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IVMI EVMM > Homework Questions Review > Flashcards

Homework Questions Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the paraphysiologic space?

A

The space between passive ROM and destruction of anatomic barriers

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2
Q

Components of the set-up include: (choose all that apply)

A

Dr. position , Patient position , Dr. contact point , Patient contact point

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3
Q

Why is your body position important?

A

to protect you from injury and provide the correct line of drive

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4
Q

What muscles should the Dr. use to make a HVLA thrust (most commonly)?

A

Triceps and pectorals

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5
Q

If a manipulation does not restore normal ROM you should

A

make no more than 2 or 3 attempts at manipulation in one day

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6
Q

What is a contraindication for manipulation?

A

joint laxity

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7
Q

The secondary cervical curve is in the ______________cervical region.

A

Lower

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8
Q

When the neck goes into extension

A

the diameter of both the IVF and the canal decrease

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9
Q

Cranial nerve VI is the ______________________ nerve.

A

abducens

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10
Q

The ventral plate of the spinal cord carries mostly _____________________ information.

A

Motor

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11
Q

Three parts of the MSC are

A

intrafusal fibers, Ia sensory neuron and gamma motor neuron

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12
Q

What do GTOs monitor?

A

Contraction

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13
Q

When the GTO is stimulated what effect does it create on the muscle?

A

Relaxation

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14
Q

Ia fibers synapse directly to alpha motor neurons. This

A

increases the speed of transmission

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15
Q

What do the MSCs monitor?

A

Stretch

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16
Q

Why is it important for us to use a high velocity for the manipulation?

A

To stimulate the golgi tendon organs

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17
Q

Where are GTOs (golgi tendon organs) located?

A

At the musculotendinous junction

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18
Q

One way to increase stability is to move the center of gravity

A

lower

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19
Q

One way to increase the force of a movement is to ___________ the range of motion.

A

increase

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20
Q

The stretch shortening cycle is

A

eccentric loading of the muscle just prior to concentric action to increase the force produced

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21
Q

Why is it important to spend 10-20 minutes in walk prior to training?

A

Tendons are viscoelastic so cyclic loading makes them less stiff to withstand load.

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22
Q

Why do some movements begin with a counter-movement?

A

To generate more force

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23
Q

Which muscle action generates the most force?

A

eccentric

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24
Q

What enables the muscle spindle cell to be effective at all muscle lengths?

A

the gamma motor neuron or gamma gain

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25
Q

What is the effect of a slow, prolonged stretch on a muscle via the Ia afferents?

A

It rests the muscle to a new longer length

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26
Q

You are presented with a patient that is reluctant to bend its neck to the left and has very tense muscles in the lower cervical region. It is also mildly ataxic. The owner says that it fell while running outside. What should you do?

A

Pursue further diagnostics which may include radiographs of the neck

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27
Q

Why is it important for an animal to stand with its feet evenly under its body i.e. square?

A

it is the most energy efficient and balanced

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28
Q

What is the main goal of proprioceptive systems?

A

to keep the animal upright

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29
Q

Why does closing your eyes make it difficult to balance?

A

closing your eyes take away the horizon line

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30
Q

When an animal jumps, just before take off it flexes the joints of the hind limbs in other words it uses a counter-movement. Why do they use a counter-movement?

A

to increase the force generated by the hind limbs

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31
Q

Why is prolonged stretching contraindicated before exercise?

A

it resets the muscle spindle cells to a longer length and creates joint laxity

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32
Q

The _____________ and ______________ muscles close the mouth and the ____________muscle helps grind the food (lateral excursion)

A

masseter, temporalis, pytergoids

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33
Q

What muscle is responsible for rotation of C1on C2?

A

obliquus capitis caudalis

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34
Q

Muscles that lift the lower cervical curve include

A

splenius, scalenes and serratus ventralis

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35
Q

What muscle attaches at the transverse processes of C3-T3 to the mastoid process of the skull and the atlas?

A

longissimus capitis

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36
Q

What muscle consists of 5 muscle bundles per segment and lies on ventral aspect of the cervical spine?

A

longus colli

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37
Q

What muscles act as stabilizers for the scapulohumeral joint?

A

supraspinatus and infraspinatus

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38
Q

What are the attachments and action for the biceps brachii muscle?

