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Basic Biochemistry > 11. Kevin Bryan Reviewer > Flashcards

11. Kevin Bryan Reviewer Flashcards

1
Q

organelle responsible for packaging proteins

A

golgi apparatus

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2
Q

organelle - ATP production

A

mitochondria

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3
Q

Unfolding of a molecule ≈ effects in entropy

A

large increase ÎÎ in entropy

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4
Q

decrease the activation energy of rxn

A

enzymes

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5
Q

the lower the Km of an enzyme ≈ effect on affinity

A

higher affinity

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6
Q

competitive inhibition can be overcome by

A

increasing the substrate

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7
Q

site of ETC (electron transport chain)

A

mitochondria

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8
Q

cyanide inhibits what COMPLEX of ETC?

A

Complex 4

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9
Q

Blocks electron transport and ATP synthesis by inhibiting the exchange of ATP and ADP across the inner mitochondrial membrane

ATP ADP

A

atractyloside

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10
Q

catalyzes rxn that yields wate and hydrogen peroxide

A

superoxide dismutase

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11
Q
  • unpaired electron
  • persist for short period of time
  • ex. superoxide dismutase
A

free radicals

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12
Q

glucose and galactose are epimers on

A

carbon 4

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13
Q

glucose and mannose are epimers on

A

carbon 2

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14
Q

Blocks electron transport and proton pumping at Complex III

A

azide

carbon monoxide

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15
Q

Blocks electron transport and proton pumping at Complex I.

A

rotenone

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16
Q

Blocks ATP synthesis without inhibiting electron transport by dissipating the proton gradient

A

DNP

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17
Q

Blocks electron transport and proton pumping at Complex II.

A

antimycin A

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18
Q

can be lethal because it binds to the ferric form of cytochrome oxidase and thereby inhibits oxidative phosphorylation

A

cyanide

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19
Q

mechanism for nitrite as an antidote to cyanide

A

Nitrite converts ferrohemoglobin into ferrihemoglobin, which also binds cyanide. Thus, ferrihemoglobin competes with cytochrome oxidase for cyanide. This competition is therapeutically effective because the amount of ferrihemoglobin that can be formed without impairing oxygen transport is much greater than the amount of cytochrome oxidase.

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20
Q
  • higher Km
  • not easily saturated
  • isoenzyme of hexokinase
  • ACTIVE in fed state
A

glucokinase

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21
Q

T/F

Acety Coa can be converted to pyruvate in gluconeogenesis

A

FALSE

Fatty acids and ketogenic amino acids cannot be used to synthesize glucose. The transition reaction is a one-way reaction, meaning that acetyl-CoA cannot be converted back to pyruvate. As a result, fatty acids can’t be used to synthesize glucose, because beta-oxidation produces acetyl-CoA.
•Acety CoA - oxidized to CO2and H2O in TCA cycle
•used to synthesize cholesterol
•used to synthesize ketone bodies

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22
Q

5 cofactors of alpha ketoglutarate

A
  • Thiamine pyrophosphate (derived from thiamine)
  • flavin adenine dinucleotide (derived from riboflavin)
  • lipoic acid (derived from lipoic acid)
  • pantothenic acid as part of Coenzyme-A (CoA)
  • nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide NAD+ (derived from niacin
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23
Q

which of the following enzymes catalyze a rxn that yield FADH2 in citric acid cycle

A

succinate dehydrogenase

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24
Q

which TCA cycle intermediate participates in heme formation

A

succinyl CoA

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25
Q

Heme formation

•co-factor of the committed step

A

vitamin B6

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26
Q

the intermediate that links gluconeogenesis and ketogenesis in the liver

A

pyruvate

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27
Q 
glucose 6 phosphate participates in all processes except
•pentose phosphate pathway
•gluconeogenesis
•ketogenesis
•glycogenolysis
A

ketogenesis

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28
Q 
these processes occur inside the mitochondria except
•pentose phosphate pathway
•TCA cycle 
•beta oxidation
•ketogenesis
A

pentose phosphate pathway

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29
Q

what is the mechanism of hypoglycemia in acute ethanol intoxication

A

conversion of PYRUVATE to lactate

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30
Q

branching enzyme of glycogen metabolism is

A

glycogen branching enzyme AKA

amylo-(1,4→1,6)-transglycosylase

•branching enzyme that catalyzes the transfer of alpha-1,4-linked glucosyl units from the outer end of a glycogen chain to an alpha-1,6 position on the same or a neighboring glycogen chain.

