e. drugs used to relieve constipation) and will help reduce potassium chronically but takes >24hrs to have an effect. You cannot give it IV.(capsule)
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40
Q

What might cause hypokalaemia

A 
GI loss - vomiting, diarrhoea
Diuretics
Primary hyperaldosteronism 
Cushing's
Steroids

Renal loss - hyperaldosternosim, excess cortisol, natriuresis
Redistribution of K+ into cells - insulin, b agonsits, metabolic alkalosis
Decreased K+ intake - anorexia nervosa

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41
Q

Hypokalaemia mx

A

always correct Mg

K 3.0-3.5 mmol/L

  • Oral KCl (SandoK)
  • recheck in 48h

K <3.0 mmol/L
- IV KCl
(max infusion rate 10 mmol/hr)

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42
Q

Treatment – for acute hypocalcaemia

A

Treatment – for acute hypocalcaemia

• IV calcium infusion (calcium gluconate)

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43
Q

Acute hypercalcaemia mx

A

Acute hypercalcaemia
• IVF (saline) [1st line]
• Bisphosphonates (if calcium remains high, good for cancer mets, Zolendronate) [2nd line]
• Avoid factors that can exacerbate hypercalcaemia including thiazide diuretics

Karim said don’t give bisphosphonates in patients who don’t have cancer
you would give bisphosphonates if PTH is suppressed as that would suggest cancer

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44
Q

Commonest cause of hypercalcaemia in

healthy people
sick patients

A

primary hyperparathyroidism

cancer

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45
Q

How do you treat

Staph aureus?

MRSA?

A

flucloxacillin

MRSA - Vancomycin

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46
Q

ECG on someone with hypothermia

A

J waves

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47
Q 
A 32-year-old man presents with a 2-week history of frequent urination and excessive thirst. He has also noticed that he feels much weaker than usual, and is struggling to complete his usual gym routine. He has been to see his GP once before because his blood pressure was high on multiple occasions, however, he did not return to receive treatment. His blood pressure is measured again and it is 184/94 mm Hg. What would you expect to see on the ECG of this patient?
A Tented T waves 
B Absent P waves 
C ST elevation 
D J waves 
E U waves
A

Answer: E
This patient has Conn’s syndrome – a condition in which an aldosterone-secreting adenoma leads to inappropriately elevated aldosterone levels. The excessive sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion caused by the high aldosterone leads to hypertension and hypokalaemia. Hypokalaemia induces nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, which, consequently, leads to polyuria and polydipsia. Furthermore, muscle weakness is another feature of hypokalaemia. The main ECG features of hypokalaemia are U waves, ST depression, flattened T waves and prolonged PR interval. In any young patient presenting with hypertension, consider secondary causes such as Conn’s syndrome, coarctation of the aorta and renal artery stenosis.
Tented T waves are a feature of hyperkalaemia. Absent P waves can be seen in several different conditions, most notably atrial fibrillation and supraventricular tachycardia. J waves (sometimes referred to as Osborn waves) are see in hypothermia.

48
Q

Anaphylaxis mx

A
  1. Help
  2. Remove trigger
  3. Lie flat + raise legs
  4. IM adrenaline 0.5mg 1:1000
  5. ABC
  6. IV chlorphenamine (anti-histamine), IV hydrocortisone
49
Q

Causes of onycholysis

A
  • Trauma
  • Thyrotoxicosis
  • Fungal infection
  • Psoriasis
50
Q

A nervous 16-year-old college student attends the local A&E department with her boyfriend, complaining of an episode of sudden onset right-sided pain in her abdomen. Physical examination of the patient is unremarkable except from a small scar in the right lower quadrant. What is the most appropriate first line investigation in this case?

USS of the abdomen
𝞫-hCG test
Full blood count
CT scan of the abdomen
No investigations, immediate surgery
A

𝞫-hCG test

exclude pregnancy

51
Q

FLAWSV

A 
Fever
Lethargy
Anorexia
Weight loss
Night sweats
V+N
52
Q

Causes of high urea vs causes of low urea

A

High urea

  1. UGIB (or large protein meal)
  2. Dehydration/AKI

Low urea

  1. Severe liver dysfunction (synthesised in the liver)
  2. Malnutrition
  3. Pregnancy
53
Q

Why can girls with Turner’s syndrome inherit X linked disorders?

