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Epidemiology > Midterm 4 (By bacteria 1) > Flashcards

Midterm 4 (By bacteria 1) Flashcards

1
Q

Actinomycosis of cattle is caused by Actinomycosis bovis

A

True

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2
Q

In the case of bovine actinomycosis lesions can be seen in the mandible or maxilla

A

True

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3
Q

Bovine actinomycosis is caused by Actinomyces bovis and Actinomyces lignieresii

A

False

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4
Q

Bovine actinomycosis causes changes in the upper and lower jaw

A

True

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5
Q

In bovine actinomycosis, the first changes are seen in the udder

A

False

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6
Q

Actinomyces causes a generalized infection

A

False

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7
Q

Lumpy jaw in cattle is caused by Actinomyces bovis

A

True

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8
Q

In the case of actinomycosis in pigs the lesions are seen in the udder

A

True

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9
Q

Dogs are resistant to actinomycosis

A

False

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10
Q

Sulphur granules are typical lesions of actinomycosis

A

True

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11
Q

Actinomyces viscosus can infect the udder of sow

A

False

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12
Q

Actinomyces can affect the retropharyngeal lymph nodes

A

True

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13
Q

In dogs, grass awns can be a predisposing factor for actinomycosis infection

A

True

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14
Q

Lumpy jaw of cattle is caused by Actinobacillus bovis

A

False

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15
Q

A. hordeovulneris and A. viscosus can cause pleuritis, peritonitis and pericarditis

A

True

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16
Q

A. israelii is the causative agent if canine actinomycosis

A

False

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17
Q

Swine actinomycosis is caused by Actinomycosis bovis

A

True

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18
Q

Actinomyces species are epiphytes

A

True

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19
Q

Actinomycosis bovis can cause udder infection in horses

A

False

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20
Q

Dogs can be infected by Actinomyces bovis

A

False

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21
Q

Vaccines in cattle can be efficient for prevention of the actinomycosis disease

A

False

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22
Q

Wound infection is the primary route of actinomycosis infection

A

True

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23
Q

Actinomycosis is a gram-negative bacterium

A

False

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24
Q

Horses are most sensitive to Actinomyces israelii

A

False

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25
Q

Clinical signs and pathological findings of canine Actinomycosis and Nocardiosis are similar

A

True

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26
Q

Nocardiosis causes chronic mastitis in cows

A

True

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27
Q

Nocardia asteroides can cause generalized disease in dogs

A

True

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28
Q

Nocardia spp. in cattle primarily causes mastitis

A

True

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29
Q

Most susceptible species to Nocardiosis are dog and horse

A

False

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30
Q

N. asteroides causes cutaneous pyogranulomas in dog

A

True

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31
Q

Nocardia asteroides is zoonotic

A

True

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32
Q

Disseminated Nocardiosis in dog occurs after 1 year of age

A

False

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33
Q

Nocardiosis will cause acute mastitis in cattle

A

False

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34
Q

Bovine farcy causes chronic lesions in the superficial lymph nodes and vessels

A

True

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35
Q

Nocardiosis are found mostly in tropical and subtropical regions

A

True

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36
Q

Nocardia is a facultative aerobic bacterium

A

False

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37
Q

The agent of Dermatophilosis can survive in the environment

A

True

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38
Q

Dermatophilosis can be diagnosed by staining a direct smear from the lesions

A

True

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39
Q

Dermatophilosis can be diagnosed by microscopic examination

A

True

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40
Q

Dermatophilosis can be generalized

A

False

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41
Q

Dermatophilosis can affects also birds and plants

A

False

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42
Q

Dermatophilosis occurs only in Africa

A

False

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43
Q

Focal inflammation in the liver is a typical lesion of dermatophilosis

A

False

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44
Q

Dermatophilosis is predisposed by wet skin

A

True

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45
Q

Mycobacteria can survive in the environment

A

True

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46
Q

Mycobacteria cannot be cultured

A

False

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47
Q

Waxes and lipids in the mycobacteria are virulence factors

A

True

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48
Q

The agent of avian tuberculosis is an obligate pathogenic bacterium

A

True

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49
Q

Tuberculin test is an allergic test.

