Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Air Law > Chapter 4A Rules Of The Air (VFR) > Flashcards

Chapter 4A Rules Of The Air (VFR) Flashcards

1
Q

To what aircraft are rules of the air applicable to?

A

Apply to aircraft bearing national registration marks of an ICAO state wherever the mag be to the extent that they don’t conflict with rules published by the state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Do the rules still apply over the high seas?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the VMC minima at or above FL100?

A
  • 8km visibility
  • 1500m horizontal separation from clouds
  • 300m vertical separation from cloud
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the VMC minima below FL100?

A
  • 5km visibility
  • 1500m horizontal separation from clouds
  • 300m vertical separation from clouds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In airspace classes F and G what are the VMC minima?

A

Below 3000ftAMSL (or 1000ft over terrain):

  • 5km of visibility
  • clear of cloud and insight of ground
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define a commander

A

A designated pilot who is qualified as a PIC who may delegate the conduct of the flight to another qualified pilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define a PIC?

A

A pilot who is responsible for the operation and safety of the flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the responsibilities of the commander?

A
  • Compliance with rules of the air
  • planning the flight
  • study all available met reports
  • consider fuel and plan alternates
  • has final authority
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When is the only time an aircraft can be flown over congested areas of cities, towns or settlements?

A

Takeoff, landing or with the authority permission

You must be high enough to glide away form that area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the minimum cruise altitude?

A

At or above the lowest usable flight level

If below transition altitude use altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What shall the aircraft that has right of way do if a collision threat exits?

A

Maintain heading and speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What must the aircraft that is obliged to give way do?

A

Avoid passing under, over or in front of it unless well clear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When approaching head on what just aircraft?

A

Both turn right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is classed as head on?

A

20 degrees either side of nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the rules when aircraft are converging and are the same type?

A

The ac that has the ac on its right must give way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What aircraft have priority over powered heavier than air aircraft?

A

Airships, gliders and balloons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What shall airships give way to?

A

Gliders and balloons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What shall give way to balloons?

A

Gliders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

During an overtaking situation who has right of way?

A

The aircraft being overtaken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is classed as overtaking?

A

70 degrees either side of the longitudinal axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Who has right of way between the aircraft on the ground and on final?

A

The one landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

For two heavier that aircraft on approach who has right of way?

A

The lower aircraft (should not take advantage of this by cutting in front)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Who has right of way, an aircraft taxiing or the aircarft taking off?

A

The aircraft on takeoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When can an aircarft proceed beyond a stop bar?

A

When it’s lights are switched off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When approaching head on on the ground what must be done ?

A

Both must stop and if practicable turn right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When converging on the ground who has to give way?

A

The aircraft that has the other aircraft on its right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What must every vehicle have when operating on the manoevering area?

A

2 way radio contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the movement area?

A

Aprons and taxiways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the purpose of nav lights?

A

Indicate relative oath of the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What aircraft lights required to be on in flight?

A

Beacon and nav lights

31
Q

What lights are required to be in in the movement area?

A

Nav lights and lights that indicate the extremities of the structure

32
Q

When can pilots turn off lights?

A

When they are likely to affect performance of duties and/or they may cause dazzle to people outside

33
Q

When is the beacon required to be on?

A
  • Day and night

- on engine start

34
Q

What is required to operate in simulated IMC?

A
  • dual controls
  • a qualified pilot acts as a safety pilot
  • must carried out in IMC
35
Q

What is the normal traffic pattern?

A

Left hand traffic unless otherwise told

36
Q

When are you permitted to not land into the wind?

A
  • safety
  • traffic considerations
  • rwy config
37
Q

What is a controlled aerodrome?

A

One that provides an ATS

38
Q

What is a controlled airspace?

A

Airspace that requires clearance to enter

39
Q

When is it mandatory to file a flight plan?

A
  • when flying IFR
  • when crossing international borders
  • when required by the ATS service
  • on advisory routes I’d you wish to use the advisory service
  • any flight over 40km in planes with MTOM over 5700kg
40
Q

How long must a flight plan be submitted before off blocks time?