A

Because they only have one X chromosome

45XO

54
Q

Rinne’s positive vs Rinne’s negative

A

Rinne’s positive = Louder in air

Rinne’s negative = Louder on the bone

55
Q

Ototoxic drugs

A
  • Aminoglycoside antibiotics e.g. gentamycin
  • Loop diuretics e.g. furosemide
  • Aspirin overdose
56
Q

3 top global causes of blindness
vs
3 UK causes of irreversible blindness

A

Global causes of blindness

  1. Cataract
  2. Galucoma
  3. Macular degeneration

UK causes of irreversible blindness

  1. AMD (leading cause of visual loss in the UK)
  2. Glaucoma + optic nerve
  3. Diabetic retinoapthy
57
Q

Leading causes of avoidable visual impairement vs leading causes of avoidable blindness

A

Avoidable visual impairement

  1. cataracts
  2. uncorrected refractive errors

Avoidable blindness

  1. Unoperated cataract
  2. Glaucoma
58
Q

leading causes of blindness in children

A
  1. cataracts
  2. retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)
  3. vitamin A deficiency
59
Q

Normal visual field

A

Normal field extends 60º nasal & superior, 70 º inferior & 90-100 º temporal to fixation

https://entokey.com/wp-content/uploads/2016/07/DA1-DB3-DC2-C49-FF1.gif

60
Q

Features of rhabdomyalisis

A

Dark urine + High CK + Hyperkalaemia + fall

61
Q

Anion gap equation

A

Generally used formula, K is excluded on the grounds that its value is small enough to be disregarded

Na - (Cl + HCO3)
Formula used when the value of the K is expected to vary significantly as in renal patients (+ is the one that is on bb)

(Na + K) - (Cl+ HCO3)

normal anion gap 4-12

62
Q

Plasma osmolarity equation

A

2 (Na+K) + glucose + urea

63
Q

Causes of a wide anion gap

A

Normal anion gap 4-12

KULT
Ketones
Uraemia
Lactate
Toxins (aspirin, paracetamol, isonazide, polythene glycol)
64
Q

What is pyoderma gangrenosum?

A

complicaton of inflammatory diseases (e.g. Crohn’s, UC, RA) or haematological malignancies
Dark blue/purple halo around it

65
Q

• European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel (EPUAP) – four grades of pressure ulcers

A

o Grade 1 – non-blanching erythema of intact skin
o Grade 2 – partial thickness skin loss or blistering
o Grade 3 – full thickness skin loss, SC may be visible, no underlying tendons/bone/muscles visible
o Grade 4 – full thickness tissue loss with involvement of muscle/bone/tendon. May be covered with thick slough or eschar

66
Q

Coeliac trunk
SMA
IMA

Levels

A

T12
L1
L3

67
Q

Which class of drugs increases risk of bleeding form diverticular disease?

A

NSAIDs

68
Q

Metoclopramide indications and contraindications

A

Since metoclopramide is a prokinetic, it is

  • Indicated in gastroparesis (delayed gastric emptying see in DM and cause vomiting with partially digested food)
  • Contra-indicated in bowel obstruction
69
Q

Anti- emetic for patients suffering with PD

A

Domperidone

70
Q

Anti- emetic for chemo

A

Ondansendron

71
Q

Anti-emetic for bowel obstruction, post-operative nausea, motion sickness, other labyrinthine aertiologies

A

Cyclizine (anit-histamine + anti-muscuarinic)

Anti-kinetic therefore can be used in Bowel obstruction

72
Q

Anti-emetic for N+V induced by drugs + metabolic causes

A

Haloperidol

D2 antagonist, blocks D2 receptors found in CTZ

73
Q

Anti-emetic for N+V induced by motion sickness

A

Need to block histamine and ach receptors

Promethazine - H1 antagonist
Hyoscine - Ach antagonist

74
Q

signs of metastatic abdominal cancer

A
  • Virchow’s node – Troisier’s sign

* Sister Mary Joseph node – metastatic nodule on umbilicus

75
Q

Most common valves affected in rheumatic fever

A

mitral + aortic mostly affected

mitral > aortic

76
Q

A female patient presents with a lateral neck lump that you think is a parotid mass. Which is the most important in your examination of this patient?