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31
Q

is a state of glucose 6 phosphatase deficiency

A

Von Gierke’s

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32
Q

T/F

glycogenolysis occurs in muscle

A

TRUE

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33
Q

glycogen phosphorylase catalyzes the cleavage of glycogen to yield

A

glucose-1- phosphate

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34
Q
  • ptx with deficiency of glycogen phosphorylase in the liver
  • expected manifestations EXCEPT:
  • hepatomegaly
  • ketosis
  • lactic acidosis
  • marked hyperglycemia
A

FALSE-

•marked hyperglycemia

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35
Q

deficiency of glycogen phosphorylase is

A

Hers’ disease

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36
Q

glycogen storage disorder associated with hyperuricemia

A

Von Gierke’s disease

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37
Q

enzyme deficient in Von Gierke’s disease

A

glucose 6 phosphatase

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38
Q

pregnant woman with classic galactosemia

•at risk for

A

premature ovarian failure

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39
Q

High fructose in diet is unhealthy because if is metabolized faster than glycose because it bypasses step catalyzed by

A

phosphofructokinase 1

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40
Q
  • night sweats and tremors after fruit juice ingesiton
  • (+) fructose in urine
  • enzyme deficieny?
A

aldolase A

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41
Q

metabolic consequences of aldolase A deficiency

A
  • INCREASE FRUCTOSE 1 phosphate levels
  • hyperuricemia
  • allosteric inhibition of glycogen phosphorylase
  • depletion of ATP
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42
Q

which sugar contribute to cataract formation

A

sugar alcohol

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43
Q

which causes flatulence in lactose intolerance

A

bacteria in the gut

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44
Q

the main FATTY ACID in coconut milk

A

lauric acid

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45
Q

trans fats are manufactured by altering SATURATED fats usig

A

hydrogenation

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46
Q

end product of FATTY ACID synthsis

A

palmitic acid

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47
Q

what is the mechanism behind FATTY LIVER in chronic alcohol use

A

inc ÎÎ NADH prevents fatty acid oxidation forming triacylglycerols

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48
Q

ketone bodies

A

acetone
acetoacetate
beta hydroxybutyrate

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49
Q

steroid nucleus has ___ carbons

A

17

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50
Q

steroid nucleus resembles this ring

A

phenanthrene ring

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51
Q

cholesterol has a side chain at position

A

17

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52
Q

the consumption of cholesterol should be only up to ___ mg per day

A

300 mg

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53
Q

WELL FED STATE ≈ effect HMG-CoA reductase

A

HMG-CoA reductase - dephosphorylated

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54
Q

fate of short and medium chain FA after digestion

A

absorbed in the hepatic portal vein

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55
Q

Apolipoprotein C-II functions in breakdown of

A

VLDL and chylomicrons

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56
Q

which apoprotein is closely associated with alzheimer’s disease due to its capacity to avidly bind to beta amyloid plagues

A

Apo E-4

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57
Q

what is the basis of intestinal expression of apo B-48 lipoprotein

A

tssue specific RNA editing puts a stop to apoB mRNA translation

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58
Q

this component is responsible for transfer of CHOLESTEROL from tissues to other lipoproteins into HDL as esterified cholesterol allowing it to function in REVERSE CHOLESTEROL TRANSPORT