A

True

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50
Q

Mycobacteria can be cultured, but their incubation time is long

A

True

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51
Q

Tuberculosis is diagnosed by detecting antibodies to M. bovis in the blood with ELISA

A

False

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52
Q

M. tuberculosis can cause tuberculosis in swine

A

True

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53
Q

Bovine tuberculosis is a zoonosis

A

True

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54
Q

Tuberculosis causes generalized disease by organic infection in cattle

A

True

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55
Q

Tuberculosis cannot infect cattle per os

A

False

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56
Q

The center of the tubercle is necrotized

A

True

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57
Q

The tubercle consists of histiocytes and foreign body giant cell

A

True

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58
Q

The causative agents of tuberculosis are obligate pathogenic bacteria

A

True

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59
Q

Köster staining is a special staining for Mycobacteria

A

False

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60
Q

Mycobacteria are highly resistant

A

True

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61
Q

Early generalization of mycobacteria occurs via lympho-hematogenous route

A

True

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62
Q

Tuberculosis in cattle occurs especially in young animals

A

False

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63
Q

In dogs’ tuberculosis can be generalized

A

True

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64
Q

Mycobacterium species show a close relationship between the antigens

A

True

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65
Q

Mycobacterium bovis can cause generalized tuberculosis in badgers

A

True

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66
Q

Mycobacteria are intracellular pathogens

A

True

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67
Q

Cattle tuberculosis can be diagnosed by serological methods

A

False

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68
Q

Cattle tuberculosis is always generalized

A

False

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69
Q

Mycobacteria are a worldwide disease

A

True

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70
Q

Tuberculosis in cattle is prevented with frequent vaccinations

A

False

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71
Q

Europe is free from bovine tuberculosis

A

False

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72
Q

The causative agent of bovine tuberculosis is zoonotic

A

True

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73
Q

Mycobacteria are resistant to environmental factors

A

True

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74
Q

Cattle cannot be infected with mycobacteria per os

A

True

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75
Q

Cattle are infected with M. bovis mainly per os and enteric tuberculosis is most frequent

A

False

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76
Q

Cattle infected with M. bovis will carry the bacterium for a maximum of 1 year

A

False

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77
Q

Late generalization can be characterized by lost resistance

A

True

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78
Q

In the tubercle, coagulation necrosis is seen

A

True

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79
Q

In the phase of early generalization Mycobacteria do not replicate in the lymph node

A

False

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80
Q

In intestinal tuberculosis, diarrhea is the main clinical sign

A

True

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81
Q

Chronic tuberculosis causes changes in the lymph node

A

False

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82
Q

Mycobacteria can be demonstrated from the discharge of sick animals by staining

A

True

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83
Q

Tuberculosis can be demonstrated earliest by ELISA

A

False

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84
Q

Tuberculosis can first be diagnosed by PCR

A

False

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85
Q

The agents causing tuberculosis are obligate pathogen

A

True

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86
Q

Tuberculosis can be diagnosed with certainty serology

A

False

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87
Q

Mycobacteria can be seen by staining discharge from diseased animals

A

True

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88
Q

Mycobacterium infection in pigs can be zoonotic

A

True

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89
Q

Mycobacterium spp. in swine can be caused by atypical mycobacteria

A

True

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90
Q

Mycobacteria in swine can be caused by M. bovis and produces localized lesions

A

False

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91
Q

M. tuberculosis is a common mycobacterium infection of pig

A

False

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92
Q

Avian tuberculosis usually occurs at 6-8 weeks of age

A

False

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93
Q

Avian tuberculosis result in local processes

A

False

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94
Q

Avian tuberculosis can be diagnosed by slide agglutination or ELISA

A

True

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95
Q

Avian tuberculosis is a common disease in large scale farms causing high economic losses

A

False

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96
Q

Waterfowl are more susceptible to avian tuberculosis

A

False

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97
Q

Crepitation during liver transection is characteristic for avian tuberculosis

A

False

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98
Q

Tuberculosis of poultry occur mainly in breeder flocks

A

True

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99
Q

Avian tuberculosis occur over 1 year of age

A

True

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100
Q

The tuberculin test is unreliable in poultry

A

True

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101
Q

Mycobacteria contain lipids and waxes in the cell wall

A

True

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102
Q

There is antigenic relationship between the different Mycobacteria species

A

True

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103
Q

Facultative pathogenic Mycobacteria cannot colonize mammals

A

False

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104
Q

Some facultative pathogenic Mycobacteria can cause tuberculosis in cold blooded animals

A

True

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105
Q

In the case of bovine tuberculosis fetuses are generally not infected

A

True

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106
Q

Generation shift can be used for eradication of tuberculosis

A

True

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107
Q

Vaccination of 6-month-old calves with BCG vaccine will result eradication of tuberculosis

A

False

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108
Q

Mycobacteria are acid and alcohol fast bacteria

A

True

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109
Q

Mycobacteria are very resistant bacteria

A

True

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110
Q

After infection with Mycobacterium bovis cattle remain lifelong carriers

A

True

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111
Q

The primary complex in cattle is generally in the lungs and the mediastinal lymph nodes