A

Examine the facial nerve

A facial nerve palsy is highly suggestive of an invasive and therefore malignant parotid tumour

77
Q

How to classify haemorrhagic shock

Class 1-4
Blood loss ml
Blood loss % of blood
HR
SBP
DBP
RR
UO
Mental state
A

https://www.researchgate.net/profile/Sam_Thomson2/publication/227027828/figure/tbl2/AS:393858908213258@1470914689653/Classification-of-hypovolemic-shock-68.png

78
Q

Osteosclerotic lesions on XR found in

A
  • Prostate ca mets
  • Breast ca mets
  • Paget’s disease of the bone
79
Q

OSA - most common + hallmark symptom

A

excessive daytime sleepiness

80
Q

HLA-DR1

HLA-DR4

A

RA

81
Q

a1 antitrypsin deficiency casues…

Inheritance pattern
Chromosome

A

Emphsyema
Liver cirrhosis

AR inheritance, Chr 14

82
Q

What is a Marjolin ulcer?

A

A squamous cell carcinoma

refers to an aggressive ulcerating squamous cell carcinoma presenting in an area of previously traumatized, chronically inflamed, or scarred skin

Long standing fungating venous ulcer = suggests malignancy or infection
chronic venous ulcer has transformed into a squamous cell carcinoma

• Signs
o Foul-smelling, overgrown, elevated edges
o Scarred surrounding skin, features of long-standing venous insufficiency (hemosiderin deposition (skin pigmentation), Lipodermatosclerosis, Atrophie blanche)

• Investigations
o Biopsies of the peripheral area of the ulcer in order to obtain histological confirmation (central area is likely to contain necrotic tissue which is hard to visualise for a histological diagnosis)

• Management
o Wide excision
o Split skin grafting

83
Q

Give examples of the 5 types of hypersensitivities

A

Type I

  • Asthma
  • Hay Fever
  • Peanut allergies

Type II

  • Acute haemolytic reaction to ABO incompatibility
  • ITP

Type III

  • Post-strep glomerulonephritis
  • Rheumatic fever
  • SLE

Type IV

  • Contact dermatitis
  • Transplant rejection
  • Hashimotos

Type V

  • Grave’s
  • MG
84
Q

Staging systems

Duke's
Ann Arbor
Breslow
Clark
Gleason
A 
Duke's - colorectal cancer
Ann Arbor - lymphoma
Breslow - malignant melanoma (thickness)
Clark - malignant melanoma (depth of invasion into skin layers)
Gleason - prostate cancer
85
Q

How to differentiate between the different causes of back pain

Spinal stenosis
Spondylosis
Spondylolisthesis
Spinal tumours

A

Spinal stenosis
Pain relieved when sitting/leaning forwards
Caused by narrowing of the spinal canal due to spondylosis

Presents with: a)back pain + b) sciatica

Pain worse when spine is extended  going downhill, walking
Pain better when spine is flexed  going uphill, sitting

Spondylosis
Pain worse in the morning + following activity

Spondylolisthesis
Pain worse when standing

Spinal tumours
Pain is unremitting
Associated with systemic features e.g. weight loss, night sweats

86
Q

List

Gram -ve cocci
Gram +ve cocci
Gram -ve rods
Gram +ve rods

A

Gram -ve cocci – Neisseria gonorrhoea, Neisseria meningitides
Gram +ve cocci – Staphylococci, Streptococci
Gram -ve rods – E. coli, Salmonella, Haemophilus influzeza, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Enterobacter, H pylori
Gram +ve rods – C. difficile, Listeria

87
Q

Patient on warfarin and

High INR (5-9) + no bleeding
Significantly raised INR (>9) + no bleeding
High INR + active bleeding

mx

A

High INR + no bleeding  omit a dose of warfarin

Significantly raised INR + no bleeding  omit a dose of warfarin + oral dose of vitamin K

High INR + active bleeding  oral/IV vitamin K + prothrombin complex concentrate (contains F 2, 7, 9, 10)

88
Q

How does alcohol cause hypoglycaemia?

