Scientific Basis of Vaccines Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 principles from Jenner’s experiments?

A

1) challenge dose - proves protection from infection
2) Concept of attenuation
3) Concept that prior exposure to agents boosts protective response
4) cross species protection - antigenic similarity

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2
Q

What were the three things that contributed to smallpox eradication?

A

➝ They had vaccination programmes
➝ Case finding (surveillance)
➝ movement control

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3
Q

What were the 5 things that made the eradication of smallpox possible?

A

1) No subclinical infecitons (no asymptomatic spreaders)
2) after recovery the virus was eliminated - no carrier states
3) No animal reservoir
4) effective vaccines
5) slow spread and poor transmission

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4
Q

What is the definition of a vaccine?

A

➝ material from an organism that will :
➝ actively enhance adaptive immunity
➝ produces an immunologically primed state that allows for rapid secondary immune response on exposure to the antigen
➝ prevent disease but not infection

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5
Q

What are the 4 complications in measles?

A

➝ 1 in 15 pneumonia
➝ otitis media
➝ bronchitis
➝ 1 in 5000 encephalitis

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6
Q

What are the 2 complications of the measles vaccine?

A

➝ 1 in 1000 fever/convulsions

➝ 1 in 400,000 meningo-encephalitis

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7
Q

What is one complication of diphtheria?

A

➝ 5% mortality

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8
Q

What is one complication of the diphtheria vaccine?

A

➝ occasional swelling

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9
Q

What are the 2 complications of whooping cough?

A

➝ 0.1% mortality

➝ frequent pneumonia, encephalopathy

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10
Q

What is one complication of the whooping cough vaccine?

A

➝ 1 in 600,000 encephalopathy

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11
Q

How can active immunity be induced?

A

➝ Natural exposure
➝ Infection
➝ Vaccination

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12
Q

What is the duration of active immunity?

A

➝ long term

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13
Q

How does passive immunity occur?

A

➝ prophylaxis / treatment

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14
Q

What is the duration of passive immunity?

A

➝ short term

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15
Q

Give three examples of passive immunity?

A

➝ anti-tetanus serum from horses in WW1 decreased mortality by 30x
➝ post-exposure protection in rabies + vaccine
➝pooled human immune serum with high amounts of antibodies to protect babies from VZV

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16
Q

How long does it take for an antibody response during primary exposure?

A

➝ 5-7 days

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17
Q

How long does it take for a full response during primary exposure?

A

➝ 2 weeks

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18
Q

What class switching occurs in antibodies during a primary exposure?

A

➝ IgM ➝ IgG

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19
Q

How long does a full response take during secondary exposure?

A

➝ 2 days

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20
Q

What components are used to make a vaccine from a bacteria or a virus and why?

A

➝ usually surface proteins
➝ if you use a protein from inside the bacteria or virus, the body never comes into contact with the protein because it is internal

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21
Q

What are good targets for vaccines?

A

➝ Surface proteins
➝ polysaccharides
➝ toxins

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22
Q

What are 4 important considerations when vaccinating?

A

1) inducing the correct type of response
2) Inducing the response in the right place
3) duration of protection
4) age of vaccination

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23
Q

What kinds of responses are induced with polio and TB?

A

➝ Polio : antibodies

➝ TB : cell mediated immunity

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24
Q

Where should the immune response be with flu, polio and yellow fever?

A

➝ flu, polio : mucosal

➝ yellow fever : systemic

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25
Q

Why do you need a mucosal response with the flu and polio?

A

➝ Flu affects the respiratory system

➝ polio affects the gut

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26
Q

Which one of paraenteral and oral vaccines provide the best mucosal immunity?

A

➝ oral vaccines because they are processed by MALT (mucosal associated lymphoid tissue) and have good IgA

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27
Q

What are short term vaccines and why do you need them?

A

➝ during travel

➝ only antibodies

28
Q

Why do you need booster vaccines?

A

➝ natural immunity decreases

➝ seasonal epidemics

29
Q

What disease has a long incubation time?

A

➝ measles

30
Q

Which disease has a short incubation time?

A

➝ cholera

31
Q

Where is it difficult to induce long-lasting immunity?

A

➝ at mucosal surfaces

32
Q

What antibodies are in breast milk and how long do they last?

A

➝ IgA

➝ 6 months

33
Q

Why are maternal antibodies in neonates a problem with live attenuated vaccines?