A

True

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112
Q

Sawdust bedding can predispose pigs to infection by facultative pathogenic mycobacteria

A

True

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113
Q

Facultative pathogenic mycobacteria can cause generalized tuberculosis in pigs

A

False

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114
Q

The habitat of pathogenic mycobacteria is the soil

A

False

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115
Q

The habitat of facultative pathogenic mycobacteria is the soil

A

False

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116
Q

Only cattle are susceptible to Mycobacterium bovis

A

False

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117
Q

In cattle extrapulmonary tuberculosis does not occur

A

False

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118
Q

Late generalization is characterized by productive processes

A

False

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119
Q

Chronic tuberculosis affects organs together with lymph nodes

A

True

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120
Q

The skin intradermal tuberculin test has to be read after 72 hours

A

True

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121
Q

In the exhaust phase of the tuberculosis the intradermal tuberculin test can be false negative

A

True

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122
Q

The skin intradermal tuberculin test is negative if the thickness of the skin increased by 4.5 mm

A

False

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123
Q

Tuberculin test can detect about 50% of the infected animals

A

False

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124
Q

Tuberculin test in poultry is only 50% accurate

A

True

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125
Q

The skin intradermal tuberculin test is highly sensitive in cattle

A

True

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126
Q

Infection of cattle by facultative pathogenic mycobacteria can result false positive reaction in the skin intradermal tuberculin test

A

True

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127
Q

The skin intradermal tuberculin test is negative if the thickness of the skin increased by 4.1 mm

A

False

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128
Q

In case of positive tuberculin reactions in a herd, movement restriction has to be implemented

A

True

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129
Q

The skin intradermal tuberculin test is negative if the thickness of the skin increases 4 mm

A

False

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130
Q

The PPD-tuberculin (purified protein derivative) contains the antigenic abstract of the agent

A

True

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131
Q

During the general tuberculin test we give the tuberculin SC or IV

A

False

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132
Q

General tuberculin test is used to trigger a hypersensitivity reaction

A

True

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133
Q

The general tuberculin test (name) is not really used now a days

A

True

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134
Q

The tuberculin test can be false negative in cattle within 3 weeks after infection

A

True

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135
Q

Facultative pathogenic Mycobacteria can result false negative reaction in the tuberculin test

A

False

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136
Q

The tuberculin test is positive if the thickness of the skin increased by 4.2 mm and it is painful

A

True

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137
Q

The tuberculin test is doubtful if the thickness of the skin increased by 3.5 mm and it is painful

A

False

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138
Q

The tuberculin test is positive if the thickness of the skin is 3.5 mm and the site is not painful and there is no edema

A

False

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139
Q

The tuberculin test is positive if the thickness of the skin is 3 mm and the site is not painful and there is no edema

A

False

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140
Q

The tuberculin test is positive if the thickness of the skin is 2.5 mm and the site is painful with edema

A

True

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141
Q

The tuberculin test is positive when larger than 4 mm increase in skin thickness in 72 hours

A

True

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142
Q

The tuberculin test is positive if the thickness of the skin is <2 mm and with a local reaction

A

True

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143
Q

The tuberculin test is positive if the thickness of the skin is 2-4 mm and with no local reaction

A

False

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144
Q

The tuberculin test is positive if the thickness of the skin is <2 mm and with no local reaction

A

False

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145
Q

The tuberculin test is negative if the thickness of the skin is <2 mm and with no local reaction

A

True

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146
Q

The tuberculin test is negative if the thickness of the skin is 2-4 mm and with local reaction

A

False

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147
Q

The tuberculin test is negative if the thickness of the skin is <2 mm and with local reaction

A

False

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148
Q

The intradermal tuberculin test can be: False positive in case of infection by Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis

A

True

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149
Q

The intradermal tuberculin test can be: False positive in case of anergy

A

False

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150
Q

The intradermal tuberculin test can be: False negative in case of pre-allergy

A

True

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151
Q

The intradermal tuberculin test can be: False negative in case of older, demarcated nodule

A

True

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152
Q

The intradermal tuberculin test can be: False negative in case of infection with another mycobacterium

A

False

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153
Q

The intradermal tuberculin test can be: False negative in case of anergy

A

True

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154
Q

The intradermal tuberculin test can be: False positive in case of pre-allergy

A

False

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155
Q

The intradermal tuberculin test can be: False positive in case of an old closed focus

A

False

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156
Q

Tuberculin test is false negative in case of old, encapsulated lesions

A

True

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157
Q

Tuberculin test is false negative in case of pre-infection

A

True

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158
Q

At the end of the disease the probe/intradermal skin test can be negative

A

True

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159
Q

In other types of tuberculosis infections the intradermal tuberculin can be positive