A

It increases insulin secretion

89
Q

NSAID contra-indications

A

Asthma – can cause bronchospasm
Hx of gastric/duodenal ulcers – can cause gastric erosions + ulcerations
Aspirin – severe risk of GIB from gastric erosions + ulcerations
Moderate/severe HF – can cause fluid retention
Diverticular disease - increases the risk of bleeding

90
Q

Antidotes for

Antimuscarinic overdose
Aspirin overdose 
Benzodiazepine overdose
BB overdose 
CO poisoning 
Digoxin overdose 
Heparin overdose
Iron overdose 
Methanol overdose
Paracetamol overdose
Warfarin overdose
A 
Antimuscarinic overdose – Physostigmine
Aspirin overdose – activated charcoal, sodium bicarbonate
Benzodiazepine overdose – flumazenil
BB overdose – atropine, glucagon
CO poisoning – O2
Digoxin overdose – digibind
Heparin overdose – protamine
Iron overdose – desferrioxamine 
Methanol overdose – ethanol
Paracetamol overdose – N-acetylcysteine
Warfarin overdose – vitamin K
91
Q

SE of abx

Co-amoxiclav 
Erythromycin (macrolides) 
Gentamicin 
Nitrofurantoin 
Ciprofloxacin (quinolones)
A

Co-amoxiclav – cholestatic jaundice, deranged LFTs
Erythromycin (macrolides) – diarrhoea (macrolides increase GI motility)
Gentamicin – nephrotoxicity
Nitrofurantoin – pulmonary fibrosis
Ciprofloxacin (quinolones) – tendon rupture

92
Q

Tumour markers

AFP 
bHCG 
ca15-3 
ca 19-9
calcitonin 
CEA 
Monoclonal IgG (paraprotein) 
Neurone specific enolase 
Placental ALP
PSA 
S-100 
Thyroglobulin
A

Tumour markers
AFP – HCC, 50-60% teratomas, not seminomas
bHCG – choriocarcinoma, 40-60% teratomas, 30% seminomas
ca15-3 – breast cancer
ca 19-9 – pancreatic cancer
calcitonin – medullary thyroid cancer
CEA – colorectal cancer
Monoclonal IgG (paraprotein) – multiple myeloma
Neurone specific enolase – small cell lung cancer
Placental ALP – ovarian carcinoma, testicular tumours
PSA – prostate cancer
S-100 – malignant melanoma
Thyroglobulin – thyroid tumours

93
Q

Acute tumour lysis syndrome metabolic disturbances

A

Hyperuricaemia
Hyperkalaemia
Hyperphosphataemia
Hypocalcaemia

94
Q

Commonest cause of hypocalcaemia

A

Renal failure

95
Q

Universal recipient in blood transfusion

Universal donor in blood transfusion

A

Universal recipient in blood transfusion – AB+

Universal donor in blood transfusion – O-

96
Q

Commonest organism for a short history of traveller’s diarrhoea

if longer history consider

A

short history - E. coli

longer history - Giardia

97
Q

Valves affected in carcinoid syndrome vs valves affected in rheumatic fever

A

Carcinoid - tricuspid + pulmonary

Rheumatic fever - mitral>aortic>tricuspid

98
Q

A 23- year old woman with CF complicated by chronic cholestasis presents to her GP with a 1-week history of muscle weakness and tremor in her hands
She admits that she has been non compliant with her medications
Neurological examination reveals diminished tendon reflexes throughout
What is the most likely diagnosis