A

LCAT

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59
Q

T/F
•hypothyroidism
•diabetes mellitus
•nephrotic syndrome

-all are associated with abnormal lipoprotein patterns

A

TRUE

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60
Q

what familial disorder of lipoprotein metabolism has elevated levels of LDL

A

type 2

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61
Q

which familial lipoproteinemia gives
HIGH : chylomicron and VLDL
LOW : HDL, LDL

A

Type 1

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62
Q 
presents as •overproduction and increased levels of VLDL
•glucose intolerance 
•associated with coronary heart disease 
•type 2 DM
•obesity
A

familial hypertriglyeridemia

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63
Q

ASA given low dose for coronary artery disease exerts its beneficial effect by

A

inhibition of cyclooxygenase required for synthesis of THROMBOXANE

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64
Q

product of lipid metabolism —> platelet aggregatiion

A

TXA2

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65
Q

most basic amino acid

A

arginine

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66
Q

this enantiomer of amio acids naturally occur in proteins

A

L amino acids

67
Q

amino acids - containign phenol ring

A

tyrosine

68
Q

formation of GABA from glutamic acid is through

glutamic acid —» GABA

A

decarboxylation

69
Q

which cofactor is necesary for this rxn

glutamic acid ——» GABA
decarboxylation

A

pyridoxal phosphate

70
Q

gluthathione is synthesized in the body using

A

glutamate
glycine
cysteine

71
Q

AA responsible for antioxidant properties of gluthatione

A

cysteine

72
Q 
AAs that participate in synthesis of muscle creatine and subsequent breakdown into creatinine 
EXCEPT :
a. alanine
b. glycine
c. arginine
d. methionine
A

a. alanine

GAM ≈ creatinine

73
Q

a section of protein sufficient to perform a particular task

A

domain

74
Q

myoglobin has ___ domain/s

A

1 domain

75
Q

major component of most connective tissues

A

collagen

76
Q

nitric oxide is vasodilator derived from

A

arginine

77
Q

which mediators act on NMDA receptor

A

glutamate

78
Q

T/F

Pregnancy is a state of negative nitrogen balance

A

FALSE

79
Q

major process involved in metabolism of amino acids

A

transamination

80
Q

major coenzyme for transamination to form amino acids

A

vit B6

81
Q

AA that can be synthesized from intermediates of the TCA cycle EXCEPT

a. aspartate
b. proline
c. phenylalanine
d. glumate

A

phenylalanine

TCA = aspartate, proline, glutamate

82
Q

glucogenic amino acids

A 
Alanine
Arginine
Asparagine
Aspartic acid
Cysteine
Glutamic acid
Glutamine
Glycine
Histidine
Methionine
Proline
Serine
Valine
83
Q

Amino acids that are both glucogenic and ketogenic

A 
Amino acids that are both glucogenic and ketogenic (mnemonic "PITTT"):
Phenylalanine
Isoleucine
Threonine
Tryptophan
Tyrosine
84
Q

ketogenic amino acids

A

leucine

lysine

85
Q

Methionine can be metabilized and enter into TCA cycle as this intermediate

A

succinyl choline

86
Q

in methylmalonic acidura there is failure to metabolize this amio acids :

A

•methionine, threonine, isoleucine and valine;
M, T, I, V
•as a result methylmalonic acid builds up in the blood and tissues.

87
Q

an allosteric activator making carbamoyl phosphate 1 active only with its presence

A

N-acetyl-glutmate

88
Q

direct nitrogen donors in ureal cycle

A

aspartate

ammonia

89
Q

MAJOR nitrogen source for urea synthesis

A

glutamate

90
Q

hyperammonemia type 1 is enzyme deficiency of

A

carbamoyl phosphate synthase 1

91
Q

what is considered the most common urea cycle disorder

A

ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency

92
Q

the metabolic intermediate linking urea cycle to the TCA cycle

A

fumarate

93
Q

what happens to amino acid metabolism in uncontrolled DM

A

ÎÎ transamination rxns

94
Q

which among the following is considered the most severe of the urea cycle disorders

A

carbamoyl phosphate synthase 1 deficiency

95
Q
  • newborn - upon delivey, suddenly develops: •irritability, lethargy, hypothermia, and intermittent apnea
  • lab examination: ÎÎ ammonia levels, ÎÎ citrulline
  • what enzyme is deficient
A

argininosuccinate synthetase

96
Q
  • 2 day old - born healthy and without complications
  • 2nd day of life : vomiting, lethargy, hypothermia, feeding poorly, •inc RR, hepatomegaly
  • BUN, ÎÎ ammonia , ÎÎargininosuccinic acid both urine and blood