A

True

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160
Q

The tuberculin reaction is negative if the thickness of the skin is increased by 1.8 mm and not painful

A

True

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161
Q

The tuberculin reaction is doubtful if the thickness of the skin increased by 2.8 mm and it is painful

A

False

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162
Q

In the exhaustion phase of the tuberculosis the tuberculin test can be false positive

A

False

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163
Q

Using the thermal tuberculin test, organic reactions can be increased

A

True

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164
Q

In case of para-allergic reaction we carry out the comparative tuberculin test

A

True

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165
Q

In case of para-allergic reaction we eliminate the positive animals immediately

A

True

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166
Q

In case of para-allergic reaction we perform a test-cut

A

False

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167
Q

In addition to para-allergic test we can carry out a gamma interferon test

A

True

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168
Q

The tuberculin test is negative if the thickness of the skin is 3 mm and with no local reaction

A

False

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169
Q

Paratuberculosis is seen in young calves

A

False

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170
Q

Lesions of paratuberculosis are localized in the small intestine

A

True

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171
Q

In the case of paratuberculosis tuberculi can be seen in the anterior lobes of the lungs

A

False

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172
Q

Paratuberculosis can be treated with polymyxins

A

False

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173
Q

Paratuberculosis is seen cows above 2 years of age

A

True

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174
Q

Lesions of the paratuberculosis are localized in the small and large intestine

A

False

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175
Q

In the case of paratuberculosis no tuberculi are seen

A

True

176
Q

Weight loss is a typical sign of paratuberculosis

A

True

177
Q

In paratuberculosis, the nodules are seen primarily in the large intestine

A

False

178
Q

Paratuberculosis can be demonstrated by LST during early stages of infection

A

True

179
Q

Paratuberculosis can be prevented by early vaccination of the calves

A

True

180
Q

Paratuberculosis can be treated with penicillin and enrofloxacin

A

False

181
Q

Paratuberculosis can be prevented by vaccination

A

True

182
Q

Paratuberculosis is believed to cause Chron’s disease

A

True

183
Q

Young animals are resistant to paratuberculosis

A

False

184
Q

Wasting is the main clinical sign

A

True

185
Q

Paratuberculosis is also called Johne’s disease

A

True

186
Q

It is a chronic disease with diarrhea affecting mainly ruminants (CS: 2-5 years)

A

True

187
Q

The disease paratuberculosis can develop in animals above 2 months

A

False

188
Q

Paratuberculosis can be prevented by vaccination only in countries where it is eradicated

A

True

189
Q

In Paratuberculosis, nodules can be found in intestinum crassum

A

False

190
Q

Young animals are more susceptible to paratuberculosis

A

True

191
Q

Paratuberculosis virulence factor is phospholipase C

A

True

192
Q

Paratuberculosis cause proliferative enteritis in small intestines

A

True

193
Q

Cattle paratuberculosis shows more severe lesions than sheep/goat

A

True

194
Q

Pneumonia caused by Rhodococcus equi is typically seen in 1-4 months old foals

A

True

195
Q

Rhodococcus equi causes interstitial pneumonia in foals

A

False

196
Q

Rhodococcus equi can cause only pneumonia in foals

A

False

197
Q

Equine herpesvirus-2 can predispose horses to pneumonia caused by Rhodococcus equi

A

True

198
Q

Rhodococcus equi can cause suppurative bronchopneumonia in foals

A

True

199
Q

Rhodococcus equi can cause only respiratory disease in foals

A

False

200
Q

Bronchopneumonia caused by R. equi is typically seen in foals between 1 and 4 months of age

A

True

201
Q

Combination of Rifampicin and Macrolides antibiotics is used for the treatment of bronchopneumonia caused by R. equi

A

True

202
Q

Rhodococcus equi can cause pneumonia in foals of 5-6 months of age

A

False

203
Q

Pneumonia caused by Rhodococcus equi is a chronic disease

A

True

204
Q

Serous pneumonia is caused by Rhodococcus qui

A

False

205
Q

Pneumonia caused by Rhodococcus equi is treated with penicillin

A

False

206
Q

Rhodococcus equi can cause clinical signs in humans

A

True

207
Q

R. equi causes pneumonia in foals aged 6-8 months

A

False

208
Q

R. equi pneumonia is transmitted from foal to foal

A

False

209
Q

R. equi causes severe catarrhal pneumonia

A

False

210
Q

Pneumonia caused by R. equi can be treated with rifampicin and erythromycin for 4-5 days