Hypoglycaemia
Vitamin K
Vitamin E
Vitamin B
Vitamin D
A

Vitamin E deficiency (fat soluble, may become deficiect in the setting of cholestasis)

Vitamin B is water soluble so cholestasis is not a RF for deficiency
Vitamin B deficiency may cause ataxia, memory problems, paraesthesia

Tremor + hyporeflexia are not common findings

99
Q

Hyponatraemia symptoms + signs

A

130-135 asymptomatic
125-130 non-specific symptoms (headaches, nausea, lethargy, muscle cramps)
<120 – neurological symptoms (seizures, hallucinations, confusion, memory loss)

If sodium drops acutely over 24-48h – cerebral oedema, coning, respiratory arrest

100
Q

Causes of onycholysis

A

DR PITHS

Drugs (TCAs, COCP, DM drugs, tetracyclines)
Reactive arthritis, Reiter’s syndrome

Psoriasis
Infection (esp fungal)
Trauma
Hyper/hypothyroidism
Sarcoidosis, scleroderma
101
Q

Tumour lysis syndrome biochemistry

A

Hyperkalemia
Hyperphosphatemia
Hypocalcemia
Hyperuricemia

Higher than normal levels of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and other nitrogen-containing compounds (azotemia)

102
Q

Breast cancer screening

A

50-70 every 3 years

103
Q

Felty syndrome is a triad of

A

RA
Splenomegaly
Neutropenia

Occurs in pt w a hx of RA
Neutropenia – pt suffers frequent infections

104
Q

Different stains

Ziehl Neelsen
Giemsa
India ink
Sudan black

A

Ziehl Neelsen – TB
Giemsa – Malaria
India ink – cryptococcus spp
Sudan black – AML

105
Q

Breast cancer screening

A

50-70 every 3 years

106
Q

Colorectal cancer screening

A

55 felx sig
60 - 74 FOBT every 2 years

if you’re 75 or over, you can ask for a home testing kit every 2 years by calling the free bowel cancer screening helpline on 0800 707 60 60

107
Q

Fluids used for volume resuscitation

A

Colloid
or
Blood

108
Q

Alport’s syndrome triad

A

Hereditary nephritis
Sensorineural deafness
Ocular abnormalities (cataracts, macular retinal flecks)

genetic defect in type 4 collagen

109
Q

Effect on potassium

Acidosis
vs
Alkalosis

A

Acidosis - hyperkalaemia
(K+ moves from intracellular to extracellular compartment in exchange for H+ ions)

Alkalosis - hypokalaemia
(H+ moves from the intracellular to the extracelluar compartment in exchange for K+ ions)

110
Q

How does Cushing’s syndrome / high levels of cortisol / steroids lead to increased risk of infections?

A

Decrease in circulating lymphocytes

Suppression of the innate immune + T cell responses resulting in lymphopenia

111
Q

Causes of erythema nodosum

A 
LOST BUSH 
Leprosy, lymphoma (NHL), leukaemia 
Oral contraceptive, pregnancy
Sarcoidosis, sulphonamides, penicillins
TB, toxoplasmosis

Bechet’s
UC, Crohn’s
Salmonella, Strep, Yersinia
Histoplasmosis

112
Q

What is Pemberton’s test

A

Test for SVC syndrome/obstruction

Ask the patient to lift their arms over their head for 1 minute
Facia plethora
Raised non-pulsatile JVP
Inspiratory stridor

113
Q

What is a Paradoxical embolism

A

Paradoxical embolism - DVT can cause a TIA by passing through a septal defect in the heart, thereby bypassing the lungs and travelling to the brain causing a stroke/TIA

114
Q

fluid challenge

no hf
hf

A

no heart failure - 500 ml 0.9% saline STAT

heart failure - 250 ml of 0.9% saline
This does not put as much strain on their physiology and risk the patient devoting worsening cardiac failure

115
Q

Fat embolism triad

A

Petechiae
Mental state changes
Dyspnoea

Y3 Charis (35 decks)

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