•what enzyme is deficient

A

ariginosuccinate lyase

97
Q

what enzyme deficiencies can lead to phenylketonuria

A
  • phenylalanine hydroxylase
  • tetrahydrobiopterin
  • dihydrobiopterin reductase
98
Q

in Maple Syrup Urine Disease, which amino acids could not be metabolize

A
  • valine
  • leucine
  • isoleucine

LIV

99
Q

which enzyme is deficient in MSUD

A

α-keto acid dehydrogenase

100
Q
  • infant - sweet, smeling urine, vomiting, lethargy, hypoglycemia
  • most likely disease condition
A

branch chain α-ketoacid dehydrogenase deficiency

101
Q

alkaptonuria prevents breaking down 2 amino acids, namely

A

Tyrosine
and
phenylalanine

102
Q

alkaptonuria results in build-up of ths chemical

A

homogentisic acid

103
Q

gene involved in alkaptonuria

A

HGD gene - code for homogentisate oxidase

104
Q

what disease caused deficiency of Porphobilinogen deaminase (hydroxymethylbilane synthase, or uroporphyrinogen I synthase)

A

acute intermittent porphyria

105
Q

which enzyme:

•hydrolysis of peptide bonds adjacent to aromatic, branched-chain mino acids, methionine

A

pepsin

106
Q

All of the following substances are implicated to ÎÎ appetite except

a. orexin
b. NPY
c. AgRP
d. GLP-1

A

d. GLP-1

107
Q

all substances are implicated to dec appetite except :

a. alpha MSG
b. CART
c. serotonin
d. cannabinoids

A

d. cannabinoids

108
Q

the major target priority organs that utilize glucose during fasting or starvation are

A

brain and RBC

109
Q

what does a low carb, moderate fat. high protein diet do ≈ insulin

A

less than normal insulin response

110
Q

main fuel reserve of the body

A

adipose tissue triacylglycerol

111
Q

this is the principal site of metabolism of branched chain amino acids

A

skeletal muscle

112
Q

this system can serve as energy reservoir for for short term demands of muscle metabolism

A

phosphocreatinine system

113
Q

liver glycogen stores are depleted within ___ of fasting

A

18-24 hours of fasting

114
Q

All of the ff hormones promote LIPOLYSIS except

a. ACTH
b. GH
c. Vasopressin
d. insulin

A

insulin

115
Q

in times of starvation, fats can be source of energy at the same time glucose through which of the ff intermediates

A

a. glycerol

b. propionyl CoA

116
Q

fasting for 24 hours

principal source of energy

A

glycogenolysis

117
Q

during last part of 2nd day fsting, what is major source of energy

A

gluconeogenesis

118
Q

what is the predoinant soruce of energy for the brain after 48 hours of fasting

A

ketone bodies

119
Q 
In fasting ≈  phosphorylated /dephosphorylated 
•pyruvate dehydrongenase :
•glycogen phosphorylase:
•glycogen synthase:
•acetyl-co carboxylase :
A
  • pyruvate dehydrongenase : phosphorylated
  • glycogen phosphorylase: phosphorylated
  • glycogen synthase: INHIBITED
  • acetyl-co carboxylase : phosphorylated
120
Q
  • type 1 diabetes patient
  • diarrhea x 3 days
  • skipped insulin doses due to lack of appetite
  • glucose was 400
  • urine ketones 1+

•acetyl coa carboxylase is ____

A

phosphorylated

121
Q
  • type 1 diabetes patient
  • diarrhea x 3 days
  • skipped insulin doses due to lack of appetite
  • glucose was 400
  • urine ketones 1+

•ketones detected in this patient through urine via the nitroprusside test is predominantly

A

acetoacetate

122
Q
  • type 1 diabetes patient
  • diarrhea x 3 days
  • skipped insulin doses due to lack of appetite
  • glucose was 400
  • urine ketones 1+

effect on
•HMG-CoA synthase
•HMG-CoA lyase

A
  • HMG-CoA synthase
  • HMG-CoA lyase

both active

123
Q

•patient received insulin infusion

≈ effect on PFK-1

A

PFK-1 ≈ dephosphorylated

124
Q

•a patient skips dinner everyday, what is expected when she wakse up before bfast