A

Fale

211
Q

R. equi is an obligate anaerobic bacterium

A

False

212
Q

R. equi causes high mortality in infected foals

A

True

213
Q

R. equi can cause ulcerative enteritis

A

True

214
Q

Rhodococcus equi is usually seen during the winter

A

False

215
Q

R. equi causes pneumonia with large abscesses

A

True

216
Q

R. equi pneumonia can be treated with rifampicin and erythromycin for 4-10 weeks

A

True

217
Q

Foals suffering from Rhodococcus equi can be treated with any antibiotic

A

False

218
Q

Pneumonia caused by R. equi is a fast spreading acute disease

A

False

219
Q

Many of the clinically sick animals recover after treatment for R. equi infection

A

True

220
Q

R. equi pneumonia is transmitted by inhalation of contaminated dust

A

True

221
Q

R. equi cause purulent pneumonia

A

True

222
Q

Enterotoxic E. coli strains attach to enterocytes

A

True

223
Q

The enterotoxic E. coli strain produces verotoxins

A

False

224
Q

The enterotoxic E. coli strains cause edema disease

A

False

225
Q

Enterotoxic E. coli strains attach to enterotoxins

A

False

226
Q

Enterotoxic E. coli strains produce fimbriae

A

True

227
Q

Enterotoxigenic E. coli strains produce fimbriae

A

True

228
Q

Enterotoxin cause enteritis in the large intestine

A

False

229
Q

Enterotoxigenic E. coil strains produce fimbria and enterotoxins

A

True

230
Q

Verotoxins inhibit protein synthesis

A

True

231
Q

Verotoxins damage the endothelial cells

A

True

232
Q

Coli-diarrhea of calves is caused by verotoxic E. coli strains

A

False

233
Q

Coli-diarrhea of calves is caused by E. coli strains equipped with fimbriae

A

False

234
Q

In coli-diarrhea of calves we can see severe inflammation of the colon

A

False

235
Q

Coli-diarrhea of the calf is caused by fimbriated E. coli strains

A

True

236
Q

Coli-diarrhea of calves is caused by enterotoxic E. coli strains

A

True

237
Q

Coli-diarrhea of the calf is characterised by a severe inflammation of the large intestine

A

False

238
Q

Transport is the most important predisposing factor in coli-diarrhea

A

False

239
Q

Coli-septicaemia is a disease of weaned calves

A

False

240
Q

Coli-septicaemia causes severe hemorrhagic diarrhea

A

False

241
Q

Coli-septicaemia causes high fever

A

False

242
Q

Calf dysentry is caused by verotoxigenic E. coli

A

True

243
Q

Transportation is an important predisposing factor of coli-septicemia

A

False

244
Q

Coli-septicaemia is seen in day-old calves

A

True

245
Q

Pneumonia is an important clinical sign of coli-septicaemia in calves

A

False

246
Q

Coli-diarrhea of calves appears in the first week of life

A

True

247
Q

Coli-diarrhea of calves can be treated with per oral polymyxin

A

True

248
Q

E. coli can cause bloody diarrhea in calves

A

True

249
Q

Fimbria F5 is an important virulence factor of E. coli strains causing neonatal diarrhoea of calves

A

True

250
Q

Enterotoxigenic E. coli strains causes diarrhoea in new-born calves

A

True

251
Q

Verotoxigenic E. coli strains are present in the gut of cattle without clinical signs

A

True

252
Q

E. coli diarrhea in swine occurs in sows in their first pregnancy

A

False

253
Q

E. coli diarrhea in swine occurs in large scale farms worldwide

A

True

254
Q

The feces of weaned piglets with coli-diarrhea has a strong smell

A

True

255
Q

E. coli diarrhea in swine is caused by enterotoxigenic E. coli

A

True

256
Q

E. coli diarrhea occurs in weaned piglets at 1-2 weeks after weaning

A

True

257
Q

Coli-diarrhea of newborn piglets is caused by enterotoxigenic E. coli strains

A

True

258
Q

There are no vaccines to prevent coli-diarrhea of newborn piglets

A

False

259
Q

Weaning can predispose piglets to diarrhea caused by E. coli

A

True

260
Q

Weaning can predispose piglets to septicemia caused by E. coli

A

False

261
Q

Less colostrum is a predisposing factor for coli-diarrhea in weaned pigs

A

Fasle

262
Q

Coli-diarrhea of newborn piglets occurs mainly in the litter of sows in their first pregnancy

A

True

263
Q

Coli-diarrhea of weaned piglets is generally prevented by vaccinating sows

A

False

264
Q

Enterotoxic E. coli strains can cause disease in swine

A

True

265
Q

Enterotoxigenic strains are the causative agents of coli-diarrhoea in weaned piglets

A

True

266
Q

Verotoxins are involved in the pathogenesis of coli-diarrhoea in suckling piglets