A

➝ the virus is neutralised by the maternal antibody

34
Q

What are 5 examples of live attenuated vaccines?

A
➝ BCG
➝ polio 
➝ MMR
➝ yellow fever
➝ VZV
35
Q

What is a monotypic infection?

A

➝ measles is not very different across the types of measles (low antigenic variability) so you only get it once

36
Q

What is a polytypic infection?

A

➝ flu and gonorrhoea (high antigenic variability) so you can get it multiple times

37
Q

What are most antigens?

A

➝ immunogenic but not immunoprotective

38
Q

How many mutations does polio have?

A

➝ 57

39
Q

What are 5 examples of killed whole organism vaccines?

A
➝ pertussis
➝ flu
➝ polio
➝ cholera
➝ hep A
40
Q

Why does a live vaccine not need boosting?

A

➝ the live vaccine survives long enough to induce good protective immunity
➝ virus keeps multiplying so the immune response is greater

41
Q

What do subunit vaccines use?

A
➝ Proteins
➝ Toxoids
➝ Peptides
➝ polysaccharides 
➝ recombinant
➝ sub-cellular fractions
➝ surface antigens
➝ virulence determinant
42
Q

What modifications do polysaccharide vaccines have to undergo and why?

A

➝ Conjugated to a toxoid + outer membrane protein

➝ because children under the age of two don’t recognise polysaccharides

43
Q

What are recombinant vaccines?

A

➝ proteins that are injected into yeast or bacteria to replicate

44
Q

Which vaccines use surface antigens?

A

➝ Hepatitis B
➝ influenza haemagglutinin
➝ meningitis B

45
Q

What is a virulence determinant example?

A

➝ aP pertussis ➝ adhesion + toxoid + OMMP

46
Q

How are toxoids formed?

A

➝ toxins inactivated with formaldehyde

47
Q

What 3 diseases are toxin mediated?

A

➝ Diphtheria
➝ whooping cough
➝ tetanus

48
Q

What do toxoid vaccines induce?

A

➝ antibody responses that neutralise toxins

49
Q

Why are bacterial capsular polysaccharides not used?

A

➝ poor antigens and short term memory
➝ no T cell immunity
➝ less immunogenic in children less than 2 years old
➝ poor IgG2 responses

50
Q

What is the function of IgG2?

A

➝ IgG2 promotes opsonisation and major recognition of polysaccharides

51
Q

How do you enhance the immunogenicity of bacterial capsular polysaccharides?

A

➝ protein conjugation

52
Q

What do toxoids + outer membrane proteins lead to?

A

➝ long lasting immunity and response in children

53
Q

What is the MenC vaccine?

A

➝ Neisseia Meningitidis group C

54
Q

What is the Hib vaccine?

A

➝ Haemophilus influenzae type B

55
Q

What does conjugation do?

A

➝ links polysaccharide antigen to protein carrier that the infant’s immune system already recognises in order to provoke an immune response

56
Q

What happens if you only use a polysaccharide in a vaccine?

A

➝ poor recognition and no T cell help

57
Q

What happens if you link a polysaccharide to a protein in a vaccine?

A

➝ The B cell recognises the protein
➝ it presents the protein to a T cell that recruits cytokines to help the B cell make much more specific and potent antibodies

58
Q

What are vaccine adjuvants?

A

➝ Chemical or lipid structures that enhance the immune response using the vaccine components

59
Q

What are the 3 functions of vaccine adjuvants?

A

➝ enhance the immune response to antigens
➝ promote uptake and antigen presentation
➝ stimulate correct cytokine profiles

60
Q

What is an example of a vaccine adjuvant?

A

➝ aluminium salts

61
Q

What are the 3 functions of aluminium salts?

A

➝ Form trapped particles
➝ slow release of antigen
➝ large number of Mps exposed

62
Q

What are the advantages of live attenuated vaccines?

A

➝ long lived immunity

➝ good immune response

63
Q

What are the disadvantages of live attenuated vaccines?

A
➝ requires cold chain
➝ insufficient attenuation
➝ reversion 
➝ immunosuppressed 
➝ foetal damage
64
Q

What are the advantages of whole killed organisms?

A

➝ short or long
➝ IgG
➝ poor CMI
➝ stable

65
Q

What are the disadvantages of whole killed organisms?

A

➝ inactivation and immunogenicity
➝ contamination
➝ toxicity/allergy
➝ autoimmunity