A

Supraglenoid tubercle to the radial tuberosity and its action is to extend the shoulder joint and flex the elbow joint

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39
Q

Poor hoof balance can effect spinal manipulation by

A

making the restrictions recur quickly i.e. the adjustments will not last

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40
Q

The origins and insertions of the scalene are

A

C4-C7 to first rib

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41
Q

Is it possible for a cervical adjustment to improve a distal limb lameness?

A

Yes

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42
Q

Restrictions of the hyoid also affect the _____________ joint.

A

Tempormandibular

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43
Q

As the front limb extends during weight-bearing the carpal bones go in

A

Dorsal Translation

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44
Q

A horse that braces his brachiocephalicus pushes the larynx in to the tongue. What other structure will be affected?

A

Hyoid

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45
Q

Cranial nerve XI innervates

A

Brachiocephalic muslce

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46
Q

T/FIncreasing nociception and perpetuating inflammatory factor are two ways the sympathetics can promote the subluxation complex

A

T

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47
Q

What motions are possible in the distal interphalangeal joint (coffin joint)?

A

flexion/extension, abduction/adduction, rotation and translation only

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48
Q

Which cervical motion segment (unit) has facets angled almost horizontally so that your line of correction needs to be lateral to medial?

A

C6/7

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49
Q

Low gamma gain can lead to tendon injury

A

outside of the normal range of motion

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50
Q

The left TMJ is painful to palpation, the restriction is most likely on the _____________.

A

right

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51
Q

Which muscle fills the dorsal arch of the atlas?

A

Obliquus capitis caudalis

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52
Q

What is the main action of the triceps muscle?

A

Extend the elbow

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53
Q

The stretch shortening cycle is

A

eccentric loading of the muscle just prior to concentric action to increase the force produced

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54
Q

Shunt stability is

A

Ability to contract the core muscles before a movement begins

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55
Q

How does head position affect the sympathetics?

A

lowering the head stimulates the parasympathetics and calms the sympathetics

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56
Q

Which mechanoreceptors inhibit or cause relaxation to the muscle that they are in?

A

GTOs

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57
Q

To adjust a lateral scapula you must be on a bale on the side opposite the restriction.

A

FALSE

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58
Q

Why does a horse lower its center of gravity when working, especially when the base of support is small?

A

To increase stability

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59
Q

During a jump, when is the trajectory of flight determined?

A

At take off

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60
Q

When a patient shows signs of TND you should

A

stop treatment for the day

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61
Q

What are the attachments and actions for the subclavius?

A

From the sternum and costal cartilages 1 through 4 to the supraspinatus and to shoulder fascia its action is to stabilize the shoulder and suspend the trunk

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62
Q

What is maladaptive pain?

A

pain that persists after the injury is healed

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63
Q

When a horse consistently lands after a jump with the right front foot forward it may indicate

A

The right front is sore

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64
Q

Why does a newborn foal have a different gait pattern than an adult?

A

The nervous system tracts involved in limb co-ordination don’t fully develop until a few weeks after birth

65
Q

One way to increase stability is to move the center of gravity

A

lower

66
Q

When adjusting the front limb

A

the limb should be non-weight bearing

67
Q

Horses that race at a gallop use their back differently than horses that race at a trot or pace. Which pairing is correct?

A

gallop uses flexion/extension of the LS junction

68
Q

In a normal horse at the walk, the head should move in a _______________________ pattern.

A

Figure 8

69
Q

What is a complex joint?

A

a joint with 2 or more articular surfaces and a disc

70
Q

T/F The neck should be in extension during motion palpation.

A

F

71
Q

Injury or inflammation of which ligament can affect the contents of the IVF?

A

Ligamentum flavum

72
Q

How does pain affect the sympathetics?

A

stimulates

73
Q

When a horse begins to gallop the center of rotation of the hind limb moves from _____ to the _________.

A

Coxofemoral joint, Lumbosacral joint

74
Q

If a manipulation does not restore normal ROM you should

A

make no more than 2 or 3 attempts at manipulation in one day

75
Q

What are the attachments for the serratus ventralis cervicus?

A

Medial scapula to transverse process of C4-7

76
Q

A restriction can cause patchy sweating due to

A

reflex connection to the sympathetic nervous system

77
Q

Why does rubbing or shaking an injured part help decrease pain?

A

motion stimulates the Ia fibers which inhibit nociception

78
Q

What enables the muscle spindle cell to be effective at all muscle lengths?

A

the gamma motor neuron or gamma gain

79
Q

Where does pain occur?

A

in the brain

80
Q

What is the line of correction (LOC) for a TMJ dorsal compartment?

