91. Stomach Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

What are the four regions of the stomach?

A

Cardia, Fundus, Body, Pyloric

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2
Q

What is the incisura angularis?

A

Intraluminal protrusion of tissue at the midpoint of the lesser curvature

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3
Q

What does the incisura angularis separate?

A

Antrum and body

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4
Q

Where does the papillary process of the liver lie?

A

In the angular notch

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5
Q

What are the parts of the greater omentum?

A

Bursal, splenic, and veil portions

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6
Q

What does the lesser omentum attach to?

A

The liver and the stomach

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7
Q

What artery supplies the greater curvature of the stomach?

A

Gastroepiploic artery

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8
Q

What are the three main branches of the celiac artery?

A

Splenic, hepatic, and left gastric arteries

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9
Q

What artery supplies the pylorus and pyloric antrum?

A

Right gastric artery

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10
Q

What does the hepatic artery continue as after branching to the liver and gallbladder?

A

Gastroduodenal artery

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11
Q

What does the gastroduodenal artery supply?

A

Right pancreatic limb and greater curvature of the stomach

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12
Q

What artery supplies the fundus of the stomach?

A

Left gastric artery

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13
Q

Where does the venous drainage of the stomach occur?

A

Portal vein through the splenic vein and gastroduodenal vein

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14
Q

Which lymph nodes are involved in the lymphatic drainage of the stomach?

A

Gastric, splenic, and hepatic lymph nodes

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15
Q

What nerves innervate the stomach?

A

Vagus nerves and sympathetic fibers of the celiac plexus

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16
Q

How many muscle layers does the stomach have?

A

Three layers: longitudinal, circular, and oblique

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17
Q

What are the four layers of the gastric wall?

A

Serosa, muscle, submucosa, and mucosa

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18
Q

Which muscle layer of the stomach is not present in the fundus?

A

Circular layer

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19
Q

Where do the oblique muscle fibers of the stomach primarily lie?

A

Body and fundic areas

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20
Q

What type of tissue is found in the submucosa of the stomach?

A

Elastic areolar tissue

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21
Q

What are the three types of glands in the stomach?

A

Cardiac, pyloric, and gastric glands proper

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22
Q

Where are the cardiac glands primarily located?

A

Around the cardia and antrum

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23
Q

What do the pyloric glands primarily produce?

A

Mucus

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24
Q

What cells are found in the gastric glands of the fundus and body?