A

False

267
Q

The enterotoxigenic E. coli strains cause neonatal diarrhea in calves and piglets

A

True

268
Q

E. coli in chicken found worldwide

A

True

269
Q

E. coli is caused by enteroinvasive E. coli

A

True

270
Q

Germinative infection occurs in case of E. coli disease in poultry

A

True

271
Q

Enterotoxigenic E. coli strains can cause septicemia in day old chicken

A

False

272
Q

Enterotoxigenic E. coli causes death in young chicks

A

False

273
Q

E. coli is not a normal inhabitant of the gut flora in rabbits

A

True

274
Q

Caused by Enteropathogenic E. coli

A

True

275
Q

E. coli kills the embryo in the egg

A

True

276
Q

PO antibiotics via drinking water is a good way of treating E. coli in poultry

A

True

277
Q

E. coli disease in poultry mostly occurs in layers at beginning of egg-laying period

A

False

278
Q

E. coli disease in poultry causes severe encephalitis in septicemic form

A

False

279
Q

Vaccines can be used for the prevention of E. coli disease in poultry

A

False

280
Q

E. coli strains cause generalized infection in day old chicken

A

False

281
Q

Retarded absorption of the yolk sack is a post mortem lesion in coli-septicemia in chickens

A

False

282
Q

E.coli strains cannot cause germinative infection in chickens

A

False

283
Q

Edema disease of swine occurs before weaning

A

False

284
Q

Edema disease may be lethal after paralytic symptoms

A

True

285
Q

Edema disease is seen mainly in large scale farms with poor hygiene

A

False

286
Q

Edema disease is caused by VTEC strains

A

True

287
Q

In edema disease, antibiotics are used to treat diseased piglets

A

False

288
Q

Edema disease occurs in the first week of life

A

False

289
Q

V erotoxins damage the endothelial cells

A

True

290
Q

Verotoxins cause diarrhea in young piglets

A

False

291
Q

Edema disease of swine may cause paralysis prior to death

A

True

292
Q

Edema disease of swine occurs at 1-2 weeks old

A

False

293
Q

Insufficient colostrum is an important predisposing factor for edema disease

A

False

294
Q

The feces of weaned piglets with coli-diarrhea contains undigested particles

A

True

295
Q

The lesions in Necrobacillosis are restricted to the mouth

A

False

296
Q

Necrobacillosis occurs mainly in young animals

A

False

297
Q

There is no treatment for Necrobacillosis

A

False

298
Q

Umbilical disinfection has an important role in the prevention of Necrobacillosis

A

True

299
Q

Necrobacillosis in lambs can be seen as a result of an umbilical infection

A

True

300
Q

Fusobacterium necrophorum subsp. necrophorum strains can cause Necrobacillosis of calves

A

True

301
Q

F. necrophorum subsp. necrophorum strains are involved in the pathogenesis of foot rot

A

True

302
Q

You can find necrosis in the mouth in case of Necrobacillosis in lambs

A

True

303
Q

You can find liver abscesses in case of Necrobacillosis

A

False

304
Q

Animals with softened hoof wall are more susceptible for panaritium (foot rot)

A

True

305
Q

Contaminated, dirty bedding is a predisposing factor for foot rot

A

True

306
Q

In the development of foot rot, fimbriae of the pathogen have an important role

A

True

307
Q

Treatment of foot rot is using foot bath containing formalin and sterogenol

A

True

308
Q

For treatment of panaritium, formalin foot baths are recommended

A

True

309
Q

Foot rot is a very rare disease in Europe

A

False

310
Q

Fimbria and extracellular enzymes are the virulence factors of the agent of foot rot

A

True

311
Q

Changes caused by Necrobacillosis are only seen in the oral cavity

A

False

312
Q

Dichelobacter causes Necrobacillosis

A

False

313
Q

The causative agent of foot root can produce exotoxins

A

False

314
Q

The causative agent of foot root can produce enzymes

A

True

315
Q

Foot rot can be prevented by foot bath

A

True

316
Q

Animals with soft horn are more predisposed to panaritium

A

True

317
Q

Strongly contaminated bedding is a predisposing factor to panaritium

A

True

318
Q

The fimbriae of the pathogens play an important role in the development of panaritium

A

True

319
Q

To treat severe foot rot we use parenteral antibiotics

A

True

320
Q

All Salmonella species are zoonotic

A

False

321
Q

Salmonella are generally resistant bacteria

A

False

322
Q

We use isolation and ELISA for detection of Salmonella

A

True

323
Q

The cell wall, flagella and virulence factors are the antigens of Salmonella

A

True

324
Q

Septicemia is the most common presentation of human salmonellosis

A

False

325
Q

We use tetracyclines in the treatment of human gastroenteritis caused by Salmonella spp.