A

Lateral to medial

81
Q

The origins and insertions of the omohyoidius are

A

Subscapular fascia to lingual process of basihyoid bone

82
Q

A horse’s jumping style

A

Is conserved from a young age

83
Q

The origins and insertions of the omotransversarius are:

A

C2-4 to shoulder fascia

84
Q

Extension of the thoracolumbar spine may be due to

A

contraction of the epaxial muscles, protraction of the forelimbs and elevating the head

85
Q

What is a contraindication for manipulation?

A

joint laxity

86
Q

When a horse consistently lands after a jump with the right front foot forward it may indicate

A

the right front is sore

87
Q

What is the paraphysiologic space?

A

the space between passive ROM and destruction of anatomic barriers

88
Q

What effect does vibration therapy have on delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS), jump performance and flexibility?

A

it improves all three

89
Q

Why does a newborn foal have a different gait pattern than an adult?

A

the nervous system tracts involved in limb co-ordination don’t fully develop until a few weeks after birth

90
Q

The origins and insertions of the omohyoidius are

A

subscapular fascia to lingual process of basihyoid bone

91
Q

After a limb injury it is important to train

A

abdominal muscles

92
Q

When adjusting the front limb

A

the limb should be non-weight bearing

93
Q

The scalenes can contribute to flexing or lifting the lower cervical curve because they attach to

A

C4-C7 to first rib

94
Q

The intercapital ligament

A

attaches at the neck of the rib, passes thru the vertebral canal to the opposite rib

95
Q

What is the most common cause for inflammation that lasts longer than expected?

A

a premature return to training

96
Q

How many articular surfaces are found on most thoracic vertebrae?

A

12

97
Q

As speed of the movement increases, the accuracy ________.

A

decreases

98
Q

What is the most cranial dorsal spinous process that you can palpate in the thoracic spine?

A

T3

99
Q

What muscle attaches at the caudal sacral and first coccygeal vertebrae to the tuber ischium and then on to the cranial tibia and calcaneus?

A

semitendinosus

100
Q

Ribs articulate with the vertebrae

A

caudal to the rib via a costovertebral and a costotransverse articulation

101
Q

When the GTO is stimulated what effect does it create on the muscle?

A

relaxation

102
Q

Typically, how long should we hold the muscles in a stretched position to decrease spasm?

A

30-60 seconds

103
Q

What is the patient contact point when manipulating C3 thru C6?

A

lamina-pedicle junction

104
Q

What initiates swing in the hind limb?

A

hip extension and stretch of the flexor muscles

105
Q

Negative dissociation or negative displacement means that

A

the front feet land earlier in the stride cycle than expected

106
Q

The omotransversarius is closely associated with the brachiocephalicus and its attachments are

A

C2-4 to shoulder fascia

107
Q

T/F Increasing nociception and perpetuating inflammatory factors are two ways the sympathetics can promote the subluxation complex

A

TRUE

108
Q

Which part of the quadriceps femoris can flex the hip joint as well as extend the stifle?

A

rectus femoris

109
Q

Name two hip flexors that attach at the lesser trochanter of the femur.

A

psoas and iliacus

110
Q

To make the horse’s gait more energy efficient

A

the bulk of the muscle mass is in the upper limb, the distal limb is light and the limb folds during swing

111
Q

Giving a horse with back pain six months of rest with turnout is likely to

A

have little effect of the back pain and result in atrophy of the longissimus muscle

112
Q

Why do we pull away, yell and get hot when we hit our thumb with a hammer?

A

pain stimulates the withdrawal reflex, the limbic area of the brain and causes an autonomic response.

113
Q

Which set of limbs is better suited for utilization of the stretch shortening cycle?

A

pelvic limbs

114
Q

To run faster

A

the horse needs to generate higher ground reaction force

115
Q

Is laser therapy useful after tendon injury to aid in healing?

A

Yes

116
Q

How does the motion of the back at walk differ from the back motion at trot?

A

there is less movement overall at the trot

117
Q

Ia fibers synapse directly to alpha motor neurons. This

A

increases the speed of transmission

118
Q

The serratus ventralis cervicus is another muscle that lifts or flexes the lower cervical curve. Its attachments are:

A

medial scapula to transverse process of C4-7

119
Q

It is important to strengthen the muscles around the thoracolumbar spine

A

to provide dynamic stabilization and help prevent injury

120
Q

Effective feed-back is dependent on ____________________.