A

Parietal, chief, mucous neck, and endocrine cells

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25
What is the primary function of parietal (oxyntic) cells?
Maintain gastric acidic pH and produce intrinsic factor
26
What do chief cells secrete?
Pepsinogen
27
What do mucous neck cells secrete?
Mucus
28
What hormones do gastric endocrine cells produce?
Gastrin, histamine, and serotonin
29
What initiates the process of swallowing?
Receptive relaxation
30
What is the result of gastric accommodation?
Further relaxation of the fundus
31
What is contractile retropulsion?
Process that reduces food particles to an appropriate size for gastric emptying
32
How does the gastric mucosa repair superficial epithelial injuries?
Epithelial migration without proliferation
33
What type of injury is considered an ulcer in the stomach?
Injury extending into the submucosal layer
34
What enhances healing in the stomach?
Extensive and redundant blood supply
35
How long should food be withheld before surgery?
8 to 12 hours
36
What effect does longer fasting times have on gastric pH in dogs?
Decreases gastric pH
37
What is gastroesophageal reflux and its occurrence rate in dogs undergoing anesthesia for orthopedic procedures?
Reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus; 57% occurrence rate
38
What medications can be given to increase gastric pH before surgery?
Proton pump inhibitors or histamine2 (H2) receptor blockers
39
What is the purpose of incisional gastropexy?
To attach the stomach to the abdominal wall
40
What is a belt-loop gastropexy?
Seromuscular flap passed through a tunnel created in the abdominal wall
41
What is a circumcostal gastropexy?
Seromuscular flap wrapped around a rib
42
What surgical approach is used for a minimally invasive prophylactic gastropexy?
Grid approach minilaparotomy
43
What is the Y-U pyloroplasty technique used for?
Increase pyloric outflow tract diameter
44
What is the purpose of a Fredet-Ramstedt pyloromyotomy?
Relieve pyloric outflow obstruction without penetrating the gastric mucosa
45
What type of incision is made in a Heineke-Mikulicz pyloroplasty?
Longitudinal full-thickness incision closed transversely
46
What is the Billroth I procedure?
Pylorectomy with gastroduodenal anastomosis
47
What is the primary goal of pyloroplasty procedures?
To remove outflow obstruction and normalize gastric outflow
48
What is a possible complication after pylorectomy and gastroduodenostomy?
Hypoalbuminemia and anemia
49
What is the prognosis after pylorectomy and gastroduodenostomy?
Depends on the underlying disease
50
What is the function of the ventral vagal trunk in the stomach?
Sends small branches to the pylorus, liver, and lesser curvature
51
What does the dorsal vagal trunk supply in the stomach?
Lesser curvature and ventral wall
52
What do sympathetic fibers of the celiacomesenteric plexus follow?
Gastric branches of the celiac artery
53
What are the common clinical signs of gastric disorders?
Vomiting and regurgitation
54
What medications may be administered to reduce gastric secretions before surgery?
Anticholinergics such as atropine or glycopyrrolate
55
What surgical principle is followed for visualizing the dorsal surface of the stomach?
Transection of hepatogastric and hepatoduodenal ligaments
56
What is used to determine tissue viability in the stomach?
Serosal surface color, thickness, capillary perfusion, and peristalsis
57
What dye can be used to assess tissue viability in the stomach?
Fluorescein dye
58
What surgical technique is used for gastric wall invagination?
Inverting suture pattern
59
What is the result of gastric wall invagination?
Devitalized area is sloughed into the gastric lumen
60
What are the methods of gastropexy?
Incisional, belt-loop, circumcostal, endoscopically assisted, laparoscopic
61
What is the purpose of laparoscopic-assisted gastropexy?
To prevent recurrence of gastric dilation
62
What is the Fredet-Ramstedt pyloromyotomy procedure used for?
Relieve pyloric outflow obstruction without penetrating the gastric mucosa
63
What is the purpose of a Heineke-Mikulicz pyloroplasty?
Increase pyloric outflow tract diameter
64
What is a Y-U pyloroplasty?
Advance a portion of the pyloric antrum into the pyloric sphincter
65
What is the Billroth II procedure?
Partial gastrectomy with gastrojejunal anastomosis
66
What is the prognosis for patients with gastric neoplasia?
Poor, especially with metastasis
67
What is the most common malignant epithelial tumor in dogs?
Gastric adenocarcinoma
68
What breed is commonly affected by gastric adenocarcinoma?
Belgian Shepherd Dogs, rough-coated Collies, Staffordshire Bull Terriers
69
What is the typical age range for dogs affected by gastric adenocarcinoma?
8 to 10 years
70
What is the main cause of gastric ulceration in dogs?
NSAID administration, renal and hepatic disease
71
What is the primary effect of NSAIDs on the gastric mucosa?
Decrease prostaglandin production, decrease blood flow, increase acid secretion
72
What is the clinical sign of gastric ulceration?
Vomiting, anorexia, melena
73
What medication can be used to block histamine H2 receptors?
Cimetidine, ranitidine, famotidine
74
What is the function of proton pump inhibitors in treating gastric ulcers?
Block secretion of hydrogen ions into the gastric lumen
75
What is the role of sucralfate in treating gastric ulcers?
Forms a protective barrier on ulcers
76
What is misoprostol used for in gastric ulcer treatment?
Increase bicarbonate secretion, mucus production, and blood flow
77
What is the surgical treatment for life-threatening gastric ulceration?
Surgical resection of the ulcerated area
78
What is the common cause of gastric perforation in dogs?
NSAID administration, neoplasia
79
What is the typical treatment for gastric dilatation volvulus (GDV)?
Surgical decompression, gastropexy
80
What breed is at higher risk for GDV?
Large breed dogs such as Great Danes and German Shepherds
81
What is the pathophysiology of GDV?
Rotation of the stomach causing obstruction and compression
82
What are the clinical signs of GDV?
Abdominal distention, unproductive retching
83
What radiographic finding is indicative of GDV?
Right lateral radiograph showing a double bubble
84
What laboratory finding is often associated with GDV?
Increased plasma lactate concentration
85
What is the preferred method for fluid resuscitation in GDV?
Crystalloids, colloids, hypertonic saline
86
What is the purpose of gastric decompression in GDV?
Relieve pressure on the stomach and allow for repositioning
87
What anesthetic agents are used for GDV surgery?
Propofol, isoflurane, fentanyl
88
What is the significance of plasma lactate concentration in GDV?
Higher concentrations indicate poor prognosis
89
What are common postoperative complications of GDV surgery?
Peritonitis, sepsis, disseminated intravascular coagulation
90
What is the recurrence rate of GDV after gastropexy?
Low with proper surgical technique
91
What is the prognosis for GDV patients with plasma lactate concentration below 6.0 mmol/L?
Good with early intervention and proper treatment
92
What is the function of a prophylactic gastropexy?
Prevent recurrence of GDV
93
What are the four types of hiatal hernia?
Sliding, paraesophageal, mixed, organoaxial
94
What breed is commonly affected by congenital hiatal hernia?
Chinese Shar-Peis and English Bulldogs
95
What is the primary clinical sign of hiatal hernia?
Regurgitation and vomiting
96
What is the preferred diagnostic method for hiatal hernia?
Positive-contrast esophagram
97
What surgical techniques are used for hiatal hernia correction?
Phrenoplasty, esophagopexy, gastropexy
98
What is the typical postoperative care for hiatal hernia surgery?
Monitor for regurgitation, provide analgesia
99
What is gastroesophageal intussusception?
Stomach invaginates into the esophagus
100
What is the primary clinical finding in gastroesophageal intussusception?
Vomiting and regurgitation