A

False

326
Q

Salmonellosis mostly affect the elderly and young people (children)

A

True

327
Q

All Salmonella serotypes can infect humans

A

False

328
Q

Salmonellosis can sometimes be generalized

A

True

329
Q

Exotoxins are important virulence factors of salmonella

A

False

330
Q

An allergic test can confirm salmonellosis

A

False

331
Q

Salmonella is cultivated from parenchymal organs

A

True

332
Q

Septicemia is always seen in salmonellosis

A

False

333
Q

Swine typhoid is spread by rodents

A

False

334
Q

In swine typhoid transport is an important predisposing factor

A

False

335
Q

Swine typhoid are mostly seen in 2-3-week-old piglets

A

False

336
Q

In swine typhoid, bacterial isolation is the best way to detect the bacteria

A

True

337
Q

Serology is an important tool to identify S. Typhisuis

A

False

338
Q

In swine typhoid, pathological changes are seen in the large intestine

A

True

339
Q

In swine typhoid, pathological changes are seen in the whole intestines

A

False

340
Q

Swine typhoid is caused by S. typhi

A

False

341
Q

Swine paratyphoid is a sporadic rare disease

A

False

342
Q

Swine paratyphoid occurs in piglets between 2-5 weeks of age

A

False

343
Q

Swine paratyphoid is caused by S. typhisuis

A

False

344
Q

In the case of swine paratyphoid, enteritis can be seen in the small intestines

A

True

345
Q

Hyperemic enlargement of the spleen is typical in the case of swine paratyphoid

A

False

346
Q

Swine paratyphoid most often occurs in 2-5 months old piglets

A

True

347
Q

Inactivated vaccines can be used in the prevention of swine paratyphoid

A

True

348
Q

Cyanosis can be seen in swine paratyphoid

A

True

349
Q

In swine paratyphoid lesions are seen in SI and LI

A

True

350
Q

In case of swine paratyphoid, it is easy to diagnose in the feces

A

False

351
Q

Cyanosis of lower parts of the body can be seen in swine paratyphoid

A

True

352
Q

Swine typhlocolitis is a common disease with high mortality

A

False

353
Q

High fever is an important clinical sign in case of swine typhlocolitis

A

False

354
Q

In case of swine typhlocolitis are mostly seen in the large intestines

A

True

355
Q

Swine typhlocolitis can be transmitted with birds and rodents

A

True

356
Q

Salmonellosis in cattle is an endemic disease in young animals

A

True

357
Q

We can use vaccination in cattle to prevent salmonella

A

True

358
Q

Salmonellosis in cattle, lesions are mostly seen in the stomach

A

False

359
Q

Salmonella of calves causes bloody diarrhea

A

True

360
Q

S. abortusovis can cause sporadic abortions in cattle

A

False

361
Q

Calf salmonellosis causes inflammation of the small intestine

A

True

362
Q

Salmonella in calves can be treated successfully with penicillin

A

False

363
Q

Salmonella can cause generalized disease/fever in caves

A

True

364
Q

Salmonellosis in calves cause ileitis

A

True

365
Q

We can use isolation or ELISA for detection of Salmonellosis in cattle

A

False

366
Q

We can use quinolones to treat salmonellosis in cattle

A

True

367
Q

Age is the most important predisposing factor in the case of cattle salmonellosis

A

False

368
Q

Salmonellosis of calves occur in increased number if calves were brought from different farms

A

True

369
Q

Salmonella is seen in the large intestine of cattle

A

False

370
Q

Parasitic infections are an important predisposing factor of salmonella in sheep and goat

A

True

371
Q

In the generalized form of salmonellosis in sheep and goat, a watery foamy diarrhea can be seen

A

True

372
Q

Abortion caused by S. abortusovis is very common in goats

A

False

373
Q

Mixing of young and older ewes is the most important predisposing factor in the abortive form

A

True

374
Q

Venereal infection is the primary mode of infection in case of S. abortusovis

A

False

375
Q

Serology is a good way to diagnose abortive salmonellosis in sheep

A

True

376
Q

Vaccination is the best way to prevent S. abortusovis

A

False

377
Q

Salmonella abortion of sheep occurs in late winter

A

True

378
Q

Focal inflammation and necrosis is seen in the liver of lambs in case of salmonellosis