A

60 mins (can be more)

41
Q

If a flight plan is submitted in flight how long before entering a control area or crossing an airway?

A

10 mins

42
Q

What times are used in flight plans?

A

UTC

43
Q

When shall a flight plan be amended or cancelled?

A
  • a delay of 30mins or more to EOBT (controlled flights)

- a delay of 1hr (uncontrolled flights)

44
Q

What is classed as a significant change to a flight plan?

A
  • changes regarding fuel endurance

- changes to POB

45
Q

When can repetitive flight plans be used?

A

The flight must be operated on:

  • the same day of consecutive weeks for at least 10 occasions
  • every day for a period of at least 10 consecutive days

(Can only be used for IFR flight plans)

46
Q

What does the arrival report consist of?

A
  • ac ID
  • departure airport
  • destination airport
  • actual arrival airport
  • time of arrival
47
Q

Define a clearance limit

A

The point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance

48
Q

When must a clearance be obtained?

A

Prior to conducting a controlled flight or a partially controlled flight

49
Q

How often are changeover points?

A

Every 60nm

50
Q

What can be done if conditions detroitste below VMC?

A

Flight plan can be amended to change destination to alternate or to leave airspace

51
Q

When do you no longer have to report position?

A

When you have been advised to “cease position reporting”

52
Q

What must a position report contain?

A
  • callsign
  • name of RP and time
  • FL
  • time to next rp
  • next rp
53
Q

What does the action after comms failure depend on?

A

The conditions (VMC or IMC)

54
Q

How will ATC confirm an ac has had a comms failure?

A

Execute a specific manoeuvre or transmit a signal in order to indicate acknowledgement

55
Q

What is the squawk code for comms failure?

A

7600 and mode C

56
Q

What must be done in IMC comms failure and is being radar vectored?

A
  • Squawk 7600
  • rejoin flight plan route
  • level no later than next significant point
57
Q

What must be done in IMC comms failure and is under radar?

A
  • squawk 7600
  • return to FDR
  • level after 7 mins
58
Q

What must be done in IMC comms failure and are enroute and not under radar?

A

Fly last assigned speed and level for 20 mins and thereafter fly according to fpl

59
Q

What is the squawk code for unlawful interference?

A

7500

60
Q

What visual signals during an interception can be used?

A

The ones according to appendix 1 of annex 2

61
Q

What shall an aircraft being intercepted do?

A
  • follow intercepting aircrafts signals
  • notify ATS
  • call the intercepting aircraft 121.5
62
Q

What squawk must be used for emergencies and interceptions?

A

7700 and mode c

63
Q

If there is a conflict between fighter and ATC who do you obey?

A

The fighter

64
Q

What does rocking of the wings to the left and ahead of the aircraft mean and how do you respond?

A

You have been intercepted follow me and rocks wings back

65
Q

When can you not takeoff in VFR?

A
  • when the ceiling is less than 450m

- when ground visibility is less than 5km

66
Q

Where VFR flights not be operated unless authorised?

A
  • above FL200
  • at transonic or supersonic speeds
  • above FL290 where RVSM applies
67
Q

What is the minimum height above the ground a VFR flight can fly?

A
  • Below 1000ft within a radius of 600m from the highest aircraft (city)
  • not below 500ft above ground or water
68
Q

Above 3000ft what flight levels must be followed and what is this based on?

A

The semi circular routes and based on magnetic track

69
Q

What is a controlled flight?

A

One that requires a clearance

70
Q

What must be entered into item 8 of flight plan when changing from VFR to IFR and vice versa?

A

VFR to IFR = Z (VIZ)

IFR to VFR = Y (IVY)

71
Q

Can ATC refuse permission to change from IFR to VFR and vice versa?

A

No

72
Q

What must the PIC do if wishing to change from VFR to IFR?

A
  • if a VFR flight plan was submitted PIC must comms changes

- if not mist submit an IFR flight plan and obtain clearance

73
Q

Define EET for Vfr?

A

Time from takeoff until overhead the destination

74
Q

What just controlled VFR flights do?

A
  • two way comms

- make position reports as necessary

Air Law (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions