Flight Planning and Procedures

Question 1

Weather products required for preflight planning, current and forecast weather for departure, en route, and arrival phases of flight.

Answer 1

a . Aviation Routine Weather Reports-METARs, SPECis
b. Aircraft observations-PIREPS
c. Radar (NEXRAD) and satellite observations (AWC, NWS)
d. Surface analysis charts
e. Ceiling and Visibility Analysis (CVA), weather depiction chart
f. Upper air analysis-constant pressure analysis, skew-T diagram
g. SIGMETs, AIRMETs, G-AIRMETs
h. Center Weather Advisories (CWA)
i. Convective outlooks (AC)
J. Graphical Forecasts for Aviation (GFA)
k. Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF)
I. Winds and temperatures aloft (FB)
m. Current and forecast icing products (CIP/FIP) and freezing level graphics
n. Short-range prognostic charts
o. Significant weather forecast (SIGWX)

Question 2

What is an RMI?

Answer 2

• RMI is an abbreviation for radio magnetic indicator.
• It is an aircraft navigational instrument coupled with a gyro compass
• indicates the direction of a selected NAVAID (NDB or VOR) and indicatetes bearing with respect to the heading of the aircraft.

Question 3

What is an HSI?

Answer 3

• The HSI (horizontal situation indicator
• combines the heading indicator with a CDI

Question 4

What is RNAV?

Answer 4

• RNAV (area navigation)
• computing the airplane position, actual track an ground speed
• Provides: distance, time, bearing and crosstrack error relative to the selected TO or “active” waypoint and the selected route.
• Present day RNAV includes VOR/DME, an GPS systems.

Question 5

What is DME

Answer 5

• Equipment (airborne and ground) used to measure, in nautica miles
• the slant range distance of an aircraft from the DME navigationa aid.

Question 6

What is the effective range distance for DME?

Answer 6

• Reliable signals may be received at distances up to 199 NM at line-of-sight altitude with an accuracy of better than 1/ 2 mile or 3 percent of th distance, whichever is greater.
• Distance information received from DME equipment is SLANT RANGE distance and not actual horizontal distance.

Question 7

Give a brief description of GPS

Answer 7

• The Global Positioning System (GPS)
• determine precise position anywhere in the world.
• A mjnimum of four satellites is necessary for receivers to establish an accurate three-dimensional position.

Question 8

Can handheld GPS receivers and GPS systems certified
for VFR operations be used for IFR operations?

Answer 8

No, for the following reasons:
a. RAIM capability - VFR GPS receivers and all handheld units
have no RAIM alerting capability.
b. Database currency
c. Antenna location - In many VFR installations of GPS
receivers, antenna location is more a matter of convenience than
performance. In IFR installations, care is exercised to ensure
that an adequate clear view is provided for the antenna to see
satellites.

Question 9

Required preflight preparations for an IFR flight using GPS for navigation should include a review of what information?

Answer 9

• certified for the operation.
• Verify that the databases
• GPS and WAAS NOTAMs.
• GPS RAIM availability for non-WAAS receivers.
• Review the operational status of ground-based NAVAIDs and related aircraft equipment (e.g., 30-day VOR check) appropriate to the route of flight, terminal operations, instrument approaches at the destination, and alternate airports at ETA.
• Determine that the GPS receiver operation manual or airplane flight manual supplement is on board and available for use.

Question 10

How often must electronic navigation databases used
for IFR flight be updated? (

Answer 10

• The navigation database is updated every 28 days.
• Obstacle databases may be updated every 56 days, and terrain and airport databases are updated as needed.

Question 11

Within which frequency band does the VOR equipment
operate?

Answer 11

VHF band - 108.00 through 117.95 MHz

Question 12

What are the different methods for checking the
accuracy of VOR equipment?

Answer 12

a. VOT check; ±4°
b. Ground checkpoint; ±4°
c. Airborne checkpoint; ±6°
d. Dual VOR check; 4° between each other
e. Select a radial over a known ground point; ±6°

Question 13

What records must be kept concerning VOR checks?

Answer 13

Each person making a VOR check shall enter the date, place, and
bearing error and sign the aircraft log

Question 14

Where can a pilot find the location of the nearest VOT
testing stations? (

Answer 14

Locations of airborne check points, ground check points and VOTs
are published in the Chart Supplement U.S.

Question 15

How may the course sensitivity be checked on a VOR
receiver?

Answer 15

• course sensitivity may be checked by recording the number of degrees of change in the course selected as you rotate the OBS to move the CDI from center to the last dot on either side.
• The course selected should not exceed 10° or 12° either side.

Question 16

How can a pilot determine if a VOR or VORTAC has been
taken out of service for maintenance?

Answer 16

• Coded identification (or code and voice, where applicable) is removed from certain FAA NAVA!Ds.
• And facility is officially off the air for tune-up or repair and may be unreliable even though intermittent or constant signals are received.

Question 17

If a diversion to an alternate airport becomes necessary
due to an emergency, what procedure should be used?

Answer 17

• Consider relative distance to all suitable alternates;
• Select the one most appropriate for the emergency at hand;
• Determine magnetic course to alternate and divert immediately;
• Wind correction, actual distance and estimated time/fuel can then be computed while enroute to alternate.

Question 18

How can the course to an alternate be computed
quickly?

Answer 18

use a straight edge and the compass roses shown at VOR stations on the chart.

• Distances can be determined by placing a finger at the appropriat place on a straight edge of a piece of paper and then measurin the approximate distance on the mileage scale at the bottom of the chart.

Question 19

What information is provided by a maximum elevation figure on a sectional chart?

Answer 19

The maximum elevation figure (MEF) represents the highest elevation
, including terrain and other vertical obstacles (towers, trees,
etc.), within a quadrant.

MEF figures are depicted in thousands and rounded to the nearest hundred feet above mean sea level.

Question 20

What recommended entry and departure procedures
should be used at airports without an operating control
tower?

Answer 20

• Enter the pattern in level flight, abeam the midpoint of the runway at pattern altitude.
• Maintain pattern altitude until abeam the approach end of the landing runway on the downwind leg.
• Complete the turn to final at least 1/4. mile from the runway.
• When departing a traffic pattern, continue straight out, or exit with a 45-degree turn (to the left when in a left-hand traffic pattern; to the right when in a right-hand traffic pattern) beyond the departure end of the runway, after reaching pattern altitude.

Question 21

What are the recommended traffic advisory practices at
airports without an operating control tower?

Answer 21

communicate as appropriate on the designated CT AF from 10 miles to landing.

Question 22

A large or turbine-powered aircraft is required to enter Class D airspace at what altitude?

Answer 22

• Unless otherwise required by the applicable distance-from-clouds criteria,
• enter the traffic pattern at an altitude of at least 1,500 feet above the elevation and maintain until landing