A

True

379
Q

Salmonella abortion of sheep occurs mainly in older ewes

A

False

380
Q

S. abortusovis can cause abortion only in sheep

A

True

381
Q

Salmonella spp. can cause abortion in horses

A

True

382
Q

Foal septicemia in case of salmonellosis causes bloody diarrhea

A

True

383
Q

Foal septicemia in case of salmonellosis is highly age-related

A

False

384
Q

Mycotoxins are an important predisposing factor in foal septicemia

A

True

385
Q

Foal septicemia is caused by S. typhimurium

A

True

386
Q

Abortion caused by S. abortusequi occurs a few days after the infection

A

False

387
Q

Salmonellosis of horses in abortive form, most often occurs in older mares

A

False

388
Q

Abortion caused by S. abortusequi most often occurs in the 2nd trimester

A

False

389
Q

Salmonella in carnivores is mostly caused by S. typhimurium

A

True

390
Q

High number of bacteria are needed to cause an infection in case of salmonellosis in carnivores

A

True

391
Q

Carnivores usually contract salmonella by eating contaminated raw meat

A

True

392
Q

Salmonellosis in carnivores can be seen only in young and weak animals, or immunodeficient animals

A

True

393
Q

CNS signs can occur in foxes in case of salmonellosis

A

True

394
Q

Asymptomatic carriage of Salmonella can occur in poultry

A

True

395
Q

Arthritis can be a clinical sign of Salmonellosis in birds

A

True

396
Q

Fowl typhoid have an exponential loss curve

A

False

397
Q

Fowl typhoid can infect the ovaries

A

True

398
Q

White diarrhea is a sign in young chickens with fowl typhoid

A

True

399
Q

We can use slide agglutination to detect fowl typhoid

A

True

400
Q

We can use tetracyclines to treat fowl typhoid

A

True

401
Q

Fowl typhoid is caused by facultative pathogenic Salmonella

A

False

402
Q

Rotting eggs are an important clinical sign of fowl typhoid

A

False

403
Q

Dead eggs can be seen in fowl typhoid

A

True

404
Q

Fowl typhoid can be seen only in adult birds

A

False

405
Q

Decreased hatchability is an important clinical sign of fowl typhoid

A

True

406
Q

Fowl typhoid propagates by germinative infection

A

True

407
Q

Diarrhea is not a typical clinical sign of fowl cholera

A

False

408
Q

Fowl typhoid is more frequent in water fowl than hens

A

False

409
Q

Fowl typhoid is usually a disease of waterfowl

A

False

410
Q

The highest infection rate of fowl typhoid is between days 8-10

A

False

411
Q

The susceptibility to fowl typhoid increases with age

A

False

412
Q

Fowl paratyphoid is a rare and sporadic disease

A

False

413
Q

Fowl paratyphoid mostly occurs in 0-2 weeks old chickens

A

True

414
Q

Fowl paratyphoid infection occurs by PO or germinative routes

A

True

415
Q

Purulent conjunctivitis can occur as a clinical sign in ducks with fowl paratyphoid

A

True

416
Q

Fluoroquinolones can be used to treat fowl paratyphoid

A

True

417
Q

Fowl paratyphoid can be spread by rodents

A

True

418
Q

Fowl paratyphoid can occur alone only in the first 2 weeks of life

A

True

419
Q

Live and attenuated vaccines can be used to prevent fowl paratyphoid

A

True

420
Q

Fowl paratyphoid usually causes generalized disease

A

True

421
Q

Fowl paratyphoid causes disease mainly in water fowl

A

False

422
Q

We can certify “Salmonella-free” status of poultry stocks with serological tests

A

False

423
Q

Fowl paratyphoid causes high morbidity mostly in water birds

A

True

424
Q

Primary replication sites of Y. enterocolitica are the tonsils and lymphoid tissue of gut

A

True

425
Q

Y. enterocolitica has a narrow host range

A

False

426
Q

Y. enterocolitica can be treated with tetracyclines

A

True

427
Q

Swine is an important host of Y. enterocolitica

A

True

428
Q

Chronic lesions caused by Y. enterocolitica resemble the lesions of tuberculosis

A

False

429
Q

Hare and chinchilla are most susceptible to Y. enterocolitica

A

False

430
Q

Rodentiosis is caused by Y. pseudotuberculosis

A

True

431
Q

Y. pseudotuberculosis is relatively resistant and replicates in the environment

A

True

432
Q

Arthritis can occur in the chronic form of the Y. pseudotuberculosis

A

True

433
Q

Lesions are most often seen in the small intestines in case of Y. pseudotuberculosis

A

False

434
Q

Y. pseudotuberculosis is normally present in rodents

A

False

435
Q

Y. pseudotuberculosis sporadically causes abortion in cattle

A

True

436
Q

Y. pseudotuberculosis can cause inflammatory necrosis lesions in rodent

A

True

437
Q

Disease caused by Y. pseudotuberculosis is common in rodents and hares

A

True

Epidemiology (12 decks)

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