A

high gamma gain

121
Q

The sympathetic trunk in the thorax runs near

A

the rib heads

122
Q

A hypertonic psoas muscle

A

can stimulate the sympathetic nervous system and make the horse nervous or anxious

123
Q

After thoracolumbar injury, changes in the multifidus can be seen after

A

one day

124
Q

When a patient shows signs of TND you should

A

stop treatment for the day

125
Q

What aids circulation of lymph?

A

movement

126
Q

The psoas major muscle attaches

A

the last ribs and lumbar vertebrae to the lesser trochanter of the femur

127
Q

What is the primary factor in proper oxygenation?

A

mechanical movement of the ribs and spine

128
Q

How can a horse compensate when it does not have enough core strength to lift its forehand?

A

raise its head and neck to help lift the forehand

129
Q

What effect does knee effusion have on the quadriceps in humans?

A

decrease neuromuscular control

130
Q

The neck should be in extension during motion palpation.

A

FALSE

131
Q

Psoas hypertonicity can lead to

A

pain on palpation of the lumbosacral joint, ventral pressure over the SI joint and a shortened caudal phase of stride

132
Q

The biceps femoris, semitendinosus and the semimembranosus all have two origins, what are they?

A

the lumbar and/or coccygeal vertebrae and the tuber ischium

133
Q

T/F Proprioceptive training can help reduce the risk of injury.

A

TRUE

134
Q

The key role of the psoas muscle is

A

to stabilize the SI joint

135
Q

Why do the dorsal spinous processes of the cranial thoracics (withers) slant caudally?

A

to resist the pull of the nuchal ligament

136
Q

What do GTOs monitor?

A

contraction

137
Q

Ia fiber stimulation results in (3)

A

stimulation of the same muscle, stimulation of synergistic muscles and inhibition of antagonistic muscle

138
Q

Inflammation helps the healing process by

A

bringing in cells to aid in the clean up and repair process

139
Q

What is the line of correction (LOC) for a TMJ dorsal compartment?

A

lateral to medial

140
Q

What are the attachments and action for the deltoideus?

A

the scapular spine and caudal border of the scapula to the humerus and its action is to flex the shoulder joint and abduct the limb

141
Q

A central pattern generator is

A

neural network that is capable of generating rhythmic motor activity in the absence of sensory feedback.

142
Q

Restrictions at ______________ or _________________ are most likely to affect cranial nerves.

A

TMJ or Hyoid

143
Q

Feed-forward depends on

A

Prior experience

144
Q

When an animal jumps, just before take off, it flexes the joints of the hind limbs in other words it uses a counter-movement. Why do they use a counter-movement?

A

to increase the force generated by the hind limbs

145
Q

How does cold therapy affect the muscle spindle function, nerve conduction and muscle force production?

A

decreases all three

146
Q

Why is it important for us to use a high velocity for the manipulation?

A

to stimulate the golgi tendon organs

147
Q

What effect does therapeutic ultrasound have on tissue?

A

therapeutic ultrasound warms the tissue

148
Q

Choice effect is:

A

with many choices available the response is slower until the nervous system develops parallel processing pathways

149
Q

When a horse is worked in collection over time is bottom line becomes

A

deeper in the flank

150
Q

The double curve of the ribs is important because

A

it allows movement of the ribs to expand the thoracic cavity

151
Q

What are three muscles of inspiration?

A

external intercostal, serratus dorsalis cranialis and rectus thoracis

152
Q

T/F To adjust a lateral scapula, you must be on a bale on the side opposite the restriction.

A

FALSE

153
Q

Why is it important for an animal to stand with its feet evenly under its body i.e. square?

A

it is the most energy efficient and balanced

154
Q

A horse that is sore on the left side of his back will make the rider saddle shift

A

to the right

155
Q

A bilateral restriction of C5 may indicate a problem with the _________.

A

diaphragm

156
Q

Feed-forward mechanisms are

A

fast because they anticipate movement

157
Q

Muscles that attach to the tuber coxae include:

A

tensor fascia lata, external abdominal oblique and superficial gluteal

158
Q

The muscle fibers of the serratus ventralis thoracis run from craniodorsal to caudoventral. At its ventral aspect it meets with another muscle that has the same orientation (its fibers run craniodorsal to caudoventral) and is a muscle of expiration. That muscle is the_______?

A

external abdominal oblique

159
Q

What muscles can flex the hip?

A

Tensor fascia lata, psoas (major) and superficial gluteal

IVMI EVMM (43 decks)

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