effect on glycogen phosphorylase

A

glycogen phosphorylase is phosphorylated

125
Q 
effect of 3 days fasting on
 •HMG-CoA reductase 
•HMG -coa synthase 
•pyruvate carboxylase
•acetyl coa carboxylase
A
  • HMG-CoA reductase - phosphorylated
  • HMG -coa synthase - activated
  • pyruvate carboxylase - stimulated
  • acetyl coa carboxylase -phosphorylated
126
Q

hormone least active during 3 days fasting

A

insulin

127
Q

glucagon effect on glycogen phosphorylase

A

phosphorylated

128
Q

drinking coffee ≈ effect on glycogen phosphorylase

A

phosphorylated

129
Q

fatty acid synthesis

cofactor

A

biotin

130
Q

VITAMIN B 12 dependent enzymes

A
  • methylmalonyl coa mutase
  • leucine aminomutase - converts L leucine to B leucine
  • methionine synthase
131
Q

which among the ff does nt need vit b12 for its pathway

a. isoleucine
b. leucine
c. valine
d. methionine

A

b. leucine

132
Q

vitamin that is considered a hormone

A

vit D

133
Q

which micronutrient is considered an antioxidant

a. tocopherol
b. magnesium
c. selenium
d. vitamin D

A

A. tocopherol

134
Q

which vitamin can be synthesized from the body from a specific amino acid

A

vit b3 (tryptophan)

135
Q

in rxn catalyzed by dopamie B-hydroxylase, what is the cofactor needed

A

vit C

136
Q

in rxn catalyzed by dopamie B-hydroxylase, what is the product of above rxn

A

norepinephrine

137
Q

All ÎÎÎ absorption of iron except

a. heme form of iron
b. vit C
c. alcohol
d. NOTA

A

d. NOTA

138
Q

effects of vit D

A
  • ÎÎ bone resorption
  • ÎÎ dietary absorption of phosphate
  • dec calcium levels
  • dec PTH levels
139
Q

inhibit bone resorption

A

calcitonin

140
Q

what is the rate limitng enzyme of de novo pyrimidine sythesis

A

carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II

141
Q

a single turn of human DNA has __ base pairs

A

10

142
Q

predominant form of DNA in physiologic conditions

A

B

143
Q

DNA polymerase synthesizes DNA in __ direction

A

5’ to 3’

144
Q

this enzyme relieve torsional strain produced during DNA unwinding

A

topoisomerase

145
Q

RNA dependent DNA polymerase that adds DNA to 3’ end of chromosomes to prevent loss of genetic material with every duplication

A

telomerase

146
Q

the CCA terminal of the tRNA is found in the

A

acceptor arm

147
Q

which type of RNA comprise majority of cellular RNA , 70%

A

ribosomal RNA

148
Q

capped by 7-methylguanosine triphosphate group in mRNA functions to

A

recognition of mRNA in TRANSLATION

149
Q

enzyme involved with synthesizes mRNA

A

RBA polymerase II

150
Q

RNA product is synthesize in __ direction

A

5’ to 3’

151
Q

termination of RNA synthesis in BACTERIA is signaled by

A

rho factor

152
Q

RNA polymerase I catalyzes the transcription of

A

ribosomal RNA

153
Q

in this mutation, adenine base was mistakenly substituted for a guanine base

G <=> A

A

transition

154
Q

descriptions of genetic code

A

degenerate
commaless
universal

155
Q

feature of genetic code stating most AA are coded by multiple codons

A

degenerate

156
Q

codons UUC and UUU code for phenlyalanine

this displays

A

degeneracy

157
Q

this feature of genetic code allows translation of the same amino acid despite having a different codon

A

redundant

158
Q

most AA are coded by multiple codons except for :

a. methionine
b. cysteine
c. alanine
d. valine

A

a. methionine

159
Q

the tRNA wobble effect leads to which of the ff DNA mutations

A

silent

160
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is example of which DNA mutation

A

frameshift

161
Q

method used to detect a specific DNA segment of sequence

a. western blot
b. southern
c. eastern
d. nothern

A

southern blot

162
Q

substances added to natural gas to make it smell

A

mercaptan

163
Q

MOA of bolulinum toxin

A

cleaves SNARE proteins, prevening neurosecretory vesicle fusion

Basic Biochemistry (50 decks)

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